Module 2: Cardiovascular and Hemodynamics Pathology Flashcards

(272 cards)

1
Q

Define blood pressure

A

Pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of the blood vessels especially the arteries.

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2
Q

What is the formula for blood pressure?

A

BP = CO x Peripheral Resistance

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3
Q

What is cardiac output (CO) calculated from?

A

CO = Stroke Volume x Heart Rate

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4
Q

List the variables that affect peripheral resistance.

A
  • Blood viscosity
  • Vessel length
  • Vessel diameter
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5
Q

What are the three main factors that influence blood pressure?

A
  • Autoregulatory mechanisms
  • Neural
  • Hormonal
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6
Q

Name some hormones that influence blood pressure.

A
  • Aldosterone
  • Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
  • Natriuretic Peptides (ANP)
  • Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
  • Angiotensin II
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7
Q

What is hypertension?

A

Abnormally high blood pressure, especially arterial blood pressure, above 120 mm Hg / 80 mm Hg.

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8
Q

Approximately what percentage of the population is hypertensive?

A

About 25%.

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9
Q

What are the complications associated with hypertension?

A
  • Atherosclerotic coronary heart disease
  • Cardiac hypertrophy
  • Hypertensive heart disease
  • Increased risk of stroke
  • Aortic dissection
  • Renal failure
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10
Q

Differentiate between essential and secondary hypertension.

A
  • Essential (Idiopathic) Hypertension: 90-95% of cases, no known direct cause.
  • Secondary Hypertension: Under 10% of cases, due to an underlying condition.
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11
Q

What are the mechanisms of essential hypertension?

A
  • Reduced renal sodium excretion
  • Increased vascular resistance
  • Chronic vasoconstriction
  • Genetic factors
  • Environmental factors
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12
Q

What lifestyle changes are recommended for managing hypertension?

A
  • DASH diet or diets less in salt
  • Exercise / Weight loss
  • Smoking cessation
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13
Q

List some medications used to treat hypertension.

A
  • Thiazide Diuretics
  • Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
  • Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
  • Beta blockers
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14
Q

True or False: Secondary hypertension can be due to a renal disorder.

A

True

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15
Q

Fill in the blank: A complication of hypertension is _______.

A

cardiac hypertrophy

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16
Q

True or False: Stage 1 hypertension requires both high readings of systolic and diastolic.

A

False

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17
Q

What percentage of hypertensive patients die of ischemic heart disease or congestive heart failure without appropriate treatment?

A

Approximately 50%.

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18
Q

Define intimal hyperplasia

A

Thickening of the intimal layer of the blood vessel due to increased smooth muscle and extracellular matrix components

Occurs between the endothelium and internal elastic membrane

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19
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of intimal hyperplasia

A

Stimulated by endothelial damage, leading to smooth muscle cell growth and extracellular matrix deposition

Caused by factors such as smoking, infection, inflammation, and physical trauma

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20
Q

Define arteriosclerosis

A

Chronic disease characterized by abnormal thickening and hardening of the arterial walls with resulting loss of elasticity

Associated with hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and smoking

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21
Q

List the three types of arteriosclerosis

A
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Arteriolosclerosis
  • Mönckeberg Medial Sclerosis
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22
Q

Compare arteriosclerosis and arteriolosclerosis

A

Arteriosclerosis involves hardening of arteries due to atheromatous plaque; arteriolosclerosis involves hardening of arterioles

Atherosclerosis is the most common type of arteriosclerosis

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23
Q

Describe the characteristics of atherosclerosis

A

Involves build-up of fat, cholesterol, and other substances under the endothelium, forming atherosclerotic plaques

Plaques can weaken underlying media tunics and lead to aneurysms

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24
Q

Define the relevance of a plaque with the process of atherosclerosis

A

Plaques lead to arterial hardening and narrowing of the lumen space, increasing risk for cardiovascular events

