Module 2 - Planning, Construction, Environmental Flashcards
(431 cards)
1
Q
The Air Traffic Control (ATC) system is seeing a significant change due to use of ___________.
A
GPS
2
Q
The ___________ is a 5-year plan updated and published by the FAA every 2 years; listing public-use airports eligible for federal funding.
A
National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS)
3
Q
_____________ provide more detailed guidance on how the airports within the state can be developed to better meet state’s aviation needs.
A
State aviation system plans
4
Q
_____________ are more specific and narrower in focus and often take into account airport capacity, intermodal access, and traveler type.
A
Metropolitan (or regional) aviation system plans
5
Q
List 3 primary areas of airport.
A
- Landside 2. Terminal 3. Airside
6
Q
___________ includes the runways, taxiways, and aircraft parking areas within the perimeter fence.
A
Airside
7
Q
What grant assurance requires the sponsor to keep ALP updated at all times?
A
29
8
Q
What is a graphical representation of existing and proposed airport land, terminal, other facilities, protection zones, and approach areas?
A
ALP
9
Q
List 5 primary functions of ALP.
A
- FAA-approved plan necessary for AIP funding
- blueprint for development
- public document, for community reference
- enables agencies to plan
- working tool for staff
10
Q
Notification of construction or alteration on an airport is provided on FAA Standard ____________.
A
Form SF-7460-1
11
Q
Notification of the activation or alteration of a landing area is provided on FAA Standard ___________.
A
Form SF-7480-1
12
Q
What is the inventory of airport projects in NPIAS, highlighting projects over 3-year funding cycle?
A
Airport Capital Improvement Plan (ACIP)
13
Q
List 3 items that Grant Assurances specifically require up-to-date.
A
- property lines
- existing and proposed facilities
- existing and proposed non-aviation areas
14
Q
The FAA now uses electronic ALP web-based system, that links features on map with ____________, allowing data to be shared in an integrated environment.
A
GIS
15
Q
The ALP’s ___________ includes approval signature blocks, airport location maps, and other data.
A
Cover sheet
16
Q
The ___________ contains tremendous amount of data including exiting and future airfield, facilities, safety areas, and property lines.
A
ALP sheet
17
Q
The __________ contains airport and runway data tables and wind rose (wind direction diagram).
A
Data sheet
18
Q
The ___________ depicts existing and future facilities.
A
Facilities layout plan
19
Q
The ___________ depicts the airport terminal and surrounding facilities.
A
Terminal area plan
20
Q
The ___________ are required elements and show all imaginary surfaces identified in Part 77.
A
Airport airspace drawings
21
Q
The ____________ include a profile view of all runway approaches and location of objects as they affect the approach; TERPS surfaces.
A
Inner portions of the approach surface drawing
22
Q
The _________ and _____________ depict existing and recommended uses of all land within the ultimate property line and within vicinity of airport (at least 65 DNL noise contour).
A
On-airport
Off-airport land use drawings
23
Q
The airport property map depicts how various tracts of land were acquired; often termed ____________ on AIP grant applications; identifies legal interest and ownership of land.
A
Exhibit A
24
Q
The __________ depict major routes and modes of transportation that serve the airport.
A
Airport access plans
25
ALPs must be submitted to FAA ______________ for approval.
Airport District Office ADO
26
List 3 conditions for ALP Approval by FAA.
1. Safe - meets design standards
2. Useful - best use of airport land
3. Efficient - planned capacity sufficient for demand
27
“Mixed Approval” means that some near-term projects depicted in the ALP have completed required _________ reviews while long-term projects have not.
NEPA
28
Airport operators are required to complete the Airport Data Record on annual basis via _________, identifying changes to airport.
5010 Form
29
What describes the basic operational and services data of airport and achieves communication of airport data and information program?
Airport Master Record
30
What requires keeping the FAA informed on airport construction?
CFR Part 157
31
The FAA updates aeronautical charts and the __________, which pilots use as reference when flying into/out of an airport.
Airport Facility Directory (A/FD)
32
Changes to airport that result in a __________ , which may become permanent can be listed in the 5010 and __________ cancelled.
Notice to Airman (NOTAM)
33
The FAA's __________ guides Airport Sponsors on collection, submission, and management of airport data and information, ensuring users have current information.
Airport Data and Information Program
34
___________ planning identifies general location and characteristics of new airports and the expansion needs of existing facilities to meet statewide goals.
