Module 2: Cardiac Physiology (Weeks 2-3) Flashcards

(178 cards)

1
Q

** FILLER CARD **
Module 2: Video Reviews

A
  • Excitation-contraction coupling
  • The cardiac cycle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

** FILLER CARD **

A

C2: Electrophysiology & amp; ECC Slides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cellular Level
Definitions:
The inside is different (more negative with different concentrations of ions) than the outside

A

Polarized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cellular Level
What cells in the heart are polarized?

A

Cardiac cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cellular Level
How is polarization created?

A

By ions with different concentrations & charges
- This polarization creates a transmembrane potential
- Transmembrane resting potential = -80 to -90 mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Opening of ion channels is going to result in, what?

A

Depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Returning back to the polarized state is going to result in, what?

A

Repolarization
(back to neg. state)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When there is a trigger within each individual cardiac cell, ion channels open/close creating what?

A

Action Potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cardiac Conduction Cells
Definition:
Contractile cells of the atrium & ventricle

A

Cardiomyocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cardiac Conduction Cells
Definition:
Specialized conduction cells

A

Purkinje cells
- Don’t contract but allows current to spread to the heart very quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cardiac Conduction Cells
Definition:
- Sinoatrial (SA or sinus)
- Atrioventricular (AV) node

A

Pacemaker Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Action Potentials Types
What do Cardiomyocytes & Purkinje cells use for depolarization (Phase 0)?

A

Na+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Action Potentials Types
What do Automatic (pacemaker) cells use for depolarization (Phase 0)?

A

Slow Ca2+ current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Action Potentials Phases
Fill in the blanks:
1. Phase 0: _________
2. Phase 1: _________
3. Phase 2: _________
4. Phase 3: _________
5. Phase 4: _________

A
  1. depolarization
  2. brief repolarization
  3. repolarization
  4. resting membrane potential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is the resting membrane potential (RMP) determined?

A
  • Channels pump ions in a way that creates an ion gradient
    - Sodium-Potassium ATPase
    - 3 Na+ moved out (extra-cellular)
    - 2 K+ moved in (intra-cellular)
  • Overall net negative inside the cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Resting Membrane Potential
There is typically high concentration of _____(1)________ inside the cell and high concentration of ___(2)___ outside the cell

A
  1. Potassium
  2. Sodium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Action Potential: Cardiomyocyte and Purkinje
Fill in the blanks for the phases of the action potentials:
- Phase 0:____________
- Phase 1:____________
- Phase 2:____________
- Phase 3:____________
- Phase 4:____________

A
  • Na+ channels open (in) => depolarization
  • K+ channels open (out) => brief repolarization
  • Ca2+ channels open (in) => plateau
  • K+ channels open (out) => repolarization
  • returns to RMP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Action Potential: Pacemaker Cells
Fill in the blanks for the phases of the action potentials:
- Phase 4: ____________
- Phase 0: ____________
- Phase 3: ____________

A
  • RMP with automatic “drift” => depolarization
  • Ca2+ channel open (in)
  • K+ channels open (out) => repolarization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sodium Channels
What determines the cell-to-cell conduction velocity?

A

Slope of Phase 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sodium Channels (Phase 0)
Is a type of Na+ channel blocker that helps treat arrhythmias

A

Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Definition:
Heart rhythm disturbance

A

arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

(T/F) Ca2+ is extremely important in all cardiac cells

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Calcium Channels
- T-type (transient) - activated 1st (-60/-50 mV)
- L-type (long-lasting) - activated 2nd

A

Voltage-gated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Calcium Channels
- Norepinephrine and Epinephrine