Plaque rupture can cause thrombosis, leading to heart attacks or strokes

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25
Describe the correlation of coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis
Coronary artery disease (CAD) is a dangerous manifestation of atherosclerosis, leading to ischemic heart disease and myocardial infarction ## Footnote Atherosclerosis contributes significantly to morbidity and mortality
26
Compare the modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors associated with atherosclerosis
Modifiable: * Hyperlipidemia * Hypertension * Smoking * Diabetes mellitus * Inflammation Non-Modifiable: * Genetics * Age * Gender
27
Describe the pathogenesis process of the formation of atherosclerosis
* Endothelial damage * Accumulation of lipoproteins and monocytes * Immune response and fatty streak formation * Smooth muscle proliferation and plaque formation * Plaque rupture or calcification
28
Define the importance of fibrous cap damage associated with atherosclerosis
Fibrous cap damage can lead to plaque rupture, exposing the lipid core to the bloodstream and causing thrombosis ## Footnote This can result in heart attacks or strokes
29
Define clinical complications and associated pathology with atherosclerosis
* Angina pectoris * Myocardial infarction * Transient ischemic attack (TIA) * Stroke * Peripheral ischemia
30
Explain the mechanisms utilized in the treatment of atherosclerosis
* Lifestyle changes * Medications (e.g., statins, blood thinners) * Surgical options (e.g., angioplasty, bypass surgery)
31
True or False: Foam cells are macrophages that phagocytize LDL particles
True
32
Fill in the blank: Atherosclerosis causes more _______ and _______ in the Western world than any other disorder.
morbidity, mortality
33
What is the role of foam cells in atherosclerosis?
Foam cells form from macrophages that phagocytize LDL particles, leading to the formation of fatty streaks ## Footnote These streaks are the earliest visible lesions in atherosclerosis
34
What happens if the fibrous cap of an atherosclerotic plaque ruptures?
The lipid core is exposed to the bloodstream, leading to thrombosis and potential blockage of the artery
35
What are the outcomes of atherosclerosis?
* Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) * Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD) * Transient Ischemic Attack * Cerebral Vascular Accident
36
Define the term hemostasis
Process of stopping the flow of blood (bleeding) ## Footnote Involves the formation of blood clots at a site of injury
37
What are the three steps of normal hemostasis?
* Vascular spasm * Primary hemostasis (platelet plug formation) * Secondary hemostasis (coagulation) ## Footnote Each step is crucial for effective blood clotting and prevention of excessive bleeding.
38
Describe the process and outcome of primary hemostasis
Formation of a platelet plug at the site of injury ## Footnote Activated platelets aggregate and adhere to the damaged vessel wall.
39
What activates platelets?
* Collagen fibers * von Willebrand Factor (vWF) * Thrombin * ADP * Thromboxane A2 (TxA2) ## Footnote These factors initiate the recruitment and activation of additional platelets.
40
What physiological changes do activated platelets undergo?
* Change shape to form extensions * Secrete more von Willebrand's factors, calcium, serotonin, ADP, and thromboxane A2 ## Footnote These changes enhance platelet aggregation and recruitment.
41
Identify the role of Endothelin in platelet plug formation
Potent vasoconstrictor released by damaged endothelial cells ## Footnote It helps reduce blood flow at the injury site.
42
Identify the role of von Willebrand Factor (vWF) in platelet plug formation
Binds to collagen and helps platelets attach to vessel wall and activates them ## Footnote Essential for platelet adhesion and activation.
43
Describe the primary hemostasis process to form a platelet plug
Activated platelets aggregate to form a plug at the site of injury ## Footnote This is crucial for limiting blood loss.
44
Describe the process and outcomes of secondary hemostasis
Reinforces the platelet plug with a fibrin mesh ## Footnote Clotting factors are activated to convert fibrinogen to fibrin.
45
What is the role of thrombin in the hemostasis process?
Converts fibrinogen to fibrin ## Footnote Thrombin is a key enzyme in coagulation.
46
What is fibrinolysis?
Enzymatic breakdown of the fibrin threads/mesh within a blood clot ## Footnote It allows the clot to dissolve after the vessel is healed.
47
What is the role of plasminogen and t-PA in fibrinolysis?
* Plasminogen: Precursor to plasmin * t-PA: Activates plasmin, breaks down fibrin ## Footnote t-PA is released by endothelial cells and increases production when clotting factors are near.
48
What are the anticoagulation effects of t-PA, decreased vitamin K, Heparin, Warfarin, and aspirin?
* t-PA: Activates fibrinolysis * Decreased vitamin K: Reduces clotting factor production * Heparin: Inactivates thrombin * Warfarin: Blocks vitamin K effects * Aspirin: Prevents platelet aggregation ## Footnote These medications are used to prevent excessive clotting.
49
What are hemorrhagic disorders?
Conditions that lead to excessive bleeding ## Footnote They can occur due to defects in hemostasis.
50
What are thrombotic disorders?
Conditions that lead to excessive clotting ## Footnote These disorders can result in complications like DVT and stroke.
51
What is the importance of Factor X in hemostasis?
Activates the coagulation cascade via the common pathway ## Footnote It plays a crucial role in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
52
What is the common pathway in coagulation?
Pathway that allows for the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin ## Footnote It is activated by both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.
53
What is the role of Thromboxane A2 in hemostasis?
Promotes platelet activation and aggregation ## Footnote It is released by activated platelets.
54
What is the function of nitric oxide in hemostasis?
Causes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggregation ## Footnote Released by healthy endothelial cells.
55
What is the effect of aspirin on hemostasis?
Blocks the production of Thromboxane A2 ## Footnote This prevents platelet aggregation.
56
True or False: The main goal of secondary hemostasis is to form a platelet plug.
False ## Footnote The main goal is to reinforce the platelet plug with fibrin.
57
What does it mean to be prothrombotic?
Promotes coagulation ## Footnote Involves factors that lead to clot formation.
58
What does it mean to be antithrombotic?
Prevents excessive or inappropriate clotting ## Footnote Involves factors that inhibit coagulation.
59
What is the role of antiplatelet drugs?
Inhibit platelet aggregation ## Footnote Aspirin is a common example of an antiplatelet medication.