Statewide integrated airport systems
35
___________ planning identifies airport needs for large regional/metropolitan areas; in general terms and incorporated into statewide plans.
Regional/metropolitan integrated airport systems
36
___________ are prepared by the owner/operators of individual airports, usually with the assistance of consultants; detail long-range plans of individual airport.
Airport Master Plans
37
What sets requirements of NPIAS, and processes to apply for, receive, and implement the funds from gran?
Part 151, Federal Aid to Airports
38
What was developed after Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970 and further expanded Part 151 requirements?
Part 152, Airport Aid Program
39
List 9 guidelines for Airport System to meet demand.
1. safe/efficient, optimum sites, standards
2. affordable
3. flexible, expandable
4. permanent
5. compatible with communities
6. developed in concert with ATC
7. support national objectives
8. extensive, convenient access
9. productive national economy
40
List 3 general categories of work in NPIAS.
1. Purpose (safety, capacity, etc.)
2. Physical component (runway, taxiway, etc.)
3. Type of work
41
A ______________, or a _____________ recommends the general location and characteristics of new airports and the nature of development and expansion for existing airports.
Metropolitan Airport System Plan (MASP)
| State Aviation System Plan
42
What plan identifies principal role of each airport in the area and forecasts proposed future activities, allowing entities to provide input on the comprehensive planning efforts?
SASP/MASP
43
The Airport ____________ is the primary document used at airports for long-range planning, representing vision of airport and development for up to 20-yr.
Master Plan
44
The __________ is to provide a framework to guide future airport development that is cost-effective and satisfies needs of airport, market, and community.
Master Plan
45
List 5 items master plan process is intended to produce.
1. technical report
2. summary report
3. updated ALP
4. webpage 9 (about airport and key elements)
5. public information kit
46
_________ the Master Plan means FAA has reviewed elements to ensure sound planning techniques have been applied.
"Accepting"
47
The FAA _________ the Forecast and ALP.
"Approves"
48
Demand forecasts must resolve any inconsistency between forecasted levels and __________ produced by FAA.
Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF)
49
"Guidelines to Selecting Airport Consultants", published by _________, provides guidance on consultant selection.
Airport Consultants Council (ACC)
50
What governs the consultant selection process, requiring an equivalent qualification-based process?
Brooks Act
51
List 3 items Sponsors request in Consultant Selection.
1. SOQs
2. RFQs
3. RFPs
52
The local ADO should be consulted to determine the appropriate time to begin consultant selection process if a ___________ or ___________ is anticipated.
```
Environmental assessment (EA)
Environmental impact statement (EIS)
```
53
What type of agreement is preferable and often used for Master Planning projects?
Fixed-price contract
54
If level of effort or project duration is uncertain, a _________, or time and materials, may be necessary.
Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
55
List 8 specific topics in Scoping a Master Plan
1. Goals and objectives
2. Data availability
3. Forecast horizons
4. Environmental considerations
5. Schedules
6. Deliverables
7. Coordination and public involvement program
8. Budget
56
What is essential to a successful Master Plan process?
Public awareness campaign (outreach)
57
What committees facilitate public involvement (in outreach)?
Technical Advisory Committee
| Citizen's Advisory Committee
58
What format of public meetings is very effective to engage the public and stakeholders throughout the planning process?
Open House
59
Planners should recognize the need to ____________ between the manmade and natural environment.
Achieve a balance
60
What is the part of the MP where all types of pertinent data is collected, including a historical review, airspace structures, navigation aids, airport-related land use, aeronautical activity, and socioeconomic factors?
Existing conditions (Inventory)
61
_____________ include demography, per capita income, economic activity, geographic factors, political factors, and community values.
Socioeconomic factors
62
List the 8 typical elements of Existing Conditions (MP).
1. airfield/airspace
2. commercial passenger terminal facilities
3. general aviation facilities
4. cargo facilities
5. support facilities
6. access, circulation, and parking
7. utilities
8. non-aeronautical facilities
63
List 7 Forecast Sources (MP).
1. terminal area forecast
2. historical data
3. national aerospace forecasts
4. FAA long-range aerospace forecast
5. state aviation plans
6. Official Airline Guide (OAG)
7. Form 5010
64
A ____________ is defined as a takeoff or a landing at an airport, includes “touch and go” .
Aircraft operation
65
_____________ are arrivals and departures of aircraft that operate in local traffic pattern (flight training) or within sight of tower.