A

Ligand-gated
- Beta-receptor stimulation increases Ca2+ influx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Drugs: - *Directly* block L-type Ca2+ channels - *Diltiazem* (heart & vascular) -> treat arrhythmias - *Amlodipine* (vascular) -> treat high blood pressure
Ca2+ channel blockers
26
Drugs: - *Indirectly decrease* Ca2+ influx and catecholamine effects n the heart - Aten*lol*,, esmo*lol*, carvedi*lol*, many others -> treat arrhythmias and other heart diseases
Beta-blockers
27
List the Functions of Potassium Channels:
- Help regulate RMP and *repolarization*
28
What channels determine the *speed of repolarization & the effective refractory period (ERP)*?
K+ channels
29
What would happen to the ERP when you block K+ channels?
*Increases* the ERP & *slows* repolarization
30
What represents the *sum* of all the individual cells' electrical activity?
ECGs
31
A brief intro to ECG: What waveform is the following describing? *Atrial depolarization*
P wave
32
A brief intro to ECG: What waveform is the following describing? *Ventricular depolarization*
QRS wave
33
A brief intro to ECG: What waveform is the following describing? *Ventricular repolarization*
T wave
34
Serum potassium affects potassium channels:
go back
35
What creates an RMP?
Polarization of cardiac cells - polarization allows cells to become activated (depolarized) and inactivated (repolarized) by movement of different ions across channels
36
What creates the *automatic drift in pacemaker cells*?
Funny current
37
(T/F) High extracellular K inactivates Na channels
True
38
What is responsible for the repolarization of Purkinje/cardiomyocytes and pacemaker cells?
Potassium
39
(T/F) *Parasympathetic* activity increases heart rate and AV nodal conduction
False, *Sympathetic* activity increases heart rate and AV nodal conduction
40
(T/F) Ultrastructural components and channels of the sarcomere control *calcium influx* and ultimately myocardial contraction
True
41
What is the main ion responsible for the repolarization of Purkinje/cardiomyocyte cells?
Potassium (moving out of the cell)
42
Enhanced *sympathetic tone* causes: A. pacemaker cells to fire more rapidly B. slows AV nodal conduction C. pacemaker cells to fire more slowly D. slower heart rate
A. pacemaker cells to fire more rapidly
43
What is the main ion responsible for the depolarization of Purkinje/cardiomyocyte cells?
Sodium (moving into the cell)
44
(T/F) The resting membrane potentials for Purkinje cells and pacemakers cells are normally negative
True
45
Which is true regarding hyperkalemia and the action potential? A. Hyperkalemia causes the resting membrane potential to be more negative (hyperpolarized). B. Hyperkalemia speeds up pacemaker activity. C. Hyperkalemia causes sodium channels to become inactivated. D. Hyperkalemia causes repolarization to occur more slowly.
C. Hyperkalemia causes sodium channels to become inactivated.
46
The following sequence of events are related to *excitation-contraction coupling* in cardiomyocytes. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence from start to end: 1. calcium ions move into the sarcoplasmic reticulum 2. sodium enters into the cell during ventricular activation 3. intracellular calcium stores are released via activation of the ryanodine receptor from the sarcoplasmic reticulum 4. calcium ions move inward across the L-type calcium channel 5. binding of calcium by cTnC allows actin-myosin interaction
2 -> 4 -> 3 -> 5 -> 1
47
*** FILLER CARD ***
C3
48
Myocardial Contraction Definition: Associated with increased muscle tension & pumping of blood into the systemic circulation
Period of *contraction* (= systole)
49
Myocardial Contraction: Period of *contraction* (= systole) List the Essential components:
- Actin - Myosin - ATP (O2) - *Calcium* => absolutely important
50
Definition: Containing tight junctions and gap junctions link adjacent cells
*Intercalated discs* - Allows *rapid spread of electrical signal for simultaneous regional contraction*
51
What is the *Functional unit of the myocardium*?
Sarcomere - Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (in cats) => Sarcomere mutation
52
Myocardial contraction: *Thin actin* filaments slide between *thick myosin* filaments as a result of what?