60
What is the purpose of clinical tests like Prothrombin time (PT) and Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)?
* PT: Screens extrinsic pathway activity * PTT: Screens intrinsic pathway activity ## Footnote These tests help assess coagulation status.
61
Define the term hemorrhage
Extravasation of blood from vessels ## Footnote Hemorrhage can occur due to various causes such as trauma or disease.
62
Define the term thrombotic
Association of the formation of thrombus ## Footnote Thrombotic conditions can lead to vessel blockage.
63
What are Petechiae?
1-2mm hemorrhages; red in color ## Footnote They indicate small blood vessel leakage.
64
What are Purpura?
3-5mm hemorrhages; purple in color ## Footnote Purpura can signify more serious underlying conditions.
65
What are Ecchymosis?
1-2cm hematomas; bruise or contusion ## Footnote Result from blood leaking from broken vessels beneath the skin.
66
Define the term Hematoma
Pooling of blood in soft tissue ## Footnote Hematomas can occur due to trauma or other causes.
67
List the three major causations of thrombosis
* Endothelial injury * Stasis or turbulent blood flow * Hypercoagulability of the blood ## Footnote These factors are collectively known as the Virchow triad.
68
What are the outcomes of a thrombus?
* Dissolution * Propagation * Embolization * Organization and recanalization ## Footnote These outcomes can significantly impact blood flow and overall health.
69
What are the clinical manifestations of a thrombus?
* Pain in leg or arm * Swelling in one leg or arm * Ischemia * Numbness or weakness on one side ## Footnote These symptoms can vary depending on the location of the thrombus.
70
What is the treatment for a thrombus?
Medications called tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA) ## Footnote tPA is a clot-dissolving medication used in acute cases.
71
Describe the two major complications of a thrombus
* Occlusion of the vessel * Emboli formation ## Footnote These complications can lead to serious health issues such as strokes or myocardial infarction.
72
Describe the clinical characteristics of a deep vein thrombosis
* Swelling * Pain * Warmth * Redness ## Footnote DVT can lead to severe complications such as pulmonary embolism.
73
Define the term embolus
An intravascular solid, liquid, or gaseous mass carried by blood ## Footnote Emboli can lead to blockage of vessels and subsequent ischemia.
74
Compare and contrast types of emboli
* Pulmonary thromboembolism * Systemic thromboembolism * Fat embolism * Amniotic fluid embolism * Air embolism ## Footnote Each type has distinct causes and clinical implications.
75
What are the clinical characteristics of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Widespread thrombosis leads to circulatory insufficiency ## Footnote DIC is a complication of various conditions and can lead to bleeding catastrophes.
76
True or False: An embolus can only be caused by a thrombus.
A. True ## Footnote Most emboli originate from dislodged thrombi.
77
True or False: Endothelial damage, such as atherosclerosis, can lead to a thrombus.
A. True ## Footnote Endothelial injury is a key factor in thrombus formation.
78
True or False: Thrombi always lead to an embolus.
B. False ## Footnote Not all thrombi become emboli; some may dissolve or remain stationary.
79
True or False: A DVT would cause unilateral redness and swelling.
A. True ## Footnote DVT typically presents with localized symptoms in one leg.
80
Define the term aneurysm
A localized abnormal dilation of a blood vessel due to a weakening in the vessel wall that may be congenital or acquired. ## Footnote Aneurysms can be caused by inadequate or abnormal connective tissue synthesis, excessive connective tissue degradation, loss of smooth muscle cells, atherosclerosis, or hypertension.
81
What are the classifications of aneurysms?
Classifications include: * True Aneurysm * False Aneurysm (Pseudoaneurysm) * Dissecting Aneurysm ## Footnote True aneurysms involve all three layers of the vessel wall, while false aneurysms have a breached vessel wall contained by surrounding tissue.
82
Identify the most common aneurysm
Saccular (berry) aneurysm. ## Footnote These are commonly found in cerebral arteries, especially at the Circle of Willis.
83
Identify the symptoms of intracerebral aneurysm
SUDDEN HEADACHE, WORSE HEADACHE OF LIFE, NOTHING IMPROVES PAIN. ## Footnote These symptoms indicate a potential rupture of the aneurysm.
84
Describe the characteristics of an abdominal aortic aneurysm
Occurs in the abdominal aorta, often due to atherosclerosis; more frequent in men and smokers; concerns include obstruction and rupture. ## Footnote Rupture can lead to severe complications, including hemorrhage.
85
Describe the clinical manifestations of thoracic aortic aneurysm
Commonly associated with hypertension; can be ascending or descending. ## Footnote May lead to serious complications if not managed promptly.
86
Define the term vasculitis
General term for inflammation of the blood vessels. ## Footnote Vasculitis can lead to vessel damage, thickening, narrowing, ischemia, and potentially aneurysm formation.
87
Compare and contrast the mechanisms of vasculitis
Mechanisms include: * Autoimmune * Infectious * Drug-induced * Paraneoplastic * Idiopathic ## Footnote Each mechanism may affect different sizes of blood vessels and have specific disease names.
88
Define the clinical complications and treatment options associated with vasculitis
Complications include vessel damage and ischemia; treatment options include immunosuppressants and steroids. ## Footnote Specific treatment may vary depending on the underlying cause of vasculitis.
89
Define the term varicose veins
Abnormally dilated, tortuous veins produced by prolonged, increased intraluminal pressure with vessel dilation and incompetence of the venous valves. ## Footnote Commonly involved veins are superficial veins of the upper and lower leg.
90
Describe the clinical manifestations of varicose veins
Leads to stasis, congestion, edema, pain, and thrombosis. ## Footnote Secondary tissue ischemia can result from chronic venous congestion and poor drainage.
91
What are the treatment options for varicose veins?
Treatment options include: * Self-care (losing weight, exercising, elevating legs) * Compression stockings * Medical procedures, including surgery ## Footnote Treatment aims to relieve symptoms and prevent complications.
92
Define esophageal varices
Result from blockage of blood flow to the liver, leading to blood flowing into smaller veins that cannot handle the increased volume. ## Footnote Can lead to significant complications, including hemorrhage.
93
What are hemorrhoids?
Result from primary varicose dilation of the venous plexus at the anorectal junction. ## Footnote Often caused by prolonged pelvic vascular congestion due to pregnancy or straining to defecate.