Local operations
66
A forecast of ____________ is needed for planning or upgrading navigational aids and landing systems.
Annual Instrument Approaches
67
___________ are arrivals and departures other than the local operations (for air carriers, commuters, air taxi, GA).
Itinerant operations
68
_____________ are the total number of paying passengers who are departing on commercial aircraft.
Enplaned passengers
69
_____________ includes total tonnage of priority, non-priority, foreign mail, express, and freight departing on aircraft, to include originations, stopovers, and transfer.
Enplaned air cargo
70
___________ refers to the categories of aircraft.
Aircraft mix
71
List the 5 Factors affecting Demand Forecasts.
1. Economic Characteristics
2. Demographic Characteristics
3. Geographical Attributes
4. Aviation Related Factors
5. Other Factors
72
Fuel price fluctuations, changes in regulatory environment, types of taxes, fees, industry trends, and new marketing agreements are examples of ___________.
Aviation Related Factors
73
A region's physical and climatic qualities that generate tourism or when an airlines intends to establish a hub or new destinations, are examples of __________.
Geographical Attributes
74
Manufacturing, service industries, primary and resource businesses, instructional flying, and aircraft sales in a community are examples of __________.
Economic Characteristics
75
Actions local airport authorities make, types of ground access services, user charges, and plans for future development are examples of __________.
Other Factors
76
List the 4 most common Forecast Techniques.
1. Regression analysis
2. Trend analysis and extrapolation
3. Market share analysis
4. Smoothing
77
What is a technique that assumes a top-down relationship among national, regional, state, and local forecasts (local is share of national forecasts)?
Market Share Analysis
78
What is a statistical technique applied to historical data focused more on recent trends and conditions?
Smoothing
79
What is a statistical technique tying aviation demand to enplanements, population, and income levels?
Regression Analysis
80
A facility requirements analysis is also known as a _____________.
Gap analysis
81
The following (6) are examples of _____________?
- Airfield and airspace,
- Commercial Service Terminal
- General Aviation Requirements
- Air Cargo Requirements
- Support Facilities
- Ground Access, Circulation, and Parking
Facility Requirements
82
What helps planners prepare for meetings with TSA representatives and develop security facilities?
Transportation Security Regulations (TSRs)
83
_____________must also be taken into consideration in terminal space planning; often based on peak hr of avg day of peak month.
Design hour demand
84
The implementation plan suggests projects to include in the future Capital Improvement Plan, also referred to as ____________ .
Transportation Improvement Plan (TIP)
85
The _____________explains how to implement findings and recommendations of master planning effort, often fused with financial feasibility analysis.
Facilities Implementation Plan
86
Sponsor-specific project approvals, environmental processing activities, land acquisition, airline approvals, agency coordination are key activities listed in the ____________ .
Facilities Implementation Plan
87
____________ includes a CIP funding plan, a review of the airport’s financial structure, and analysis of historical cash flow.
Financial Feasibility Analysis
88
The selected Aircraft Approach Category (AAC), Airplane Design Group (ADG), and approach visibility minimums are combined to form the ____________ .
Runway Design Code (RDC)
89
The ____________ relates to the undercarriage dimensions of the aircraft, width and fillet standards, and runway/taxiway separation.
Taxiway Design Group (TDG)
90
As aircraft negotiates through turns on taxiways that are designed for cockpit over centerline taxiing, the main gear requires additional pavement in the form of fillets to maintain ____________.
Taxiway Edge Safety Margin (TESM)
91
The ____________ for purposes of airport geometric design is a composite aircraft representing a collection of aircraft by 3 parameters: AAC, ADG, and TDG.
Design Aircraft
92
The ____________ for purposes of airport geometric design is a composite aircraft representing a collection of aircraft by 3 parameters: Aircraft Approach Category (AAC), Airplane Design Group (ADG), and Taxiway Design Group (TDG).
Design Aircraft
93
____________ is where aircraft takeoff, land, taxi, park, receive service (i.e. fuel and maintenance), and essentially conduct flight-related operations.
Airside
94
The design aircraft is typically the largest air carrier aircraft or the largest ____________ aircraft using airport more than 500 times annually.
Transient
95
What airfield areas include runways, taxiways, and other areas used for taxiing, takeoff, and aircraft landing?
