Module 1, Section 1 Flashcards
(188 cards)
1
Q
airport sponsor
A
the governing body of an airport
2
Q
airport executive
A
a particular individual such as an airport manager or airport director
3
Q
airport operator
A
the overall airport management structure, including the sponsor, executive, and other personnel.
4
Q
[HISTORY] Air Mail Act / Kelly Act (1925)
A
Authorized postmaster general to contract with private companies
5
Q
[HISTORY] What important precedent did the Air Mail Act / Kelly Act of 1925 set?
A
that users of aviation should pay for it; aviation operations should be self-funded
6
Q
fixed-base operator (FBO)
A
organization that provides services such as fueling, hangaring, tie-down, pilot lounges, flight instruction, etc.
7
Q
[HISTORY] Air Commerce Act (1926)
A
Created aeronautics branch within Department of Commerce. Responsible for fostering air commerce, issuing and enforcing air traffic rules, licensing pilots, certifying aircraft, establishing airways, operating and maintaining NAVAIDs.
8
Q
[HISTORY] What were the purposes of the Air Cargo Deregulation Act (1976) and Airline Deregulation Act (1978)?
A
allow airlines to set airfares and operate routes at will
9
Q
[HISTORY] What were two effects of deregulation?
A
(1) expansion of some airports, service cuts at others; (2) hub-and-spoke operating model
10
Q
[HISTORY] What events/programs began the practice of providing federal funding for building or improving airports?
A
The Great Depression and the Works Progress Administration (WPA)
11
Q
[HISTORY] What portion of airport building or improvement costs were covered by WPA funds?
A
50%
12
Q
[HISTORY] When was AAAE founded, and when did the AAE certification program begin?
A
1928; 1954
13
Q
[HISTORY] Development of Landing Areas for National Defense (DLAND) appropriation
A
Enabled Secretary of War, Secretary of Commerce, and Navy to acquire land for WWII military use
14
Q
[HISTORY] Federal Aid to Airports Act (1946)
A
created Federal Aid to Airports Program (FAAP) which provided 50% of funding to airports in the National Airports Plan on the condition that the airports remain publicly accessible
15
Q
[HISTORY] Federal Aviation Act (1958)
A
Created Federal Aviation Agency to take over the following roles from the Civil Aeronautics Board: safety rulemaking, developing air navigation/air traffic control system common to civil and military. Transferred to DOT in 1966 and renamed Federal Aviation Administration.
16
Q
[HISTORY] Airport and Airway Development Act (1970)
A
Established Airport Development Aid Program (ADAP) to expand the list of grant-eligible projects and the Planning Grant Program (PGP) to provide funding for master planning and system planning. Also created an airport certification program to issue operating certificates.
17
Q
[HISTORY] Airport and Airway Improvement Act (1982)
A
Established Airport Improvement Program (AIP) and expanded list of eligible projects. Reorganized National Airport Plan as National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS)
18
Q
What are the categories of airports in the National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS)?
A
Large hub, medium hub, small hub, non-hub, GA
19
Q
How many annual enplanements must an NPIAS airport have to be considered a “hub” airport?
A
2,500
20
Q
[HISTORY] What were some of the areas of airports impacted following 9/11?
A
terminal design, security screening, passenger experience
21
Q
What are the four major classes of stakeholders at airports?
A
Government entities; aeronautical users; non-aeronautical users; community
22
Q
What are the five general types of airports in the U.S.?
A
commercial service, cargo service, GA, military, private
23
Q
Which types of airports are generally excluded from FAA planning or funding?
A
military, private
24
Q
Which types of airports are regulated under Title 14 CFR Part 139?
A
commercial service, cargo service
25
Commercial service and cargo service airports are regulated by what legislation?
Title 14 CFR Part 139
26
What would cause a GA airport to become "regulated"?