94
Define spider veins
Smaller version of varicose veins; superficial, small veins. ## Footnote Often a cosmetic concern and less likely to cause complications compared to larger varicose veins.
95
True or False: Brain aneurysms symptoms are a gradual onset.
False ## Footnote Symptoms of brain aneurysms typically present suddenly, especially upon rupture.
96
True or False: Aortic abdominal aneurysm can be detected on an X-ray.
True ## Footnote X-rays can reveal aortic aneurysms, especially in cases of significant enlargement.
97
True or False: Vasculitis can occur from a type III hypersensitivity reaction.
True ## Footnote This is one of the mechanisms that can lead to vasculitis.
98
What is a saccular aneurysm?
A small, rounded, pouch-like bulge on one side of the vessel. ## Footnote Commonly seen in cerebral arteries, particularly in the Circle of Willis.
99
What is a fusiform aneurysm?
Uniform, circumferential dilation along a segment of a vessel. ## Footnote Typically seen in abdominal and thoracic aortic aneurysms.
100
What are the common causes of true aneurysms?
Common causes include: * Atherosclerosis * Hypertension * Congenital weaknesses ## Footnote True aneurysms involve all three layers of the vessel wall.
101
What is a dissecting aneurysm?
Occurs when blood enters a tear in the intima and tracks between the layers of the vessel wall. ## Footnote Aortic dissection is a prime example and can be catastrophic if not managed emergently.
102
Define the term edema
Accumulation of fluid in tissues ## Footnote Edema can occur in various conditions, affecting tissue function.
103
Define the term effusion
Accumulation of fluid in body cavities ## Footnote An example is ascites, which is fluid collection in the abdominal cavity.
104
Identify the four main causes of edema
* Increased hydrostatic pressure * Reduced osmotic pressure * Lymphatic obstruction * Increased vascular permeability (inflammation)
105
Describe the two forces that drive fluid movement between the vascular and interstitial spaces
Hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure
106
Compare and contrast exudate and transudate
* Exudate: Protein-rich fluid; caused by increased vascular permeability due to inflammation. * Transudate: Low protein fluid; common in non-inflammatory disorders.
107
Describe the pathophysiology of edema caused by increased hydrostatic pressure
Localized due to impaired venous return (e.g., deep venous thrombosis) or generalized most commonly caused by congestive heart failure (CHF)
108
Describe the pathophysiology of edema caused by decreased osmotic pressure
Conditions include nephrotic syndrome, severe liver disease, reduced albumin production, and protein malnutrition
109
Describe the pathophysiology of edema caused by lymphatic obstruction
Lymphedema primarily caused by lymphadenopathy or damage/removal of lymph nodes
110
Compare and contrast hyperemia and congestion
* Hyperemia: Increased vasodilation and inflow of arterial blood; active process, redder in color. * Congestion: Decreased outflow of venous blood; passive process, cyanotic in color.
111
Define the term shock
Condition where cells, tissues, and organs are not getting enough blood flow
112
Describe the characteristics and consequences of shock
Characterized by systemic hypoperfusion of tissues, leading to impaired tissue perfusion and cellular hypoxia
113
Compare and contrast the types of shock
* Cardiogenic Shock: Low cardiac output due to myocardial damage. * Hypovolemic Shock: Low cardiac output due to blood or plasma volume loss. * Septic Shock: Arterial vasodilation and venous pooling due to infection.
114
Define the concerns associated with septic shock
Advanced and life-threatening stage of sepsis leading to severe impairment of the body's response to infection and profound drop in blood pressure
115
Identify the main type of bacteria associated with septic shock
Gram-positive bacteria
116
Describe the clinical manifestations associated with shock
Hypotension, weak rapid pulse, tachypnea, cool clammy cyanotic skin
117
Define the terms infarct and infarction
Infarct: Area of ischemic necrosis caused by occlusion of vascular supply; infarction: process by which an infarct lesion forms
118
Compare and contrast the four types of morphology associated with infarction
* Red (hemorrhagic): Loss of blood leads to red color. * White (anemic/ischemic): Lack of blood supply leads to white color. * Ischemic Coagulative Necrosis: Main histologic finding. * Liquefactive Necrosis: Commonly seen in central nervous system.
119
True or False: Ascites occurs when there is fluid build up in the pericardium.
False
120
True or False: Hyperemia will lead to cyanosis due to the increased blood flow.
False
121
This type of shock is caused by a significant loss of blood over a short period of time. Fill in the blank: _______ shock.
Hypovolemic
122
This type of morphology occurs when there is an infarct associated with ischemia. Fill in the blank: _______ necrosis.
Ischemic coagulative
123
True or False: Shock occurs when there is hypoperfusion to tissues.
True
124
Define the term microcytic
Refers to red blood cells that are smaller than normal ## Footnote Microcytic anemia is often associated with iron deficiency.
125
Define the term macrocytic
Refers to red blood cells that are larger than normal ## Footnote Macrocytic anemia can be caused by vitamin B12 or folate deficiency.
126
Define the term hypochromic
Refers to red blood cells that have less color than normal ## Footnote Hypochromic anemia is typically seen in iron deficiency anemia.
127
Define the term reticulocytes
Immature red blood cells released into the bloodstream ## Footnote Reticulocytes mature within 1-2 days.
128
Define the term erythropoiesis
The process by which red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow ## Footnote Erythropoiesis is stimulated by erythropoietin.
129
Identify the various erythrocyte diagnostic blood work measurements
Includes hemoglobin levels, hematocrit, red blood cell count, reticulocyte count ## Footnote These measurements help in diagnosing different types of anemia.
130
Define anemia
A reduction in the oxygen-transporting capacity of blood ## Footnote Commonly classified by mechanism of action and red cell morphology.
131
How is anemia commonly classified?
Through its mechanism of action and/or basis of red cell morphology ## Footnote Mechanisms include blood loss, destruction, decreased production, and hemoglobin dysfunction.
132
Identify the general symptoms of anemia
* Fatigue * Weakness * Pallor * Jaundice * Heart palpitations * Hypotension * Mental fog * Pica * Lassitude * Cold hands and feet ## Footnote These symptoms reflect the body's response to reduced oxygen delivery.
133