Repetitive movements of the myosin head
53
Definition: The linkage between myosin head and actin
Crossbridge - *Crossbridge cycle* is repetitive attachment | detachment of myosin heads to and from actin filament triggered by arrival of *Ca2+*
54
Definition: *Rate* (velocity) and *Extent* (tension or force developed) of fiber shortening
Myocardial contractility - *Intrinsic* ability (no outside force) of cardiomyocytes to generate force that is *load-independent*
55
Definition: Strength of *contraction*
inotropy
56
Definition: Active, energy-requiring process
Contraction - Transformation of chemical energy -> mechanical work - Splitting ATP by hydrolysis
57
(T/F) Myocardial contractility can only be assessed using muscle strip preparations (Langendorff technique)
True
58
Myocardial Contractility - Difficult to measure - Load-independent (inherent) rate & strength of actin-myosin interaction modulated by *Ca2+* availability and sensitivity - Estimated by *velocity* of muscle strip (Vmax) at zero load -- *not measurable in patients* - Inotropy *increases* with increased availability of *Ca2+* - Inotropy *increases* with increased *preload* (fiber stretch, before contraction kicks in) -- proportional - Intropy *decreases* with *increased* afterload (forces opposing contraction) -- inversely proportional - Inotropy *increases* with *increased* heart rate -- proportional
Inotropic State (contractility) - it is all about calcium (and ATP)
59
(T/F) Normally in a resting state, the Ca2+ concentration in the cardia cytosol during systole is such that the contractile sites are approximately *half activated*
True - *Contractile reserve* => exploited by sympathetic (beta-adrenergic) stimulation which increases Ca2+ release
60
- Positive inotropy (+ positive chronotropy)
Sympathetic (NE, Epi)
61
- Negative inotropy (+ negative chronotropy)
PNS (vagus)
62
List the Effects of *Preload* on myocardial Contractility:
- End-diastolic fiber stretch = preload - Modulates sarcomere (Z-Z) length before contraction - 2 significant effects of increased preload: - increased Sensitivity of cardiac tropin C to Ca2+ - increased Number of cross-bridges - Length- tension relationship (Frank-Starling law of the heart)
63
Clinical Pointe: What is a variable of preload that influences contractility?
Cardiac chamber size (end-diastolic volume)
64
Definition: For the *same amount of filling (preload)*, volume pumped per beat is *decreased*
Depressed inotropy
65
List the Effects of *Afterload* on Myocardial Contractility:
- All *forces* opposing muscle shortening (and thus ejection of blood) - Weight must be overcome and moved as the muscle shortens - The higher Afterload (AL), the higher the *tension* that must develop prior to actual shortening - *increased afterload:* both muscle shortening and duration of contraction decrease
66
(T/F) Afterload of the intact ventricle is *difficult to measure* force that must be overcome in order to open aortic \ pulmonary valves and eject blood into the arterial system
True
67
What does Afterload relate to?
Peak wall tension prior to ejection
68
When does peak wall tension (systolic wall stress) occur?
At the *ONSET* of ventricular ejection
69
Definition: Volume of blood in ventricles at end of diastole (end-diastolic pressure)
Preload
70
Definition: Resistance left ventricle must overcome to circulate blood
Afterload
71
What does increased Heart Rate shorten?
Filling time which *decreases* preload
72
What is the Shortening fraction?
EDD - ESD/EDD x 100%
73
Which of the following statements regarding myocardial contraction and relaxation is CORRECT: a. During ventricular filling, the semilunar valves are open, and the AV valves are closed b. During isovolumic relaxation, calcium enters the cardiomyocytes triggering early diastolic cross bridge detachment. c. During the ejection phase, blood is pumped into the ventricles. d. During isovolumic contraction, all 4 cardiac valves are closed and ventricular pressure increases. e. During systole, calcium enters the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)and ADP is hydrolyzed. During diastole, calcium leaves the SR into the cytoplasm and is bound to troponin C.
d. During isovolumic contraction, all 4 cardiac valves are closed, and ventricular pressure increases.
