Module 1: Summative Assessment Pt. 1 Flashcards
(171 cards)
1
Q
Clients may be emotional, stressed, or upset due to their pet’s condition. While the vast majority will behave appropriately, you may encounter an occasional client who is not as pleasant to deal with. If you are uncomfortable with how a client is acting you should
Select one:
a. excuse yourself and inform a supervisor or the doctor of the situation
b. tell the client to leave the hospital
c. do nothing, they will eventually leave
d. excuse yourself and go home
A
a. excuse yourself and inform a supervisor or the doctor of the situation Correct
2
Q
There is never a situation where asking for help is unwarranted.
Select one:
True
False
A
True
3
Q
Allow the cleaning solution to sit on any affected area for a minimum of:
Select one:
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 20 minutes
A
b. 10 minutes
4
Q
Which of the following is not part of the abdominal cavity?
Select one:
a. Diaphragm
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Gallbladder
e. Pancreas
f. Esophagus
A
Esophagus
5
Q
The cephalic vein is a branch of the
Select one:
a. External jugular vein
b. Lateral saphenous vein
c. Medial saphenous vein
A
a. External jugular vein
6
Q
Palmar
A
The surface of the forepaw that contacts the ground
7
Q
Plantar
A
The surface of the hind paw that contacts the ground
8
Q
Proximal
A
The area of a body part that is relatively close to its origin
9
Q
IV catheters should be rewrapped every _____ hours and anytime the bandage becomes soiled
Select one:
a. 24
b. 36
c. 48
d. 72
A
a. 24
10
Q
If you suspect a client is neglecting or abusing a pet you should:
Select one:
a. contact HR
b. call the MSPCA
c. call the police
d. report your suspicions to the Medical Director of your hospital
A
d. report your suspicions to the Medical Director of your hospital
11
Q
The red blood cells return from the body via the _____________ and enter the right atrium.
Select one:
a. vena cava
b. tricuspid valve
c. right ventricle
A
a. vena cava
12
Q
Aseptic
A
Free from infection or septic material (pathogenic microorganisms or their toxins)
13
Q
Caudal
A
Of, at or near the hind or back end of an object
14
Q
Intravenous
A
Within a blood vessel
15
Q
Dyspena
A
An increase in respiratory effort
16
Q
Fomite
A
Animate or inanimate object on which disease-producing germs bay be carried
17
Q
All of the following are zoonotic diseases except:
Select one:
a. Rabies
b. Ringworm
c. Leptospirosis
d. Parvo
A
d. Parvo
18
Q
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
First
A
Mouth
19
Q
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Second
A
Esophagus
20
Q
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Third
A
Lower Esophageal Sphincter
21
Q
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Fourth
A
Stomach
22
Q
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Fifth
A
Pyloric sphincter
23
Q
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Sixth
A
Duodenum
24
Q
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Seventh
A
Jejunum
25
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it's path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Eighth
Ileum
26
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it's path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Ninth
Ileocecal Valve
27
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it's path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Tenth
Cecum
28
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it's path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Eleventh
Ascending colon
29
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it's path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Twelfth
Transverse colon
30
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it's path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Thirteenth
Descending colon
31
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it's path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Fourteenth
Rectum
32
Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it's path in the correct order (fifteen in total):
Fifteenth
Anus
33
Some commonly used disinfectants are not effective against leptospirosis and intestinal parasites and a 1:10 bleach solution can be used instead for cleaning.
Select one:
True
False
True
34
Dogs on IV fluids should be walked every 4 hours
Select one:
True
False
True
35
All hospitalized patients should wear an ID collar, unless deemed contraindicated by the doctor.
Select one:
True
False
True
36
Minimal restraint is the most successful way to examine most cats.
Select one:
True
False
True
37
When restraining for placement of peripheral IV catheters, the handler controls the head with one arm and extends the leg with the other.