Describe the characteristics of hemolytic anemias
Accelerated red blood cell destruction and decreased red blood cell lifespan ## Footnote Common traits include increased erythropoiesis and elevated levels of RBC byproducts.
134
Identify clinical manifestations of hemolytic anemias
* Increased reticulocytes * Splenomegaly * Hemosiderosis * Jaundice ## Footnote These manifestations arise from excessive RBC breakdown and bilirubin accumulation.
135
Describe the clinical characteristics of hereditary spherocytosis
Abnormally shaped red blood cells (spherocytes) that lack central pallor ## Footnote Spherocytes are hyperchromic and are prone to destruction in the spleen.
136
Describe the clinical characteristics of sickle cell anemia
Involves an inherited mutation causing abnormal beta-globin subunit of hemoglobin ## Footnote Results in microvascular obstructions and a significantly reduced RBC lifespan.
137
Describe the clinical characteristics of alpha/beta thalassemia
Results from deletions in the HBA1 and HBA2 genes leading to microcytic and hypochromic RBCs ## Footnote Thalassemias affect hemoglobin production leading to anemia.
138
Describe the clinical characteristics of traumatic hemolytic anemia
Caused by physical injury to red blood cells, leading to their destruction ## Footnote Often seen in conditions like microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.
139
Describe the clinical characteristics of malaria-related hemolytic anemia
A parasite infection that infects and destroys RBCs, leading to a significant decrease in their numbers ## Footnote Mosquitos transmit the parasite, which multiplies in the liver before infecting RBCs.
140
Describe the clinical characteristics of iron deficiency anemia
Characterized by microcytic and hypochromic RBCs ## Footnote Caused by insufficient iron for hemoglobin synthesis.
141
Describe the pathophysiology of megaloblastic anemia
Characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells called megaloblasts ## Footnote Results from deficiencies in vitamin B12 or folate.
142
Identify the two principal causes of megaloblastic anemia
* Folate deficiency anemia * Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia ## Footnote Both vitamins are crucial for DNA synthesis and hematopoiesis.
143
Describe the pathophysiology of pernicious anemia
Characterized by the body's inability to absorb vitamin B12 due to lack of intrinsic factor ## Footnote Often caused by autoimmune destruction of stomach cells producing intrinsic factor.
144
Describe the pathophysiology of aplastic anemia
Characterized by the bone marrow's inability to produce blood cells ## Footnote Can be caused by exposure to certain drugs, chemicals, and radiation.
145
Define the term polycythemia
Characterized by an increase of red blood cells per unit volume in circulation ## Footnote Also known as erythrocytosis.
146
Compare and contrast primary and secondary polycythemia
* Primary polycythemia: Clonal, neoplastic disorder with normal or low EPO levels * Secondary polycythemia: Increased RBC production driven by excessive EPO ## Footnote Secondary causes include high altitude, lung disease, and certain cancers.
147
This type of anemia will have normochromic and normocytic erythrocytes?
C. Hemorrhagic anemia ## Footnote Hemorrhagic anemia typically results from acute or chronic blood loss.
148
What anemia is not classified as a hemolytic anemia?
D. Iron deficiency anemia ## Footnote Iron deficiency anemia is due to insufficient iron, not RBC destruction.
149
Increased reticulocytes are commonly associated with hemolytic anemias?
A. True ## Footnote Increased reticulocyte count indicates the bone marrow's response to anemia.
150
What are the two main types of stem cell lines involved in blood cell production?
Myeloid stem cell line and lymphoid stem cell line ## Footnote Myeloid stem cells produce RBCs, platelets, granulocytes, and monocytes, while lymphoid stem cells produce B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes.
151
What are the classifications of leukemia?
Acute, chronic, lymphocytic, myelogenous ## Footnote The major categories include Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL), Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML), Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), and Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML).
152
What are common signs and symptoms of leukemia?
* Tiredness * Weakness * Shortness of breath * Pale skin * Increased infections * Bruises * Bleeding * Weight loss * Fever * Night sweats * Loss of appetite * Bone/joint pain * Swelling of abdomen
153
What is the general diagnosis for leukemias?
* Complete blood count (CBC) * Peripheral blood smear * Bone marrow biopsy * Chromosome tests ## Footnote Diagnosis involves observing changes in WBCs and decreased RBCs and platelets.
154
Which type of leukemia is the most common in children?
Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) ## Footnote It accounts for almost 1 out of 3 cancers in children and teens.
155
What characterizes acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?
* Progresses quickly * Affects lymphocytes ## Footnote If untreated, it can be fatal within a few months.
156
What are the phases of treatment for acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?
* Induction (remission) * Consolidation (intensification) * Maintenance
157
What characterizes chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?
* Slow development * Mainly affects older adults * Average diagnosis age is around 70 years ## Footnote Many individuals may not show symptoms for several years.
158
What is acute myeloid leukemia (AML) also known as?
Acute myeloblastic leukemia or acute myelocytic leukemia
159
What is the average age of diagnosis for acute myeloid leukemia (AML)?
Approximately 68 years ## Footnote AML is generally rare in individuals under 45.
160
What mutation is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?
Mutation in the BCR-ABL gene (proto-oncogene)
161
What are the two main types of lymphomas?
Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma
162
What is the defining cell type in Hodgkin lymphoma?
Reed-Sternberg cell
163
Who is most at risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
Individuals in early adulthood (20s) and late adulthood (after age 55) ## Footnote It is the most common cancer diagnosed in teenagers aged 15 to 19 years.
164
What characterizes non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)?
* More than 60 subtypes * Involves a greater variety of lymphocytes * Does not involve Reed-Sternberg cells
165
How does the progression of Hodgkin lymphoma differ from non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
Hodgkin lymphoma progresses in a determined direction (from neck to lower extremities), while non-Hodgkin lymphoma can develop anywhere in the body.