74
All of the following are characteristics of myocardial contractility, EXCEPT: a. Rate of cross-bridge cycling b. Stretch of myofibers c. Speed (velocity) of contraction d. Extent of fiber shortening e. Myofiber tension developed during contraction
b. Stretch of myofibers
75
Which of the following statements about myocardial contraction is CORRECT? a. Ca2+ movement into the SR leads to the power stroke b. Activation of the PNS increases contractility c. Ca2+ channel blocking drugs effectively increase Ca2+ sensitivity of troponin C d. Increased end-diastolic fiber stretch increases contractility e. Chronic elevation of afterload increases contractile force via the Anrep effect
d. Increased end-diastolic fiber stretch increases contractility
76
A dog with chronic mitral valve disease ruptures chordae tendineae of the mitral valve leading to acute, severe mitral regurgitation and subsequent severe left atrial and left ventricular volume overload. All of the following statements regarding changes in LV systolic function are correct, EXCEPT: a. The event causes massive dilation of the LV leading to increased afterload and thus reducing LV systolic function. b. The valve leakage causes an acute increase of preload leading to increased systolic function. c. The SNS will immediately be activated (“fight-or-flight” response) causing increased heart rate and increased cross-bridge cycling. d. The inotropic state of the myocardium will improve via the Frank Starling mechanism and the Bowditch-Treppe effect. e. The sarcomere Z-Z length will increase improving the pumping ability of the myocardium.
a. The event causes massive dilation of the LV leading to increased afterload and thus reducing LV systolic function.
77
*** FILLER CARD ***
C4
78
What is the term used to characterize *Rate* (velocity) & *Extent* (magnitude) of fiber lengthening
Myocardial Relaxation (Lusitropy)
79
Myocardial Relaxation: Period of cross-bridge ___________ associated with active *relief of muscle tension* followed by filling of the ventricles
Detachment
80
List the Essential components for Myocardial Relaxation:
- SERCA - Phospholamban - ATP (O2) - NCX - Ca2+ pump
81
(T/F) Relaxation is very sensitive to hypoxia, ischemia, etc
True
82
Diastolic Relaxation: Active process (ATP) - O2 It is influenced by ...
- Preload - Afterload - Prior systole - Chamber geometry
83
When does cardiomyocyte relaxation occur?
Starts after contraction is nearly completed
84
What expels some Ca2+ out of the cell?
Na+-Ca2+ exchanger
85
Pumps most of the *free Ca2+* back into sarcoendoplasmic reticulum stores where it is bound to *calsequestrin*
SERCA (sarcoendoplasmic reticulum ATPase)
86
Where is some calcium temporarily stored?
Mitochondria
87
Definition: Clinically highly relevant in particular *feline heart muscle disease* & pericardial disease and other conditions
Diastolic Function
88
Diastolic function: Function that allows adequate *filling* of the ventricles at rest and during exercise without pathogenic elevation of *filling pressure*
Normal diastolic function
89
Relates *relaxation* and *passive tissue properties* to load & chamber geometry
Diastolic function
90
(T/F) Diastolic function relates to lusitropy
False, Diastolic function *doesn't equal* lusitropy (relaxation)
91
Cell lengthening (rate & extent) = _______________ at zero load
Relaxation
92
The filling phase follows what phase?
Isovolumic (all four cardiac valves are closed) phase
93
List the phases of Diastole:
- IVR (isovolumic ventricular relaxation) - Rapid Filling - MV open - Slow filling - MV partially open - Atrial contraction - = "atrial kick" - MV open
94
Ventricular Filling Dynamics: The early diastolic filling provides _______% of LV filling volume
80%
95
List the effect of preload & Heart rate on diastolic functions:
- increase Preload improves diastolic function (within limits) - increase Heart rate improves relaxation & ventricular suction Caveat: decrease filling time & decrease coronary perfusion
96
(T/F) If tau goes down, it means there is a better relaxation
True
97
