Module 12 - System and network defense Flashcards
(224 cards)
1
Q
Which visible physical security measure often serves as the outermost layer of defense around a facility?
A
Fencing
2
Q
What height of fencing offers limited delay even to a determined intruder?
A
2.5 m -{8 ft}
2
Q
What fence height is generally too high to climb for casual intruders?
A
2m high -{6-7 ft}
3
Q
Which fence height would be only for deterring casual trespassers?
A
1m high -{3-4 ft}
4
Q
Which short vertical structures are designed to prevent unauthorized vehicle access?
A
Bollards
4
Q
What physical security structure allows for controlled vehicle or pedestrian entry at a perimeter?
A
Security gate system
5
Q
Which biometric error occurs when a legitimate, registered user is mistakenly denied access?
A
Type I error (false rejection)
6
Q
Which security method uses physiological or behavioral traits to verify identity?
A
Biometrics
7
Q
Which biometric error is generally considered less critical in cybercrime protection because it prevents access to authorized users?
A
Type I error (false rejection)
7
Q
Which biometric error involves unauthorized individuals being wrongly granted access?
A
Type II error (false acceptance)
8
Q
In a biometric system what is the percentage of instances where unenrolled individuals are accepted as valid users (Type II error rate)?
A
The acceptance rate
8
Q
Which type of access control allows entry through automated systems using a personal ID token?
A
Access badge
8
Q
What physical security measure logs attempts to enter an area and provides a record of access events?
A
Access logs
9
Q
Which factor is considered the most important when evaluating a biometric authentication system?
A
Accuracy
10
Q
Which security personnel type offers real-time decision-making and adaptability but is limited by high cost and potential for human error?
A
Security
11
Q
Which environment is used to develop, test, and debug software before deployment and typically has lower security restrictions than production?
A
A development environment
11
Q
Which physical security solution offers long-term recording, remote monitoring, motion-triggered alerts, and is more economical for perimeter coverage?
A
Surveillance
12
Q
Which security coding technique organizes database data and helps maintain data integrity by simplifying input strings to a known form?
A
Normalization
12
Q
What is used to track and manage software code changes across development phases?
A
Version Control software
12
Q
Which tagging system allows for tracking assets without needing line-of-sight visibility?
A
RFID (Radio Frequency Identification)
13
Q
Which isolated environment allows developers to test and write code without affecting shared development resources or risking overwrites?
A
A Sandbox
14
Q
Which process examines how code functions under normal conditions to detect problems early and verify correct behavior before release?
A
Testing during development
15
Q
Which activity checks software for errors to ensure quality and typically happens before staging or deployment?
A
QA (Quality Assurance)
16
Q
Which environment is designed to mirror the production environment as closely as possible and allows developers to test how the software will perform under real-world security settings?
A
Staging environments
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Which environment is where fully tested, approved applications are deployed for live organizational use?
Production Environment
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Which process involves the initial creation or updating of software during its lifecycle?
Provisioning
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Which user-friendly interface allows organizations to automate software provisioning and deprovisioning?
A self service portal
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Which process refers to the formal removal of software from an organization’s systems?
Deprovisioning
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Which group of precompiled SQL statements stored in a database allows faster execution of recurring database tasks with input parameters?
Stored Procedure
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Which technique protects sensitive information by replacing it with realistic but fake alternatives, often for testing or analytics purposes?
Camouflage
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Which coding technique hides the true nature of software using scrambled data to make reverse engineering difficult?
Obfuscation
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Which practice saves time and development costs by building new applications using existing software components?
Code reuse
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Which toolset provides developers with pre-written code and resources from external sources, speeding up development?
SDKs (Software Development Kits)
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Which process ensures that data received by a database matches expected rules, helping to block malformed or malicious input before it’s processed?
Input validation
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Which type of attack targets web forms by sending malformed or automated data entries to disrupt or compromise database operations?
Automated input attack
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Which rule enforces specific constraints on data values to ensure they meet design requirements for completeness, accuracy, and consistency?
Validation
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Which validation criterion checks that a data item contains the correct number of characters?
Size valildation
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Which validation criterion ensures that the format of the data matches an expected pattern, such as an email or phone number?
Format validation
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Which validation criterion checks for uniformity in coding across related fields, such as product codes or location codes?