166
True or False: Hodgkin lymphoma involves Reed-Sternberg cells.
True
167
True or False: Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is more common than Hodgkin lymphoma.
True
168
True or False: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) progresses quickly.
False
169
True or False: Most childhood leukemias are chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL).
False
170
Fill in the blank: The most common symptom of Hodgkin lymphoma is a ______.
lump in the neck, under the arm, or in the groin
171
What is the role of the cardiac conduction system?
Regulates rate and rhythm of heart ## Footnote Influenced by variables such as exercise, drugs, hormonal levels, ANS, and oxygen levels
172
Define arrhythmia
Disturbance in or loss of regular rhythm; variation from normal heartbeat rhythm ## Footnote Can relate to atria, ventricles, or entire heart
173
How are arrhythmias diagnosed?
Through electrocardiogram (EKG) ## Footnote Abnormal EKG indicates arrhythmia
174
What are the clinical manifestations of an arrhythmia?
* Fast/slow heart rate * Heart palpitations * Lightheadedness, dizziness * Chest pain, shortness of breath * Anxiety ## Footnote Sensations may include heart racing, skipping a beat, or fluttering
175
List the types of arrhythmias
* Atrial fibrillation (A fib) * Atrial flutter * Premature atrial contractions (PAC) * Ventricular fibrillation (V fib) * Premature ventricular complex (PVC) * Sinus arrhythmia * Sick sinus arrhythmia
176
What is atrial fibrillation?
Most common type of serious arrhythmia; irregular rhythm with fast, chaotic contractions of the atria ## Footnote Electrical impulse originates outside of the SA node
177
What are the complications of atrial fibrillation?
* Reduced cardiac output * Stroke due to thrombus formation * Long term can lead to heart failure
178
What treatments are available for atrial fibrillation?
* Medications to manage arrhythmia and prevent blood clots * Catheter ablation to destroy abnormal impulse areas
179
Describe atrial flutter
Similar to atrial fibrillation; fast and regular rhythm in the atria ## Footnote Atria contract rapidly but in a regular rhythm
180
What is a premature atrial contraction (PAC)?
Most common type of arrhythmia; impulse generated outside of SA node; commonly asymptomatic ## Footnote May create a fluttering sensation in the chest
181
What is ventricular fibrillation (V fib)?
Chaotic, disorganized impulses to the ventricles; fatal within minutes if untreated ## Footnote Requires immediate treatment with defibrillation
182
What is a premature ventricular complex (PVC)?
Irregular impulse causing early contraction of ventricles; commonly asymptomatic ## Footnote Heart typically returns to normal conduction afterward
183
Define sinus arrhythmia
Irregular heartbeat that can be too fast (tachycardia) or too slow (bradycardia)
184
What is sick sinus arrhythmia?
Dysfunction of the SA node leading to chaotic heart rates; treatment commonly involves a pacemaker
185
Define sudden cardiac death
Occurs due to sustained ventricular arrhythmias in individuals with underlying structural heart disease
186
True or False: Atrial fibrillation is the most common type of serious arrhythmia.
True
187
Fill in the blank: Ventricular fibrillation requires immediate treatment with an _______.
Automated External Defibrillator (AED)
188
All of the options are true regarding arrhythmias, except?
D. Atrial fibrillation is commonly treated with a pacemaker
189
Define ischemic heart disease
A broad term encompassing several closely related syndromes caused by myocardial ischemia ## Footnote It results from an imbalance between cardiac blood supply and myocardial oxygen requirements.
190
What are the clinical presentations of ischemic heart disease?
Manifestations include: * Angina Pectoris * Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI) * Chronic IHD with Heart Failure (HF) * Sudden Cardiac Death (SCD) ## Footnote These presentations are direct consequences of insufficient blood supply to the heart.
191
Identify the epidemiology of ischemic heart disease
IHD is the largest cause of mortality worldwide, accounting for over 12% of global deaths ## Footnote The overall death rate from IHD in the U.S. has fallen by over 50% since the mid-1960s.
192
Describe the pathogenesis of ischemic heart disease
Dominant cause is insufficient coronary perfusion relative to myocardial demand, primarily due to: * Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) * Acute plaque change, thrombosis, and vasospasm ## Footnote More than 90% of cases arise from reduced coronary blood flow due to obstructive atherosclerotic disease.
193
Define angina pectoris
An intermittent chest pain caused by transient, reversible myocardial ischemia ## Footnote Characterized by paroxysmal and usually recurrent attacks of chest discomfort.
194
Describe the pathogenesis and clinical manifestations of angina pectoris
Caused by transient myocardial ischemia insufficient to induce myocyte necrosis. Symptoms include: * Chest pain * Discomfort in other areas ## Footnote Pain usually lasts from 15 seconds to 15 minutes.
195
Identify the diagnosis and treatment of angina pectoris
Diagnosis includes: * Angiography * Stress test Treatment options include: * Lifestyle changes * Nitrates * Vasodilators * Blood thinners * Statins * Blood pressure medications ## Footnote These treatments aim to improve blood flow and reduce symptoms.
196
Define myocardial infarction
Necrosis of heart muscle resulting from ischemia, commonly referred to as a heart attack ## Footnote Roughly 1.5 million people per year in the U.S. suffer an MI.
197
Describe the pathophysiology of myocardial infarction
Most MIs are caused by acute coronary artery thrombosis ## Footnote The underlying cause is often atherosclerosis.
198
Identify the epidemiology of myocardial infarction
Approximately 1.5 million people per year in the U.S. suffer an MI; one-third die, often before reaching a hospital ## Footnote Women are generally protected from MI during reproductive years until menopause.
199
Identify the three major arteries affected with myocardial infarction
The three main arteries are: * Left Descending Artery * Right Coronary Artery * Left Circumflex Artery ## Footnote Each supplies oxygenated blood to specific regions of the myocardium.
200
Compare and contrast transmural and non-transmural infarcts
Transmural infarct: * Extends through entire wall of myocardium * Occurs in about 3-6 hours Non-transmural infarct: * Does not extend through entire wall * Affects inner 1/3 area only ## Footnote This classification is crucial for understanding the severity and treatment of MIs.
201
Compare and contrast myocardial infarction signs and symptoms in women and men