Which statement about myocardial relaxation is CORRECT? a. It is a passive process related to the early diastolic LA-LV pressure difference. b. It does improve with increased Ca2+ binding to the tropomyosin complex. c. It is facilitated by the binding of phospholamban to SERCA. d. It gets faster and stronger with parasympathetic activation. e. It is a process mainly confined to the isovolumic period in early diastole.
e. It is a process mainly confined to the isovolumic period in early diastole.
98
Which of the following sequence of events during cardiac excitation-contraction-relaxation is CORRECT? 1...Ca2+ binding to cardiac troponin C 2... Ca2+ entry via the L-type Ca2+ channel 3... Power stroke 4... Ca2+ extrusion out of the cytoplasm via the Ca2+ pump 5... Temporary Ca2+ storage in the mitochondria 6... Electrical cardiomyocyte activation 7... Ca2+ triggered Ca2+ release 8... Ca2+ flux into the sarcoendoplasmatic reticulum via SERCA
b. 6-> 2-> 7-> 1-> 3-> 8-> 4-> 5
99
All of the statements about ventricular diastolic function are correct, EXCEPT? a. Diastolic function is an overarching term to describe ventricular filling. b. Diastolic function can conceptionally be divided into 4 phases occurring in the following sequence: Isovolumic contraction, early filling, late filling, and finally diastasis. c. Rapid ventricular filling occurs in early diastole and is caused by myocardial relaxation associated with the suction of blood into the ventricle reducing LV pressure and thus the early diastolic LV-LA pressure gradient. d. Normal diastolic function allows adequate filling of the ventricles without a pathologic elevation of filling pressure. e. Stiffness (or its reciprocal, compliance) describes the passive diastolic properties of the myocardium (ventricle). The stiffer, the worse is diastolic filling.
100
A cat with severe, idiopathic thickening of the LV walls and a heart rate of 260 bpm (N: 120-220) is diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in your practice via cardiac ultrasound (we will talk about this common feline condition later in the course). Which of the following statements regarding LV diastolic function in this cat is NOT correct? a. LV compliance will be decreased and thus LV filling reduced. b. Relaxation of the LV will be abnormal due to *increased* myocardial mass. c. High heart rate will make LV filling worse. d. LV stiffness will be increased affecting LV diastolic (filling) properties. e. LV stroke volume will be increased due to increased heart rate and better relaxation and thus, better filling, of this thickened heart.
e. LV stroke volume will be increased due to increased heart rate and better relaxation and thus, better filling, of this thickened heart.
101
*** FILLER CARD ***
C5
102
The Cardiac Cycle - Electrical activity __________ mechanical activity (electromechanical delay)
*precedes*(before)
103
The Cardiac Cycle How is blood flow predicted?
Pressure differences - "Pressure gradients" - Flows from higher pressure to lower pressure
104
The Cardiac Cycle Heart valves open and close in response to _____________ on either side of the valves
Pressure changes
105
Wiggers Diagram: Electrical Activity 1. Starts with ECG & ECG is what?
Basis of timing (basically your x-axis)
106
Genesis of the ECG 1. Impulse starts in the ___ node
SA
107
Genesis of the ECG 2. Signal traves through atria and ____ node
AV
108
Genesis of the ECG 3. Signal travels through ________________ system
His-Purkinje system
109
Genesis of the ECG 4. __________ depolarization
Ventricular
110
Genesis of the ECG 5. Ventricular _____________
repolarization
111
Wiggers Diagram: Mechanical - LV ejection - Isovolumic contraction (IVC) - Isovolumic relaxation (IVR)
Ventricular Pressure/timing
112
Wiggers Diagram: Mechanical _______ atrial pressure/timing
left
113
Wiggers Diagram: Mechanical - MC = mitral closure - AO = aortic opens - AC = aortic closure - MO = mitral opens
Valve Motion - Driven by pressure differences
114
Wiggers Diagram: Think about ventricular *volume* as it relates to ___________ & ___________
timing, pressure - Filling - Ejection - Isovolumic periods
115
Wiggers Diagram: Changes in volume between what two points represent *stroke volume*?
AO & AC
116
Wiggers Diagram: Clinical Aspect (Heart Sounds) - Closure of atrioventricular valves
S1 - Systolic heart sounds
117
Wiggers Diagram: Clinical Aspect (Heart Sounds) - Closure of semilunar valves (aortic & pulmonary valve)