Consistency validation
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Which validation check ensures a value falls between defined minimum and maximum limits?
Range validation
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Which error-detection technique involves using a mathematical formula to calculate an additional digit that helps verify data integrity?
Check digit validation
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In the check digit example " ISBN 1587143739" , what multiplier is applied to the first digit of the ISBN in the calculation?
10
32
Which type of check uses a hash function to verify that data such as a file or record has not been corrupted?
An integrity check
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Which kind of value is generated by a hash function and then used to verify data integrity by comparing values before and after transfer?
A checksum
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Which cryptographic function creates a fixed-length output from variable input data, useful for verifying integrity?
A hash function
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Which process involves both the sender and receiver computing and comparing values to confirm that transferred data remains unchanged?
Checksum validation
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Which hash algorithm produces a 128-bit output and is known for speed but has known vulnerabilities?
MD5
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Which rule ensures data completeness, accuracy, and consistency by checking that it falls within predefined parameters?
Validation rule
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Which hash algorithm produces a 160-bit output and is no longer considered secure for cryptographic use?
SHA-1
38
Which hash algorithm creates a 256-bit output and is part of the SHA-2 family used for secure integrity checks?
SHA-256
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Which secure hash algorithm produces a 512-bit digest and is used for high-security integrity checks?
SHA-512
39
Which practice ensures that no two users can edit the same object simultaneously, reducing the risk of conflicting changes?
Version control
39
Which method provides assurance that software code is authentic and hasn’t been altered since it was signed?
Code signing
39
Which tool or method can a user apply after downloading a file to verify that the downloaded content hasn’t been altered?
A hash calculator
40
Which process uses a snapshot of data at a moment in time to confirm that the data has not changed or been corrupted?
Integrity check
41
Which security mechanism digitally signs executables to verify the author’s identity and ensure integrity of the software?
Code signing
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Which measure should be implemented to control physical access to data centers, computer rooms, and wiring closets?
Policies, standards and procedures for employees and visitors
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Which practice protects information stored in browser cookies from hackers during website browsing sessions?
Secure cookies
41
Which plan ensures critical applications remain available during unexpected server or system downtime?
Business continuity plan
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Which plan helps recover critical applications and data after major disruptions or disasters?
Disaster recovery plan
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Which method combines something the user knows with something they have to reduce the risk of unauthorized system access?
Multi-factor authentication
44
Which device or service assigns IP addresses and network configuration details to devices using a “permission slip” model?
DHCP
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Which policy ensures that important data is properly labeled, handled, and protected according to its sensitivity?
Data classification
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Which feature prevents rogue DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses to clients by validating untrusted message sources?
DHCP snooping
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Which protocol translates human-readable web addresses into numerical IP addresses?
DNS
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Which protocol uses digital signatures to authenticate DNS information and protect against DNS threats?
DNSSES (DNS Security Extension)
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Which protocol allows devices to send error messages like “host unreachable” or “service not available”?
ICMP
48
Which routing protocol determines the best path to a destination based on the fewest number of hops?
RIP (Routing Information Protocol)
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What is the maximum number of hops allowed in RIP routing?
15
49
Which protocol is used to synchronize network device clocks to support secure communication and log accuracy?
NTP (Network Time Protocol)
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Which type of attack involves redirecting DNS traffic to malicious websites?
DNS Spoofing
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Which protocol provides encrypted remote access to a device and uses TCP port 22?
SSH (Secure Shell)
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Which outdated protocol transmits data, including usernames and passwords, in plaintext and uses TCP port 23?
Telnet
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Which file transfer protocol uses SSH for secure authentication and data transmission between remote systems?
SCP (Secure Copy Protocol)
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Which tool do cybercriminals use to capture network traffic, such as usernames and passwords sent via Telnet/SSH?
Wireshark
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Which SNMP version uses cryptography to ensure confidentiality and message integrity during device monitoring?
SNMPv3
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Which standard web protocol operates on port 80 and lacks built-in security, making traffic easy to monitor?
HTTP
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Which protocol encrypts web communication and appears as HTTPS in the browser URL field?
SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer / Transport Layer Security)
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Which process at the beginning of an SSL session establishes encryption to prevent eavesdropping?