Movement Areas
96
What airfield areas include loading ramps, parking aprons, unpaved areas, or other areas precluded from air carrier aircraft using?
Non-movement Areas
97
Airports with a ____________ must delineate which are Movement and Non-movement areas.
Air Traffic Control Towers
98
The Movement Area corresponds to areas under control of ATCT and other areas as specified through _____________or _____________.
Letters of Agreement (LOA)
| Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
99
What defines the standards and conditions of the Movement Area for air carrier aircraft?
Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
100
The term __________ is a security term that includes all portions of airport designed and used for aircraft landing, taking off, and surface maneuvering.
Air Operations Areas (AOA)
101
List the 3 basic types of aircraft approach runways.
1. visual
2. non-precision
3. precision
102
Substantial use (for design aircraft) means ____________ or largest scheduled commercial services aircraft.
>= 500 annual itinerant operations
103
What signifies the design standards to which the runway is to be built?
Runway Design Code (RDC)
104
What is the first component,related to the speed of design aircraft?
Aircraft approach category (AAC)
105
What is the second component, that relates to either aircraft wingspan or tail height?
Airplane Design Group (ADG)
106
What is the third component that relates to visibility minimums?
RVR values
107
The ____________ is a designation that signifies the airport’s highest Runway Design Code minus the visibility component.
Airport Reference Code (ARC)
108
List the 4 basic Runway Configurations.
1. single
2. open-V
3. parallel
4. intersecting
109
What is a disadvantage of open-V runways?
Operations reduced when takeoffs and landings made toward closer ends
110
______________ is the best runway configuration for strong prevailing winds that change over the year and provides relatively large capacity.
Intersecting
111
A ____________ is the beginning portion that is available for landing or takeoff.
Runway Threshold
112
A ____________ is located some distance down the runway, required (1) an object obstructs airspace for landing aircraft (2) environmental considerations (3) to provide RSA or ROFZ lengths.
Displaced Threshold
113
A ____________ is a defined area comprising either a runway or a taxiway and the surrounding surfaces, areas that are prepared for reducing the risk of damage to airplanes in the event of an unintentional departure from runway; "landing strip" used in definition.
Runway Safety Area (RSA)
114
What is the total width (range) of Runway Safety Areas?
120 to 500 feet
115
What is the total width (range) of Taxiway safety areas?
49 to 262 feet
116
Consisting of a soft ground arrester system, ____________ is used to reduce the severity of airport accidents and incidents by improving overrun areas.
Engineered Material Arresting System (EMAS)
117
The ___________ is a trapezoidal-shaped area located off the runway ends, designed to enhance the protection of people and property on the ground.
Runway Protection Zone (RPZ)
118
The ___________ is a ground area based on runway, taxiway, or taxilane centerline that enhances safety of aircraft.
Object-Free Area (OFA)
119
The ___________ is the airspace above the runway elevation at any point, but below the 150-foot floor of the horizontal surface area under Part 77.
Obstacle-Free Zone (OFZ)
120
The ___________ is shown on the ALP and identifies suitable building area locations on airports; assumed building height usually 35-ft.
Building Restriction Line (BRL)
121
__________ refer to the distances the airport declares available for a turbine-powered aircraft’s takeoff run, takeoff distance, accelerate-stop distance, and landing distance.
Declared Distances
122
Take-Off Run Available (TORA), Take-Off Distance Available (TODA), Accelerate-stop Distance Available (ASDA), Landing Distance Available (LDA) are ____________.
Declared Distances
123
To increase safety using intersecting runways when buildings block visibility of aircraft on other runways, the FAA requires ____________.
Runway Visibility Zones (RVZ)
124
The airport ____________is the highest point on an airport’s usable runway (in feet AMSL).
Elevation
125
The ____________ is the latitude and longitude of the geometric center of the airport’s runways.
Airport Reference Point (ARP)
126
____________ differ based on designation.
Maximum takeoff weights
127
A large airplane is certificated for maximum takeoff weights of ____________ pounds.
More than 12,500
128
A ____________ is the area beyond the departure end of the runway used to support and minimize damage to an airplane in an overrun.
Stopway
129
A ____________ is a rectangular area off the departure end of a runway used in calculating aircraft takeoff performance.
Clearway
130
Several factors including aircraft width, undercarriage dimensions, main gear width, and taxilane/taxiway separations, comprise the ____________ .
Taxiway Design Group (TDG)
131
A ___________ is a portion of a ramp used for access between taxiways and aircraft parking positions; not typically part of Movement Area.