Acceptance of federal funding via AIP grants
27
commercial service airport
public-use airport with >2,500 annual enplanements
28
GA airport
public-use airport with <2,500 annual enplanements
29
GA reliever airport
GA airport that is intended to concentrate GA traffic and remove it from nearby commercial service airport
30
cargo service airport
public-use airport with >100,000,000 pounds of landed weight delivered via freighter aircraft (i.e., excludes belly cargo)
31
joint-use airport
airport owned by Department of Defense at which both military and civil aircraft operate
32
shared-use airport
U.S. government-owned airport co-located with a civil airport
33
"industrial aviation" airport
unofficial designation for an airport at which activities such as aircraft assembly, aircraft parts manufacturing, maintenance repair and overhaul, etc. occur
34
Which airports are included on the National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS)?
airports that are eligible to receive AIP grants
35
Name the criteria for airports that are included in the NPIAS
publicly-owned; privately-owned but designated as reliever by FAA; privately-owned with >2,500 annual enplanements; GA reliever airports; airports with air carrier transport to an organization that contracts with USPS; public-use with a unit of National Guard or Reserve Armed Forces
36
If an airport does not meet the criteria to be included in the NPIAS, how else could it be included?
part of a state airport system plan; serving community >30 minutes from other NPIAS airport; forecast to have at least 10 based aircraft within 5 years; under consideration by public sponsor to undertake ownership and development; determination that benefits from airport development would exceed its costs; written documentation describing airport's isolation; serving indigenous groups; supports recreation; needed to develop or protect national resources
37
How often is the NPIAS published?
every two years
38
How far into the future does the NPIAS look?
five years
39
Which airport projects are published with the NPIAS?
only those which are eligible for AIP funding
40
What are the three measurements that are used to gauge airport activity?
passenger enplanements, aircraft operations, cargo tonnage
41
How many annual enplanements must a commercial service airport have to be considered a primary hub?
>10,000
42
A primary commercial service airport is classified as a "large hub" if it serves what percentage of total annual U.S. enplanements?
>1%
43
A primary commercial service airport is classified as a "medium hub" if it serves what percentage of total annual U.S. enplanements?
Between 0.25% and 1%
44
A primary commercial service airport is classified as a "small hub" if it serves what percentage of total annual U.S. enplanements?
Between 0.05% and 0.25%
45
A primary commercial service airport is classified as a "nonhub" if it serves what percentage of total annual U.S. enplanements?
Less than 0.05%
46
A commercial service airport is classified as non-primary if it serves how many annual enplanements?
Between 2,500 and 10,000
47
What is the largest sub-category of airport classifications in the U.S.?
General aviation
48
A GA airport must satisfy one of two criteria in order to be classified as a "general aviation reliever" airport. What are these criteria?
>100 aircraft or >25,000 annual itinerant operations
49
What are the five categories of GA airports?
national, regional, local, basic, unclassified
50
National GA airport
located in metropolitan areas near major business centers, support operations by most sophisticated GA aircraft
51
Regional GA airport
located in metropolitan areas serving large population centers, support interstate and intrastate flight
52
Local GA airport
typically located near metropolitan or micropolitan areas, mostly piston aircraft, flight tends to be within state or immediate region
53
Basic GA airport
typically only one runway/helipad/seaplane lane, mostly self-piloted operations with propeller aircraft
54
What organization governs flight operations globally, ensuring consistency and creating a common vocabulary?
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
55
What legislation regulates private flight operations?
Title 14 CFR Part 91
56
What topics does Title 14 CFR Part 91 cover?
Describes private flight operations; addresses General Operating and Flight Rules applicable to any aircraft operating in U.S. airspace
57
What legislation contains the requirements for an aircraft operator certificate?
Title 14 CFR Part 119
58
What legislation regulates air carrier certification?
Title 14 CFR Part 121
59
What legislation regulates public charters?
Title 14 CFR Part 380
60
What legislation regulates commuter/on-demand/air charter/air taxi operations?
Title 14 CFR Part 135
61
scheduled air carrier operation
An operation conducted under Title 14 CFR Part 121 and provides a schedule
62
An operation conducted under Part 121 can only operate at which airports?
Airports that meet Title 14 CFR Part 139 certification
63
An airport manager can only allow which types of aircraft and air carrier operations?
Those that have been approved in the airport's operating certificate
64
Under what circumstances can air carriers operate at airports without Part 139 certification?
Operations outside the U.S.; domestic operations in Alaska with 10-30 seats; emergency situations; training flights; use of an airport designated as an alternate in air carrier operating certificate
65
What distinguishes the operators regulated under Part 121 (air carrier certification) from those regulated under Part 135 (commuter/air taxi)?
Part 135 operations are usually unscheduled
66
What period of time is covered during an "air carrier operation" at a Part 139 airport?
From 15 minutes prior to takeoff until 15 minutes after landing
67
What services must a Part 139 airport provide for an air carrier operation from 15 minutes prior to takeoff until 15 minutes after landing?