Select one:
True
False
True
38
Bradycardia is defined as
Select one:
a. difficulty in swallowing
b. an increase in respiratory effort
c. decreased heart and pulse rate
d. increased heart and pulse rate
c. decreased heart and pulse rate
39
Debilitated cats
Select one:
a. can die from the stress of being restrained
b. never bite
c. should always be muzzled
d. should always be scruffed
a. can die from the stress of being restrained
40
Clipper blades
Select one:
a. should be snapped into place with the clipper motor turned off
b. should be snapped into place with the clipper motor running
c. should be brush with a wire brush under running water
d. are disposable
b. should be snapped into place with the clipper motor running
41
Puppies and kittens are considered neonates from birth until
Select one:
a. 12 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 2 weeks
d. 2 months
b. 4 weeks
42
Muzzles can be your best first defense however applying a muzzle is a prime time to get bitten
Select one:
True
False
True
43
Zoonotic
A disease that is spread from animal to human
44
Intramuscular
Within a muscle
45
Jaundice - (icterus)
A yellow tint to the mucous membrances caused by bilirubin
46
Hypothermia
A decrease in body temperature
47
Melena
Dark, tarry stool caused by digested blood
48
All dogs should be lifted by one technician
Select one:
True
False
False
49
What are two important reasons why understanding basic animal body language and communication in the veterinary setting is important? (select the best two)
Select one or more:
a. So we can maintain safety for ourselves and those around us
b. So we know if the animal wants to play
c. It helps us know when an animal is stressed, so we can do what we can to minimize that stress
d. So we know when an animal is hungry
a. So we can maintain safety for ourselves and those around us
c. It helps us know when an animal is stressed, so we can do what we can to minimize that stress
50
Animals communicate in which of the following ways.
Select one:
a. By body posture
b. With facial expressions
c. By vocalization
d. All of these
e. None of these
d. All of these
51
Is this true or false? Seeing a dog that has a wagging tail means it is friendly.
Select one:
True
False
False
52
Is this true or false? When a dog snarls and growls it means it is aggressive.
Select one:
True
False
False
53
An animal will display an appeasement signal because:
Select one:
a. It’s trying to please you
b. It wants to create space
c. It is tired and wants to sleep
d. To communicate that it’s mad
b. It wants to create space
54
When you see a dog display a lip lick, what is it trying to tell you?
Select one:
a. The dog is too hot.
b. That there is too much noise in the hospital.
c. It is hungry and would like to eat.
d. It is feeling anxious and uncomfortable.
d. It is feeling anxious and uncomfortable
55
Which statement about animal communication is false?
Select one:
a. Part of ensuring the animals comfort is by viewing the environment from their point of view
b. Our body language can affect the animal
c. Taking the entire body into account is important
d. A tucked tail and flattened ears indicate guilt
d. A tucked tail and flattened ears indicate guilt
56
lick all that apply. Which of the following are considered a colloid?
Select one or more:
a. VetStarch
b. Frozen plasma
c. Norm-R
d. NaCl
a. VetStarch
b. Frozen plasma
| Colloids: Have a higher molecular weight and stay in vasculature longer.
57
The most effective way to medicate a patient is hiding medications in their food.
Select one:
True
False
False
58
What medications, when added to a fluid bag, need to be protected from light at all times?
Select one:
a. Potassium Chloride/ Vitamin B Complex
b. Potassium Chloride/Dextrose
c. Vitamin B Complex/Valium
d. Dexmeditomidine/Potassium Chloride
c. Vitamin B Complex/Valium
59
Kittens are easy to sex before 8 weeks of age.
Select one:
True
False
False
60
All patients admitted for surgery should never be given food and water unless instructed to by the patient’s doctor.
Select one:
True
False
True
61
A patient with a resuscitation order of "DNR" means that in the event of an arrest, no medical intervention should be taken.
Select one:
True
False
True
62
It is not necessary to clean the ears prior to initiating aural medication administration.