A SSL Handshake
56
Which older file transfer protocol sends usernames and passwords in plaintext during login?
FTP
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Which enhanced file transfer protocol adds TLS/SSL support to protect transferred files from tampering and forgery?
FTPS
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Which email protocol uses port 110 and is commonly secured with SSL/TLS for encrypted transmission?
POP
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Which email protocol uses port 143 and should be paired with SSL/TLS to prevent interception?
IMAP
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Which email standard allows attachments like images or videos to be sent in non-text format?
MIME (Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)
60
Which security protocol ensures encrypted and digitally signed emails for authentication and message integrity?
S/MIME
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Which port is used by SSH for secure encrypted communication?
TCP port 22
61
Which port is used by Telnet for plaintext remote sessions?
TCP port 23
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Which protocol collects statistics from TCP/IP devices and is commonly used to monitor routers and switches?
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
62
Which network strategy divides a computer network into smaller parts to improve both performance and security?
Segmentation
63
Which type of network groups devices based on logical connections rather than physical location?
VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)
64
Which type of switch port is used to carry multiple VLANs’ traffic between switches?
Trunk port
65
What happens to devices on the same VLAN, regardless of their physical location?
They act as if they are on the same location
65
What’s the key distinction between a VLAN and a traditional LAN?
VLANs are logical, LANs are Physical
65
Which network area sits between a trusted private LAN and the Internet, acting as a buffer zone?
A DMZ (Demilitarized Zone)
65
Which type of servers are typically placed in a DMZ to allow external access without compromising the LAN? (2)
Web and Email servers
65
Which DMZ zone of risk is characterized by high risk and low trust?
The Internet Zone
65
Which traffic direction describes data moving into and out of the organization’s network?
North to South traffic
66
Which DMZ zone of risk contains internal private systems and is considered low risk with high trust?
The trusted Private LAN
66
Which network model eliminates automatic trust for users and devices, even those inside the network perimeter?
Zero Trust Model
66
Which zone of risk has medium-high risk and medium-low trust, and often contains public-facing services?
DMZ
66
Which zone is often used for partner access and is rated medium-low risk with medium-high trust?
Extranet
66
Which traffic direction describes data moving between servers within an organization’s internal data center?
East to West traffic
66
Which zone’s purpose is to allow external entities to access specific services without reaching the core network?
DMZ
66
Which outdated wireless security protocol was the first to be used and was later replaced due to serious weaknesses?
WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy)
66
Which protocol replaced WEP and introduced stronger encryption and better key handling?
WPA (Wi-fi protected Access)
66
Which configuration of WPA is most common and uses a shared password to authenticate devices?
WPA -PSK (Pre-shared Key)
66
What key length does WPA use, significantly improving on WEP’s 64-bit and 128-bit keys?
256 bit keys
66
Which WPA feature helps protect, manage, and frequently change encryption keys?
TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol)
66
Which WPA feature detects if a wireless message has been captured and altered?
MIC (Message Integrity Check)
66
Which encryption standard eventually replaced TKIP in later WPA versions?
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
66
Which protocol helps set up home wireless networks using a PIN code but is considered insecure?
WPS (Wi-fi Protected Access)
67
Which encryption method did WPA2 use instead of TKIP for stronger protection?
CCMP (Counter Cipher Mode with Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol)
67
Which version of WPA introduced AES as mandatory and replaced TKIP with CCMP?
WPA2
67
Which year was WPA2 released?
2006
67
Which vulnerability makes WPS a poor security choice for wireless networks?
WPS pin can be discovered through brute force attacks
67
Which security measures are the most effective for securing a wireless network against threats like sniffing and man-in-the-middle attacks?
Authentication and encryption
67
Which original wireless standard introduced the two basic types of wireless authentication?
802.11
67
Which wireless authentication method allows any device to connect without verifying identity, making it suitable only where security is not a concern?
Open System Authentication
67
Which wireless authentication method includes both authentication and data encryption between a client and access point?
Shared key Authentication
68
Which authentication framework is used in wireless networks to manage the exchange of credentials between a client and an authentication server?
EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
68
Which authentication protocol uses EAP, requires only a server certificate, and is moderately easy to deploy with medium security?
PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol)
69
Which wireless authentication protocol requires both client and server certificates, making it highly secure but difficult to deploy?