ARFF services, inspection, wildlife hazard management, snow removal, lighting system operation
68
direct air carrier
certificated domestic or foreign air carrier, air taxi operator, or commuter air carrier that directly engages in operation of aircraft under a certificate, permit, or exemption issued by DOT
69
indirect air carrier
person or organization that engages in services of a direct air carrier. Uses commercial air transportation to move cargo or people but does not own or control aircraft.
70
What legislation regulates the operation of aircraft not in common carriage (i.e., not sold to public) configured with 20+ seats or >6,000 lbs of cargo-carrying capacity?
Title 14 CFR Part 125
71
What legislation regulates public charter operations provided by a Part 121 air carrier?
Title 14 CFR Part 380
72
Under Title 14 CFR Part 91.103, what must a pilot do before beginning a flight?
Become familiar with all available information: reference Airport Facility Directory (A/FD); check weather at origin, destination, and en-route; and review any NOTAMs
73
Some air carriers or corporate departments may use what instead of pilots reviewing and preparing pre-flight information?
flight dispatch personnel who hold a valid Flight Dispatcher Certificate
74
Who has the final responsibility for the safety and security of a flight operation?
the Pilot In Command (PIC); also called the "power of the parking brake"
75
pilotage
navigating based on ground reference points visible from the air
76
dead reckoning
navigation using navigational beacons and radio transceivers to triangulate position, determine ground speed, and navigate to next fix
77
VFR
visual flight rules; flying using visual references
78
VMC
visual meteorological conditions; generally 1,000 feet ceiling and 3 miles visibility
79
VFR can only be conducted below what altitude?
Below 18,000 MSL
80
Is a flight plan required to be filed to fly in VFR?
No, but it may be filed
81
flight plan
filing with the FAA that informs about the pilot's identity, type of plane, number of people, departure/arrival locations and times
82
IMC
instrument meteorological conditions; below VMC
83
IFR
instrument flight rules; flights conducted during IMC or above 18,000 MSL
84
Is a flight plan required to be filed to fly in IFR?
Yes; only pilots with training can fly IFR flights (i.e., in IMC or above 18,000 MSL)
85
Is a flight plan required to be filed to fly above 18,000 MSL?
Yes
86
What is the network of fixes and route connecting them called below and above 18,000 MSL, respectively?
Victor Airways (below), Jet Routes (above)
87
What technology makes air navigation much more flexible?
GPS
88
sectional chart
a chart of a route that identifies airport, weather, radio frequencies, NAVAIDs, city light patterns, terrain features, obstructions, airspace information, occasionally ground features
89
Which types of flight operations use sectional charts?
VFR flights
90
Do VFR aircraft need to follow Victor Airways?
No; doing so could even conflict with aircraft on IFR flight plans
91
Low Altitude/High Altitude En Route charts
charts showing routes between NAVAIDs and minimum altitudes to maintain. Low altitude charts apply to IFR flights below 18,000 MSL; high altitude charts apply to IFR flights above 18,000 MSL
92
Why do low altitude/high altitude en route charts contain little information on terrain or obstacles?
Because a flight plan has been filed, ATC directs pilots to avoid these
93
What sources may a pilot consult for en-route weather?
weather stations, weather radar (if installed), communication with other pilots via pilot reports (PIREPs), airline base of operations
94
What sources may a pilot consult for airport weather?
Airport Surface Observation Station (ASOS), Airport Weather Observation Station (AWOS), Automated Terminal Information System (ATIS) for tower-controlled airports
95
visual approach
approach to a runway conducted during VMC that uses visual reference
96
instrument approach
Approach to a runway conducted in either VMC or IMC in which pilot relies on avionics (instruments). Defined routes and altitudes from initial approach to landing.
97
What are the FAA's responsibilities with respect to instrument approaches?
establishes procedures, establishes missed approach routes, installs equipment, publishes information in instrument approach plates
98
What are the two types of instrument approaches?
Precision and non-precision
99
instrument departure procedures (DPs)
standard departure routes followed by pilots that intercept en-route paths
100
standard terminal arrival routes (STARs)
standard arrival routes followed by pilots from en-route paths to airport approaches
101
TERPs
Terminal Instrument Procedures; collection of approach procedures, instrument departure procedures, and STARs
102
TERPS en-route segments typically have obstacle clearances starting at what altitude?