Common symptoms include: * Chest discomfort * Discomfort in other upper body areas * Shortness of breath * Other signs (e.g., cold sweat, nausea) ## Footnote Women are more likely to experience nausea/vomiting and back or jaw pain compared to men.
202
Describe the diagnosis, treatments, and prevention mechanisms of myocardial infarctions
Diagnosis includes: * Electrocardiogram (ECG) * Blood tests Treatment options: * Clot-busting medications * Angioplasty * Stint placement * By-pass surgery Prevention involves: * Lifestyle changes (diet and exercise) ## Footnote Early intervention can significantly improve outcomes.
203
True or False: Chronic hypertension can lead to a myocardial infarction.
A. True
204
True or False: Angina pectoris occurs when there is a full blockage within an artery of the heart.
B. False
205
True or False: A transmural infarct is worse than a non-transmural infarct.
A. True
206
True or False: Angina and myocardial infarction are both due to irreversible myocardial ischemia.
B. False
207
Define valvular heart disease
A diagnosis referring to actual structural or functional problems with one or more of the heart valves ## Footnote Valvular heart disease can lead to various complications and symptoms depending on the type of valve affected.
208
Define heart murmur
A clinical finding that is a sound heard on auscultation, which may indicate valvular heart disease but doesn’t confirm it ## Footnote Some murmurs are 'innocent' and not related to a disease, commonly found in children and young adults.
209
What is stenosis in valvular heart disease?
Failure of a valve to open completely, obstructing forward flow, almost always due to a primary cusp abnormality ## Footnote Stenosis leads to calcification or valve scarring and is a chronic process.
210
What is regurgitation in valvular heart disease?
Failure of a valve to close completely, allowing regurgitation (backflow) of blood ## Footnote Can result from intrinsic disease of the valve cusps or disruption of supporting structures.
211
List the clinical manifestations of valvular heart disease
* Asymptomatic * Heart murmur * Fatigue * Shortness of breath
212
What are the diagnostic methods for valvular heart disease?
* Auscultation * Imaging * Treatment options include medications and surgical replacement of the valve
213
What characterizes degenerative valve disease?
Changes affecting the integrity of valvular extracellular matrix, including calcifications and decreased numbers of valve fibroblasts and myofibroblasts ## Footnote Degenerative changes in cardiac valves are an inevitable part of the aging process.
214
What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis?
Calcific aortic degeneration, which can be viewed as a valvular-related atherosclerosis process ## Footnote Calcified masses grow on the outflow side of the cusps, mechanically impeding valve opening.
215
What is rheumatic valvular disease?
A condition that can cause long-term damage to the heart and its valves, typically resulting from rheumatic fever after group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infections ## Footnote The principal clinical manifestation is carditis.
216
What is mitral valve prolapse?
Occurs when mitral valve cusps bulge or prolapse into the left atrium, commonly leading to regurgitation
217
When do systolic murmurs occur?
Between S1 and S2 when the ventricles are contracting ## Footnote Common causes include aortic stenosis, pulmonic stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and tricuspid regurgitation.
218
When do diastolic murmurs occur?
Between S2 and the next S1 during ventricular filling/relaxation ## Footnote Common causes include aortic regurgitation, pulmonic regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and tricuspid stenosis.
219
Define pericarditis
Inflammation of the pericardium that presents with atypical chest pain, worsened in recumbency ## Footnote Can lead to immediate hemodynamic complications if it elicits a large pericardial effusion.
220
What are pericardial effusions?
Fluid buildup within the pericardium that can exert pressure on the heart ## Footnote Can lead to cardiac tamponade, which restricts heart function.
221
What is cardiac tamponade?
Fluid buildup in the pericardial space putting pressure on the heart, leading to reduced cardiac output ## Footnote Results in reduced end-diastolic volume (EDV) and end-systolic volume (ESV).
222
True or False: Rheumatic valvular disease can lead to tricuspid valve stenosis.
False
223
True or False: Mitral valve stenosis can lead to left-sided ventricular hypertrophy.
True
224
What is true regarding aortic valve stenosis?
Due to calcification of the aortic valves, left ventricular hypertrophy occurs, and cardiac output is decreased ## Footnote The correct answer is that all of the options are true.
225
What is the etiology of heart disease?
Wide variety of injuries/damage leading to heart disease includes: * Failure of the heart pumping * Obstruction * Valve lesions that prevent valve opening * Regurgitant flow * Shunted flow * Disorders of cardiac conduction * Rupture of the heart or major vessel ## Footnote Heart disease can arise from many underlying conditions and structural abnormalities.
226
Define heart failure.
Characterized by the heart unable to contract strong enough and/or fast enough to pump enough blood to meet the body’s metabolic demands due to a weakened myocardium.
227
Identify the diseases/disorders that lead to heart failure.
Common causes of heart failure include: * Ischemic heart disease * Hypertension * Cardiomyopathy * Heart valve dysfunction * Myocardial infarction ## Footnote Each of these conditions can impair the heart's ability to pump effectively.
228
Describe the pathophysiology of left-sided heart failure.
Left ventricle function is failing, leading to decreased cardiac output (CO) and blood backing up into the pulmonary system, causing congestion and edema.
229
What are the clinical characteristics of left-sided heart failure?
Clinical manifestations include: * Dyspnea on exertion * Cough * Orthopnea * Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) * Crackles/Rales on auscultation ## Footnote These symptoms are indicative of fluid accumulation in the lungs.
230
Describe the pathophysiology of right-sided heart failure.
Right ventricle does not pump blood out effectively, leading to reduced cardiac output and back up in the systemic circulation.
231
What are the clinical characteristics of right-sided heart failure?
Clinical manifestations include: * Congestive hepatomegaly * Ascites * Systemic venous congestion * Pitting edema in legs * Extended jugular veins ## Footnote These symptoms are due to increased pressure in the venous system.
232
What is biventricular CHF?
A condition where both the right and left sides of the heart are in failure.
233
What diagnostic methods are used for heart failure?