Select one:
True
False
False
63
Resuscitation may include: ventilation, chest compressions and administering various medications.
Select one:
True
False
True
64
Pet foods that are sold as complete and balanced must meet minimum ____________ standards
Select one:
a. AAFCO
b. FDA
c. CVM
d. USDA
a. AAFCO
| AAFCO: The Associateion of American Feed Control Officials
65
Pet foods that are sold as complete and balanced must meet minimum ____________ standards
Select one:
a. AAFCO
b. FDA
c. CVM
d. USDA
a. AAFCO
| AAFCO: The Associateion of American Feed Control Officials
66
Patients receiving TPN or PPN should always have these lines disconnected in order to be walked
Select one:
True
False
False
| TPN: Total Parenteral Nutrition, PPN: Partial Parenteral Nutrition
67
What does DNR stand for?
Select one:
a. Don’t not resuscitate
b. Do not resuscitate
c. Danger non-resuscitation
d. Danger when resuscitating
b. Do not resuscitate
68
A cytologic exam of an ear swab helps to determine what type of medication is appropriate.
Select one:
True
False
True
| Cytologic exam = analysis of cells from the body under a microscope.
69
What does PO stand for?
Select one:
a. Peace Offer
b. Per Oral
c. Poly Oral
d. Per Os
d. Per Os
70
Medications added to the fluid bag need to be well mixed before priming the administration line.
Select one:
True
False
True
71
Where should the patient be ideally disconnected from their fluid line prior to transport?
Select one:
a. The extension set.
b. The patient should never be transported while receiving IV fluids.
c. The t-piece
d. The catheter should be removed before transport.
c. The t-piece
72
When applying aural medications, you should place the tip of the applicator as far as you can into the ear canal.
Select one:
True
False
False
73
Liquid medications should be avoided in patients with swallowing disorders.
Select one:
True
False
True
74
Any patient admitted into the hospital should have a cage card and a treatment plan (sheet) created.
Select one:
True
False
True
75
How many kilograms is a patient weighing 50 pounds?
Select one:
a. 15 kg
b. 22.7 kg
c. 50 kg
d. 110 kg
b. 22.7 kg
76
While assessing a patient's respiratory rate, you count 10 breaths in a 15 second timeframe. What do you report as their respiratory rate?
Select one:
a. 20 bpm
b. 30 bpm
c. 40 bpm
d. 10 bpm
c. 40 bpm
77
What is the normal rectal temperature of the canine and feline?
Select one:
a. 100 - 102.5 °F
b. 99 - 100 °F
c. 101 - 103 °F
d. 100 - 104 °F
a. 100 - 102.5 °F
78
What artery is most commonly used to assess a patient’s pulse rate and quality?
Select one:
a. Carotid
b. Lingual
c. Jugular
d. Femoral
d. Femoral
79
Which of the following is considered the preferred method to substantiate nutritional adequacy claims?
Select one:
a. Family method
b. Formula method
c. Feeding trial method
c. Feeding trial method
80
Packed red blood cells are considered a colloid.
Select one:
True
False
False
81
What is the term for a patient whose temperature is below the reference range?
Select one:
a. Hypotensive
b. Hypertensive
c. Hyperthermic
d. Hypothermic
d. Hypothermic
82
A patient with hyperkinetic pulses has a difficult to palpate pulse.
Select one:
True
False
False
83
A patient with a pneumothorax may show signs of orthopnea.
Select one:
True
False
True
84
A stethoscope is only used to auscult a patient’s heart.
Select one:
True
False
False
85
What is the term for a patient experiencing bloody diarrhea?
Select one:
a. Hematochezia
b. Hematuria
c. Hematoma
d. Hematemesis
a. Hematochezia
86
What is the term for a patient experiencing bloody vomit?
Select one:
a. Hematochezia
b. Hematemesis
c. Hematuria
d. Hematoma
b. Hematemesis
87
What does SOAP stand for?