EAP-TLS
69
Which EAP-based protocol requires no client certificate, uses a server certificate, is moderately easy to deploy, and provides medium security?
EAP-TTLS (Tunneled Transport Layer Security)
70
Which EAP-based authentication protocol does not require any certificates and is the easiest to deploy but offers only medium security?
EAP-FAST (Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling)
71
Which EAP method offers the highest security but is considered difficult to deploy due to its certificate requirements?
EAP-TLS
71
Which component in EAP authentication verifies the user’s credentials after receiving them from the access point?
The Authentication server
72
Which protocol is best suited for organizations that already use certificates for both clients and servers and prioritize high security?
EAP-TLS
72
Which authentication process verifies both entities before allowing a connection, helping detect rogue access points and prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?
Mutual authentication
72
Which protocol under EAP does not require a client certificate and is a good balance between ease of deployment and security?
PEAP or EAP-TTLS
73
Which wireless technology allows mobile devices to connect wirelessly to headphones, cars, or other short-range devices using radio signals?
Bluetooth
73
Which mobile communication method uses wireless radio signals and is typically configured through a device’s settings menu for internet access?
Wi-Fi
74
Which short-range communication technology enables contactless actions like payments by holding a mobile device close to a compatible terminal?
NFC (Near Field Communication)
75
Which technology enables mobile devices to act as remote controls by transmitting signals to a receiver, such as for controlling a television?
IR (Infrared)
75
Which mobile communication method is wired and enables data transfer, modem functionality, and even forensic access via physical connection?
USB
76
Which type of mobile device model allows both personal and corporate use on the same company-issued device?
COPE (Corporate owned Personally enabled)
77
Which mobile device model allows employees to use their own personal devices for work purposes, requiring strong security policies?
BYOD
77
Which two methods allow separation of work and personal data on a mobile device through an encrypted and authenticated area?
Storage segmentation and containerization
77
Which type of management controls what data a user can access and which cloud storage apps are permitted?
Content management
78
Which application management strategy ensures users only install apps that are digitally signed and from trusted sources?
Application Whitelisting
78
Which process allows users to remove restrictions on Apple devices so they can install unauthorized apps?
Jailbreaking
79
Which process allows users full administrative access to Android devices, bypassing the security model?
Rooting
80
Which mobile security threat involves bypassing the app store to install unapproved apps without rooting or jailbreaking?
Sideloading
80
Which advanced authentication method uses machine learning to determine access based on a user’s usual behavior?
Context-aware authentication
81
Which system uses satellites and computers to determine a device's location within approximately 5 meters?
GPS (Global Positioning System)
81
Which social media feature uses GPS to let users share their real-time location with others in their network?
Check-in
82
Which two technologies use RFID instead of GPS to determine if a device is inside a defined geographic area?
Geofencing and geolocation
82
Which mobile app feature may use geolocation or geofencing to deliver location-based alerts or advertising?
Push notifications
82
Which term describes systems built to avoid downtime and ensure continuous access to services and data?
High availability
82
Which design principle of high availability focuses on identifying and removing components that would crash the system if they fail?
Eliminating single points of failure
83
Which principle of high availability emphasizes reliable backups for power and communications in case of primary failure?
Providing for reliable crossover
83
Which principle of high availability involves ongoing observation of devices and systems to identify errors or malfunctions?
Detecting failures as they occur
83
Which high availability technique involves automatic switching from failed components to standby ones to maintain service?
Failover
84
Which availability target refers to 99.999% uptime and allows for only 5.26 minutes of downtime per year?
The Five Nines
85
What is the maximum yearly downtime permitted under a five nines availability goal?
Less than 5.26 minutes
85
Which availability standard is considered one of the most ambitious and commonly desired by organizations?
The Five Nines
86
Which system design practice uses consistent components to allow easy inventory management and fast replacement?
Standardized systems
86
Which type of security control in sensitive facilities provides adaptive, situational decision-making beyond automated systems?
Security guards
87
Which system design groups multiple devices to act as one, ensuring service continuity if one fails?
Clustering
87
Which high availability approach ensures a group of devices provides service even if one node fails?
Clustering
88
Which method ensures that one system can fully take over for another in case of failure, maintaining availability?
Shared component systems
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