S2 - Systolic heart sounds
118
Wiggers Diagram: Clinical Aspect (Heart Sounds) - Early/rapid ventricular filling
S3 - Diastolic heart sounds
119
Wiggers Diagram: Clinical Aspect (Heart Sounds) - Atrial contraction ("atrial kick") - final phase
S4 - Diastolic heart sounds
120
Average Pressures for Species examined (in mmHg) Systole: 120 Diastole: < 12
Left ventricle
121
Average Pressures for Species examined (in mmHg) Systole: 25 Diastole: < 5
Right ventricle
122
Average Pressures for Species examined (in mmHg) Systole: 120 Diastole: 80
Aorta
123
Average Pressures for Species examined (in mmHg) Systole: 25 Diastole: 12
Pulmonary artery
124
Clinical correlations: How is pulse pressure determined?
- *Difference* in *systolic* and *diastolic* pressure - *Rate of rise* of systolic pressure
125
Definition: Is a persistent opening between the two major blood vessels leading from the heart.
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) - Bounding Pulses = aortic insufficiency, patent ductus arteriosus - *difference in systolic and diastolic pressure*
126
Definition: Is a narrowing of the area underneath, the aortic valve, that causes some degree of obstruction or blockage of the blood flow through the heart
Subaortic stenosis (narrowing) - *rate of rise of systolic pressure* - Weak pulses
127
Clinical correlations: What happens when there's any kind of backup of blood in the *superior vena cava* or in your heart itself?
Distended jugular veins
128
Clinical correlations: "Cannon waves" with arrhythmias (3rd degree AV block) due to dyssynchrony (atria contracting against closed mitral/tricuspid)
Jugular pulsations
129
Clinical correlations: Slurring between normal heart sounds - Valve leakage = regurgitation or insufficiency - Valve narrowing = stenosis
Heart Sounds: *Murmurs*
130
Clinical correlations: - Diastolic sounds (S3 and S4 sound) - Normal in large animals - Abnormal in small animals
Heart Sounds: *Gallops*
131
What occurs immediately prior to the ejection of blood out into the aorta?
c. isovolumic contraction
132
List the chambers, and great vessels, and list the normal pressure ranges (in mmHg):
- RA (0-5) - RV (25 / <5) - PA (25 / 12) - LA (0-12) - LV (120 / <12) - Ao (120 / 80)
133
*** FILLER CARDS ***
C6
134
Hemodynamics Definition: The study of blood flow in the vascular system
Hemorheology
135
What is the purpose of the cardiovascular system?
To deliver *oxygen* and *nutrients* to the tissues of the body
136
Hemodynamics Cardiac output
Flow
137
Hemodynamics - Ventricular - Atrial - Arterial - Venous - Capillary
Pressures
138
Hemodynamics - Systemic vasculature - Pulmonary vasculate
Resistances
139
Ohm's Law
I = V/R Q = P/R
140
Ohm's Law What is current flow (I) determined by?
- Electromotive force or voltage (V) - Resistance to current flow (R)
141
Ohm's Law What is the flow of fluids (Q) determined by?
- Pressure gradient (P) - resistance to flow (R)
142
Hemodynamics: Physical Laws & Determinants Physical Law: Venous return Determinants:
- Plasma volume - Vessel capacity
143
Hemodynamics: Physical Laws & Determinants Physical Law: Cardiac output (CO) --> *CO = SV x HR* Determinants:
- Stroke volume (SV) => EDV - ESV - Heart rate (HR) - Tissue demands
144
Hemodynamics: Physical Laws & Determinants Physical Law: Blood pressure (BP) --> *BP = CO x SVR* Determinants:
- Cardiac output (CO) - Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) - Reflexes
145
Hemodynamics: Physical Laws & Determinants Physical Law: Vascular resistance - Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) - Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) Determinants:
- Autonomic nervous system - Hormonal & endothelial (local) regulations --> *PVR = about 1/5 of SVR*
146
Definition: The flow of blood from the periphery back to the right atrium
Venous return
147
Venous Return: "Force from the rear"
Cardiac pumping from the *contralateral ventricle* - LV pumping blood into the arterial system
148
Venous return: "Force from the front"
Force from ventricular contraction creates negative pressure in the atrium
149
Venous Return: Respiratory Pump Inspiration causes the diaphragm to move downward causing negative pressure in the chest and _________ atrium
Right
150