Select one:
a. Speculative, Objective, Alternative, Plan
b. Super, Obsessive, Anxious, Patient
c. None of the above
d. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
d. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
88
The abbreviation Rx can be used in reference to a prescription.
Select one:
True
False
True
89
Nursing Notes are just a tool for the nursing staff and are not necessary to utilize as long as the nurse can remember all the information associated with their patient.
Select one:
True
False
False
90
All Nursing Notes should be reviewed prior to performing a treatment on a patient for the first time.
Select one:
True
False
True
91
What is the minimum amount of time you should wait between ocular medications?
Select one:
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 5 minutes
c. 5 minutes
92
An ophthalmic exam should be performed by a veterinarian prior to initiating ocular medication administration.
Select one:
True
False
True
93
Liquid ophthalmic solutions should be applied before ointments if they are due at the same time.
Select one:
True
False
True
94
Never flush a nasal oxygen line.
Select one:
True
False
True
95
Is this true or false? An otoscopic exam should be performed by a veterinarian prior to initiating aural medication administration.
Select one:
True
False
True
96
Nursing notes are used to chart any findings which cannot be easily captured on the treatment sheet.
Select one:
True
False
True
97
Dysphagia
Difficulty in swallowing
98
Aspirate
Inhaling of fluid or foreign material the larynx and trachea
99
Caudal
At or near the hind or back end of an object
100
What are the five vital assessments that should be documented in the medical record at every visit?
Select one:
a. Temperature, demeanor, respiratory rate, attitude, pain
b. Temperature, pulse, respiratory rate, pain, nutrition
c. Demeanor, pulse, pain, gait, nutrition
d. Pulse, pain, nutrition, attitude, gait
b. Temperature, pulse, respiratory rate, pain, nutrition
101
AAFCO is a government agency that establishes the laws pertaining to pet food labels
Select one:
True
False
False
102
All air should be removed from the intravenous fluid administration set prior to connecting it to the patient.
Select one:
True
False
True
103
To convert a patient weight from pounds to kilograms
Select one:
a. divide by 2.2
b. multiple by 2.2
c. subtract 2.2
d. add 2.2
a. divide by 2.2
104
Medical records are
Select one:
a. a matter of public record
b. online and can viewed by anyone
c. confidential and only be discussed with the patients other veterinary medical professionals and the owner
d. may be discussed with anyone that calls inquiring about a patient
c. confidential and only be discussed with the patients other veterinary medical professionals and the owner
105
All entries made to a patient treatment sheet or nursing notes must be initialed by the charting technician or doctor at the time of entry.
Select one:
True
False
True
106
Normosol-R, Lactated Ringers and Sodium Chloride are all examples of what type of intravenous fluid?
Select one:
a. Crystalloid
b. IV Fluid
c. Colloid
d. Plasma
a. Crystalloid
107
In a normal, healthy animal, the heart rate and pulse rate are generally equal.
Select one:
True
False
True
108
What is the manner in which the Doppler probe should be cleaned of ultrasonic gel?
Select one:
a. With chlorhexadine scrub.
b. With a kim-wipe or soft cloth.
c. With the towel that patient is laying on.
d. With an alcohol gauze to sanitize between patients.
b. With a kim-wipe or soft cloth.
109
Which of the following are important questions to ask when taking a nutritional history?
Select one:
a. All of these
b. Any history of nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea? If so, how often?
c. Does the pet have any difficulty chewing or swallowing?
d. Has there been any recent history of involuntary weight gain or loss? period?
e. Any changes in the pet's appetite, urination, or defecation?
a. All of these
110
How long should most treatment shampoos be left on the skin before rinsing thoroughly?
Select one:
a. 10 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. All shampoos should be rinsed immediately to avoid skin irritation.
a. 10 minutes
111
A __________ should be used to clean a patient’s ear if the doctor suspects a ruptured eardrum.