1,000 feet
103
What is the standard TERPS glideslope?
3 degrees, or 20:1
104
What is the obstacle clearance for an aircraft at the final approach fix?
700 feet
105
What is the obstacle clearance for an aircraft at the runway threshold?
50 feet
106
What is the most common type of airport sponsor?
Municipality (city or county)
107
enterprise fund
a branch of (municipal) government that acts like a business
108
Does the FAA require airports to be self-sustainable?
No, but it requires airports to strive toward such a goal.
109
How do grant assurances restrict the use of funds generated using airport assets on airport property?
They require the funds to be used for airport operations and purposes.
110
obligated airport
An airport that has accepted FAA grant money or is otherwise required (e.g., through property transfer) to adhere to to FAA grant assurances or other requirements
111
Why do grant assurances exist?
To protect airports from political influence to the extent possible while allowing flexibility for airport to thrive in its community and act as an asset to the NAS
112
What type of business relationship is common at airports but less common in municipal government?
Public-private partnership
113
What are some of the key differences between airports as a business and private businesses?
Airports receive significant subsidies; airport sponsors can issue bonds; many decisions are made to serve community rather than to maximize profit
114
Why are airports better able to engage in ventures such as speculative building (as opposed to municipalities)?
They are not dependent on local tax revenue
115
What are the five most common types of airport sponsors?
municipality, airport authority, port authority, state, private
116
What are some key questions that determine an airport sponsor's roles and properties?
Who controls appointments to the sponsor's governing body? Does the sponsor have control over budget, contracts, capital projects, and personnel? Can the sponsor levy taxes or issue bonds? Does the sponsor have the power of eminent domain?
117
memorandum of understanding (MOU)
a legal document between multiple public agencies that defines the roles, responsibilities, and relationship between the various agencies
118
What incentives for airport privatization were included in the Airport Privatization Program (1996)?
Congress authorized FAA to exempt the private sponsor from federal obligations to repay grants, return federally-acquired property, and use proceeds from sale or lease of land for airport purposes.
119
If privatization happens outside of the Airport Privatization Program (1996), what grant assurance still applies?
Grant Assurance 25; sponsor may only use proceeds from sale or lease of of airport property for authorized purposes
120
Which airport ownership structure has better access to local governmental resources?
municipality
121
Which airport ownership structure can levy taxes?
municipality
122
Which airport ownership structure may consist of decision-makers unfamiliar with the operation of airports or with split interests?
municipality
123
Which airport ownership structure tends to be more isolated from political influence?
authority
124
Which airport ownership structure can straddle multiple political jurisdictions?
authority
125
Which airport ownership structure can be more business-focused?
authority
126
Which airport ownership structure may encounter difficulties in having readily available resources and finances?
authority
127
Which airport ownership structure may be more likely to make decisions that are not favorable to both the airport and the community?
municipality
128
What are the three (four) groups at the top of the airport sponsor organization chart?
airport executive, legal counsel, auditor, (engineering)
129
What are the four broad groups under the airport executive on the airport sponsor organization chart?
finance and administration; planning and engineering; operations, security, and maintenance; community relations, marketing, air service development
130
What is another name for Title 14 CFR's?
FAR's (Federal Aviation Regulations)
131
FAR Part 77
Safe, Efficient Use and Preservation of Navigable Airspace
132
FAR Part 107
Small Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS)
133
FAR Part 139
Topic: airport certification
134
FAR Part 150
Topic: noise and compatibility
135
FAR Part 151
Topic: federal aid to airports
136
FAR Part 152
Topic: airport aid program
137
FAR Part 156
State Block Grant Program
138
FAR Part 157
Notice of Construction, Alteration, Activation, and Deactivation of Airports
139
FAR Part 158
Passenger Facility Charges
140
FAR Part 161
Notice of Approval of Airport Noise and Access Restrictions
141
FAR Part 420
License to Operate a Launch Site
142
What general topic does the Title 49 CFR Part 1500 series cover?