Venous Return: Influence of Fluid Therapy How can you improve venous return?
with fluid bolus
151
Venous Return: Influence of Fluid Therapy What drives blood into the right atrium?
Mean systemic venous pressure - Mean systemic venous pressure > RA pressure = venous return
152
List the things that increase (improve) venous return:
- Vasoconstriction - Splenic contraction - Fluids
153
Definition: - Quantity of blood delivered to the systemic circulation per unit time (L/min) - Converted to cardiac index (CI) - Normalize to patient size (body surface area) - L/min/m^2
Cardiac Output
154
Cardiac Output: End diastolic (filling) volume - End systolic volume
Stroke volume
155
Cardiac Output: List the thing that will affect *End diastole volume*:
- Preload - Compliance - Diastolic filling time
156
Definition: how easily a chamber of the heart or the lumen of a blood vessel expands when it is filled with a volume of blood
Compliance
157
Cardiac Output: List the thing that will affect *End systolic volume*:
- Contractility (pump function) - Afterload
158
Cardiac Output: Distending stress in the ventricle at end-diastole; depends on *venous return & ventricular compliance*
Preload
159
Cardiac Output: What is dependent on HR (autonomic tone)?
Diastolic Filling Time
160
Cardiac Output: The sum of the forces opposing the ventricular ejection (blood pressure, vascular resistance)
Afterload
161
List the determinants for Arterial Blood Pressure (*BP = CO x SVR*):
- Blood volume (CO, SV) - Compliance of vessels (vascular resistance) - Baroreceptor arcs (reflexes) - Stabilize *BP* in face of changing *CO*
162
(T/F) Mean arterial pressure (MAP) more important than systolic/diastolic
True *MAP = 1/3 pulse pressure + diastolic blood pressure (pulse pressure = systolic - diastolic)* ** this is important and you should know **
163
What are the two ways to measure pressure non-invasive (indirect)?
Doppler & Oscillometric
164
Arterial Blood Pressure: - Gold-standard - Recommended for *severely hypo/hypertensive patients* to guide therapy
Invasive (direct) way to measure Arterial Blood Pressure
165
Arterial Blood pressure: - Are important ways that the body can *regulate blood pressure* - Important & normal reflex that occurs
Baroreceptor Reflex
166
An exaggeration of the normal *baroreceptor reflex* can result in what?
Syncope (collapse) - *Vasovagal syncope* - *Neurcardiogenic syncope* - *Reflex-mediated syncope* * all the same thing --> this exaggeration can cause *severe bradycardia & hypotension*
167
Vascular resistance equation:
Flow (or CO) = change in Pressure / Resistance
168
(T/F) Flow (CO) can be reduced, although BP increases
True - *RESISTANCES* can Change
169
Vascular Resistance: Opposition to flow presented by *pulsatile flow* in an elastic vascular system
Impedance - Wave reflection - difficult to quantify
170
Vascular Resistance: What percentage does Resistance make up of impedance?
90%
171
Vascular Resistance: Resistance of the *systemic vascular tree* (arterioles)
Systemic vascular resistance
172
Vascular Resistance: Resistance of the *pulmonary vascular tree*
Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
173
Poiseuille’s Law
Resistance = 8 x length x viscosity / pi x radius^4 - *Resistance increases EXPONENTIALLY when vessel radius narrows*
174
List the factors affecting resistance:
- Autonomic nervous system - Hormonal and endothelial (local) factor
175
If a vessel diameter decreases by *half*, by what factor would the vascular resistance increase?
16
176
(T/F) Flow is inversely proportional to resistance
True
177
(T/F) Flow is inversely proportional to the pressure difference (pressure gradient)
False
178
Which statement is true regarding venous return and respiration? a. Inspiration increases overall intrathoracic pressure in the chest causing blood to move out of the right atrium into the vena cava. b. Expiration increases intrathoracic negative pressure causing an increase in venous return. c. Inspiration increases intrathoracic negative pressure lowering the pressure in the right atrium. d. An increase in right atrial pressure as compared to the vena cava causes an increase in venous return.
c. Inspiration increases intrathoracic negative pressure lowering the pressure in the right atrium.