Select one:
a. veterinary based ear cleaner
b. sterile saline
b. sterile saline
112
Subcutaneous fluids can be beneficial when administered to a severely dehydrated patient.
Select one:
True
False
False
113
Anytime a medication is added to an fluid bag, the bag only needs to be labeled with the medication name and the technician’s name.
Select one:
True
False
False
114
What percentage of a patient’s body weight can be attributed to water?
Select one:
a. None
b. 40%
c. 20%
d. 60%
d. 60%
115
Aseptic technique needs to be followed when preparing a bag of intravenous fluids for administration.
Select one:
True
False
True
116
Nutritional support should be considered for pets that have not eaten for how many days?
Select one:
a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 3
d. 3
117
If an incision site is swollen, red, and has a discharge, you should remove the sutures.
Select one:
True
False
False
118
Hyperalgesia
Increased sensitivity to pain
119
Scald
Irritation of the skin caused by repeated contact with liquid
120
Allodynia
Pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain
121
Dogs that have diarrhea should not be fed or be given water
Select one:
True
False
True
122
Sanitary clips should be performed with which size blade?
Select one:
a. 40
b. 15
c. Razor blade
d. 10
d. 10
123
Capillary tubes should be filled ¾ full with blood and plugged with clay at _______
Select one:
a. both ends of the tube
b. the red end of the tube
c. the clear end of the tube
b. the red end of the tube
124
When spinning hematocrit tubes in the microcentrifuge the timer should be set to _____ minutes.
Select one:
a. 10
b. 15
c. 3
d. 7
c. 3
125
Controlled substances must be kept in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet or safe.
Select one:
True
False
True
126
The fastest way to get a drug into circulation is to inject it into the muscle.
Select one:
True
False
False
127
The fastest way to get a drug into circulation is to give it IV.
Select one:
True
False
True
128
Drugs given orally are taken into the gastrointestinal system and absorbed in the stomach and small intestine.
Select one:
True
False
True
129
The fastest way to get a drug into circulation is to inject it into the subcutaneous connective tissue and fat
Select one:
True
False
False
130
The guidelines for submitting rabies specimens differ between states.
Select one:
True
False
## Footnote
q
True
131
Tapping the hematocrit tube on the refractometer will scratch the surface and interfere with reading the results.
Select one:
True
False
True
132
How many pieces of information can be obtained from one hematocrit tube?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
d. 4
133
What does PCV stand for?
Select one:
a. Percent Cell Volume
b. Packed Corpuscular Volume
c. Plasma Cell Volume
d. Packed Cell Volume
d. Packed Cell Volume
134
A chemistry profile sample stored in a lithium heparin blood container must be run within 30 minutes from the time of collection.
Select one:
True
False
True
135
At minimum, how many times should a sample be inverted to ensure proper suspension of cells before running a blood sample?
Select one:
a. 10
b. 1
c. 4
d. 8
a. 10
136
A SNAP test must come to room temperature before being run.
Select one:
True
False
True
137
How full should a hematocrit tube be filled?
Select one:
a. 1/4 full
b. 3/4 full
c. 1/2 full
d. All the way
b. 3/4 full
138
If a necropsy is needed but delayed, the body must be stored in the freezer until the necropsy can take place.
Select one:
True
False
False
139
What is the vector for Lyme disease?
Select one:
a. Mosquitos
b. Deer tick
c. Flies
d. Fleas
b. Deer tick
140
Which of the following are benefits of vaccination? (check all that apply)
Select one or more:
a. Prevention of illness
b. Easier to train
c. Fewer disease related fatalities
d. A healthier pet population living longer than ever before
a. Prevention of illness
c. Fewer disease related fatalities
d. A healthier pet population living longer than ever before
141
A reconstituted vaccine should be used within ___________ minutes of reconstitution.
Select one:
a. 30
b. 90
c. 15
d. 60
a. 30
142
Scabies is caused by __________ mites.