Diagnosis can include: * Blood work * Electrocardiogram (ECG) * Echocardiogram * Stress test ## Footnote These tests help assess heart function and structure.
234
Define cardiomyopathy.
Cardiac muscle diseases that can be primary (confined to myocardium) or secondary (manifestation of systemic disorder).
235
Identify the three classifications of cardiomyopathy.
Cardiomyopathy is classified into: * Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) * Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) * Restrictive cardiomyopathy ## Footnote Each type has distinct characteristics and implications.
236
Describe the pathophysiology of ventricular hypertrophy.
Characterized by myocardial hypertrophy, defective diastolic filling, and ventricular outflow obstruction, leading to reduced stroke volume.
237
True or False: Left-sided heart failure leads to pitting edema.
True.
238
True or False: Ventricular cardiac hypertrophy can lead to heart failure.
True.
239
True or False: Left-sided heart failure can lead to right-sided heart failure.
True.
240
Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is associated with left-sided heart failure B. Cardiac hypertrophy eventually leads to a decrease in end-diastolic volume (EDV) and stroke volume (SV) C. Bicuspid valve stenosis can cause left-sided ventricular hypertrophy D. Right-sided heart failure leads to pitting edema
C.
241
What is congenital heart disease?
Abnormalities of the heart or great vessels that are present at birth ## Footnote Accounts for 20% to 30% of all birth defects
242
What are the three classifications of congenital heart disease?
* Malformations causing a left-to-right shunt * Malformations causing a right-to-left shunt * Malformations causing obstruction
243
What is a left-to-right shunt?
A congenital heart defect where oxygenated blood flows abnormally from the systemic side of the heart back into the pulmonary circulation ## Footnote Leads to increased pulmonary volume and pressure
244
What is a right-to-left shunt?
Congenital defects where oxygen-poor blood bypasses the lungs and flows directly into systemic circulation ## Footnote Distinguished by early cyanosis
245
What are the clinical characteristics of left-to-right shunts?
Commonly not associated with acute cyanosis ## Footnote Includes conditions like atrial septal defects and ventricular septal defects
246
What are the clinical manifestations of right-to-left shunts?
Early cyanosis due to poorly oxygenated blood from the right side of the heart flowing into arterial circulation ## Footnote Conditions include Tetralogy of Fallot and Transposition of the great vessels
247
What is an atrial septal defect (ASD)?
An abnormal fixed opening in the atrial septum that allows unrestricted blood flow between the atrial chambers
248
What is a ventricular septal defect (VSD)?
A defect that allows left-to-right shunting from the left ventricle to the right ventricle ## Footnote Most common congenital cardiac anomaly at birth
249
What is a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?
Occurs when the ductus arteriosus doesn’t close, potentially leading to heart failure and cyanosis
250
Why do right-to-left shunts lead to cyanosis?
Because deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart flows directly into the systemic circulation
251
What are the four cardinal clinical manifestations of Tetralogy of Fallot?
* Pulmonary valve stenosis * Right ventricular hypertrophy * Overriding aorta * Ventricular septum defect (VSD)
252
What is Transposition of the Great Arteries?
A condition where the aorta and pulmonary artery are switched, leading to cyanosis ## Footnote Detected prenatally or shortly after birth
253
True or False: Left-to-right shunts lead to cyanosis.
False
254
True or False: Atrial septal defects are the most common congenital cardiac anomalies.
True
255
Fill in the blank: __________ is a common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease.
Tetralogy of Fallot
256
What is the significance of the ductus arteriosus in fetal circulation?
It allows blood to bypass the fetus's lungs before birth
257
What is congenital heart disease?
Abnormalities of the heart or great vessels that are present at birth ## Footnote Accounts for 20% to 30% of all birth defects
258
What are the three classifications of congenital heart disease?
* Malformations causing a left-to-right shunt * Malformations causing a right-to-left shunt * Malformations causing obstruction
259
What is a left-to-right shunt?
A congenital heart defect where oxygenated blood flows abnormally from the systemic side of the heart back into the pulmonary circulation ## Footnote Leads to increased pulmonary volume and pressure
260
What is a right-to-left shunt?
Congenital defects where oxygen-poor blood bypasses the lungs and flows directly into systemic circulation ## Footnote Distinguished by early cyanosis
261
What are the clinical characteristics of left-to-right shunts?
Commonly not associated with acute cyanosis ## Footnote Includes conditions like atrial septal defects and ventricular septal defects
262
What are the clinical manifestations of right-to-left shunts?
Early cyanosis due to poorly oxygenated blood from the right side of the heart flowing into arterial circulation ## Footnote Conditions include Tetralogy of Fallot and Transposition of the great vessels
263
What is an atrial septal defect (ASD)?
An abnormal fixed opening in the atrial septum that allows unrestricted blood flow between the atrial chambers
264
What is a ventricular septal defect (VSD)?
A defect that allows left-to-right shunting from the left ventricle to the right ventricle ## Footnote Most common congenital cardiac anomaly at birth
265
What is a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?
Occurs when the ductus arteriosus doesn’t close, potentially leading to heart failure and cyanosis
266
Why do right-to-left shunts lead to cyanosis?
Because deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart flows directly into the systemic circulation
267
What are the four cardinal clinical manifestations of Tetralogy of Fallot?
* Pulmonary valve stenosis * Right ventricular hypertrophy * Overriding aorta * Ventricular septum defect (VSD)
268
What is Transposition of the Great Arteries?
A condition where the aorta and pulmonary artery are switched, leading to cyanosis ## Footnote Detected prenatally or shortly after birth
269
True or False: Left-to-right shunts lead to cyanosis.
False
270
True or False: Atrial septal defects are the most common congenital cardiac anomalies.
True
271
Fill in the blank: __________ is a common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease.
Tetralogy of Fallot
272
What is the significance of the ductus arteriosus in fetal circulation?
It allows blood to bypass the fetus's lungs before birth