airport security regulations
143
FAR Part 169
Expenditure of Federal Funds for Nonmilitary Airports or Air Navigation Facilities Thereon
144
FAR Part 36
Noise Standards: Aircraft Type and Airworthiness Certification
145
PAR Part 71
Topic: designation of Class A-E airspace, airways, routes, and reporting points
146
FAR Part 73
Special Use Airspace
147
FAR Part 91
Topic: aircraft operating rules (incl. private aircraft)
148
FAR Part 93
Special Air Traffic Rules and Airport Traffic Patterns
149
FAR Part 97
Standard Instrument Approach Procedures
150
FAR Part 121
Topic: air carrier operating requirements
151
FAR Part 125
Topic: certification for aircraft with 20+ pax capacity or 6,000+ payload capacity
152
FAR Part 129
Topic: foreign air carriers
153
FAR Part 135
Topic: commuter and on-demand operations
154
NPRM
Notice of Proposed Rulemaking
155
Notice of Proposed Rulemaking
Process by which an independent agency desires to add, change, or remove a federal regulation
156
What are the steps in the NPRM process?
Draft regulations; publish in Federal Register; public comment period; responses to comments and make adjustments; re-publish in Federal Register
157
When in the NPRM process does an added/modified regulation become enforceable?
Following the second publication in the Federal Register
158
How long is the public comment period of the NPRM for minor changes? Major changes?
30 days; 60 days
159
When is the NPRM process not required?
For emergency rulemaking
160
What was the earliest inception of the "FAA", created by the Air Commerce Act (1926)?
Aeronautics Branch of the Department of Commerce
161
In 1934, the Aeronautics Branch of the Department of Commerce was renamed what?
Bureau of Air Commerce
162
The Federal Aviation Act transferred the Civil Aeronautics Authority's functions to which agency?
Federal Aviation Agency
163
In 1966, the Federal Aviation Agency was renamed to what and reorganized under what federal agency?
Federal Aviation Administration; Department of Transportation
164
How many FAA regional offices are there?
Nine
165
What are the nine FAA regional offices?
New England, Eastern, Southern, Great Lakes, Central, Southwest, Northwest, Western-Pacific, Alaska
166
What are the five lines of business in the FAA?
Airports (ARP), Air Traffic Organization (ATO), Aviation Safety (AVS), Commercial Space Transportation (AST), NextGen (ANG)
167
Which FAA line of business is responsible for air traffic control and NAVAID maintenance?
Air Traffic Organization (ATO)
168
Which FAA line of business is responsible for pilot, mechanic, and other professional certification?
Aviation Safety (AVS)
169
Which FAA line of business approves grant and PFC applications?
Airports (ARP)
170
Through what office do airport operators primarily interact with the FAA?
Airport District Office (ADO)
171
What are the two methods of informal dispute resolution that an ADO may use?
FAA Investigative and Enforcement Procedures; Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR)
172
Flight Standards District Office (FSDO)
Local office that enforces regulations for aircraft and airmen certification and licensing
173
Which FAA line of business does the Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) fall under?
Aviation Safety (AVS)
174
Advisory Circular (AC)
Document issued by FAA to explain intent of federal regulation, to provide guidance and information, and to show acceptable methods/practices for complying with regulations
175
Are Advisory Circular guidelines binding?
No, unless they are incorporated with reference to a regulation
176
incorporation by reference
mentioning a second document within a document such that the terms and content of the second document apply
177
Advisory Circular materials are often treated as law due to what practice?
Incorporation by reference of other federal aviation regulations
178
Why Advisory Circulars binding for Airport Improvement Program grants?
AC's are incorporated by reference in AIP grants
179
Which FAA Advisory Circular series addresses airports?
AC/150 series
180
FAA Orders
directives on specific subjects and programs which remain in effect until they are rescinded
181
FAA Order 5190.6A
Airport Compliance Handbook; provides policies and procedures to follow in carrying out FAA functions related to airport compliance
182
Which organization is the Airport Cooperative Research Program (ACRP) under?
Transportation Research Board (TRB)
183
Which organization is the Program for Applied Research in Airport Security (PARAS) under?
National Safe Skies Alliance
184
Which organization publishes Standards for Security Access Control Systems?
Radio Technical Commission for Aeronautics (RTCA)
185
What do ACRP and PARAS research projects provide?
best practices for many airport operational issues
186
What do RTCA standards provide?
regulatory requirements for airport security
187
What is the main difference in content/objectives between TSA Service Directives and Information Circulars
Service Directives provide changing requirements to an airport's security program, whereas Information Circulars contain intel or best practices.
188
Are TSA Service Directives and Information Circulars publicly available?
No; they are considered sensitive security information