Select one:
a. Demodex
b. Sarcoptes
c. Lice
d. Cuterebra
b. Sarcoptes
143
Medications should be disposed of by flushing them down the toilet.
Select one:
True
False
False
144
The results of a urinalysis can help us diagnose the following: (check all that apply)
Select one or more:
a. Urinary tract infection
b. Renal disease
c. Pneumonia
d. Diabetes
a. Urinary tract infection
b. Renal disease
d. Diabetes
145
Sharps containers should be disposed of when they are roughly_________ full.
Select one:
a. 75%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. 90%
a. 75%
146
The FIV virus is primarily spread between cats via ____________.
Select one:
a. Fighting and bite wounds
b. Flea transmission
c. Fomite contamination
d. Fecal contamnination
a. Fighting and bite wounds
147
A fecal flotation exam is utilized to test for intestinal parasites.
Select one:
True
False
True
148
The core vaccinations for dogs are
Select one:
a. Distemper, adenovirus, parvo, parainfluenza, rabies
b. Distemper, parvo, lyme, rabies
c. Distemper, parvo, rabies, lepto
d. Distemper, parvo, adenovirus, bordetella, rabies
a. Distemper, adenovirus, parvo, parainfluenza, rabies
149
Any fecal sample can be tested for intestinal parasites.
Select one:
True
False
False
150
What order should a slide be stained using the Diffquick method?
Select one:
a. Light blue, purple, red
b. Red, purple, light blue
c. Purple, red, light blue
d. Light blue, red, purple
d. Light blue, red, purple
151
Match the sample container to their purpose:
No Additive (plain red top)
Can be used for all samples that do not require anticoagulant
152
Match the sample container to their purpose:
Jars with Formalin
Used for tissue biopsies
153
Match the sample container to their purpose:
Slides
Used for cytology
154
Match the sample container to their purpose:
Heparin
Anticoagulant used for chemistry profiles
155
Match the sample container to their purpose:
Serum Separator (tiger top)
Used to separate serum from red blood cells, used for chemistry profiles
156
Match the sample container to their purpose:
EDTA (purple top)
Anticoagulant used for CBC's and ELISA tests
157
Match the sample container to their purpose:
Citrate (blue top)
Anticoagulant used for coagulation testing
158
Match the prescription abbreviation to the correct frequency:
TID
PRN
QUID
SID
BID
TID: Three times a day (every 8 hours)
PRN: As needed
QUID: Four times a day (every 6 hours)
SID: (Once a day (every 24 hours)
BID: Twice a day (every 12 hours)
159
What diagnostic test determines the number of white blood cells?
Select one:
a. Biochemistry profile
b. CBC
c. Urinalysis
d. Fecal
b. CBC
160
Heartworm is a parasite that is spread by
Select one:
a. Fecal contamination
b. Ticks
c. Mosquitos
d. Fleas
c. Mosquitos
161
What color medical waste container is used for disposal of chemotherapy materials?
Select one:
a. Blue
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. Green
c. Yellow
162
Canine parvovirus may remain viable in the environment for up to _____________.
Select one:
a. 6 weeks
b. Years
c. 1 year
d. 3 weeks
b. Years
163
Few cats with feline lymphoma will test positive for FeLV.
Select one:
True
False
False
164
The controlled substances with the highest risk of abuse potential are classified by the DEA as schedule _____________.
Select one:
a. II
b. I
c. III
d. V
e. IV
b. I
165
A drug's expiration date must be included on take-home medication labels.
Select one:
True
False
True
166
1 kg = how many g = how many mg?
1 kg = 1,000g = 1,000,000 mg
167
1kg = how many lb?
1kg = 2.2 lb
168
1g = how many mg = how many kg?
1 g = 1,000 mg = 0.001 kg
169
1g = how many grains?
1g = 15.43 grains
170
1grain = how many mg?
1 grain = 64.8 mg
171
1lb = how many kg = how many oz?
1 lb = 0.454 kg = 16 oz