Taxilane
132
___________ is the required distance between a taxiway/taxilane centerline and objects, determined by ADG wingtip clearance.
Taxiway separations
133
List 3 types of Aprons.
1. Terminal (pax and cargo)
2. Remote
3. Hangar
134
What type of apron do passengers board and deplane from an aircraft, and aircraft servicing activities?
Passenger terminal aprons
135
Remote aprons are located in an area where aircraft can be secured and stored for long periods of time; accommodate __________ airline or corporate traffic.
Remain-Over-Night (RON)
136
___________ is the surface in front of an aircraft hangar that accommodates aircraft movement.
Hangar aprons
137
Parked aircraft must remain clear of the _________ of runways/taxiways, and no parked aircraft should penetrate protected surfaces.
OFAs
138
The __________ is the amount of time an airplane occupies the gate; typically a gate is used 50-80% of the time.
Gate occupancy time
139
__________ are visual aids located on the side of a terminal building, to be viewed from the pilot’s perspective as they approach the parking location.
Stand guidance systems
140
A ___________ accommodates helicopters used by individuals, corporations, and helicopter air taxi services.
GA heliport
141
A __________ is intended to accommodate air carrier operators providing scheduled service or unscheduled service with large helicopters
Transport heliport
142
A __________ is limited to serving helicopters engaged in air ambulance, or other hospital related functions.
Hospital heliport
143
What reflects the max weight, max contact load/min contact area, overall length, rotor diameter, and other factors of expected helicopters?
Design Helicopter
144
What is a load bearing, paved area, on which the helicopter lands or takes off?
Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF)
145
What is a defined area over which final phase of approach to a hover or landing is completed and takeoff is initiated?
Final Approach and Takeoff Area (FATO)
146
A __________ is an area of water that is used, or is intended to be used, for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, with buildings and facilities on shore.
Seaplane Base
147
What are conventional land airplanes fitted with separate floats in place of wheels?
Seaplanes
148
For a ____________, the bottom of the fuselage is its main landing gear, usually have smaller wing/tip floats.
Flying boat
149
____________ are flying boats and floatplanes equipped with retractable wheels for landing on dry land.
Amphibians
150
A ____________ is the defined path, which is prescribed for the landing and takeoff run of aircraft in bodies of water.
Sea-lane
151
The __________ is charged with marking and lighting navigable waterways.
U.S. Coast Guard
152
What does FAA require for seaplane base development financed with federal funds?
Seaplane Base Layout Plan (SBLP)
153
What facility is designed for UAVs, with no defined design standards, but expected to have runways, hangars with office buildings, and command and control center?
Drone airport
154
What addresses the development of criteria for parachute landing areas on airpors?
AC 150/5300-13A Change 1 Airport Design
155
The first phase of a construction project, __________, is used to discuss critical design parameters, safety, construction phasing, and environmental considerations.
Predesign Conference
156
For large projects, projects with unique features, or to meet local procurement requirements the next step after Predesign is _____________; will explain contract requirements and procurement process.
Pre-bid Conference
157
The _____________ is conducted by Sponsor or authorized agent, to discuss critical project issues such as contract requirements, operational safety, phasing, airport security, labor req, and other pertinent matters.
Preconstruction Conference
158
What is a written order by Sponsor to make a change in the design, drawings, or specs within general scope of contract?
Change orders
159
A _____________ covers work that is not within the general scope of the existing contract or is work that exceeds the 25% of contract cost.
Supplemental agreement
160
Who has the ultimate responsibility for operational safety during construction (and implementing construction safety plan)?
Airport operator
161
What plans depict the final construction projects?
"As constructed" or "as-built"
162
What FAA form is required to be filed when an approved construction or alteration is completed?
7460-2 Notice of Actual Construction or Alteration
163
_____________ Safe, Efficient Use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace provides regulations on managing objects that may interfere with aircraft flying in airport area.
FAA Part 77
164
Under P77, an _____________ is defined as any natural growth, terrain, permanent or temporary construction or alteration (equipment or materials), and apparatus of permanent/temporary character.
Object
165
The ____________ area is centered on the runway centerline and extends 200-ft past the runway end.
Primary surface
166
The ____________ extend outward and upward at right angles to runway centerline and runway centerline extended at a slope of 7:1 from the sides of the primary surface and approach surfaces.
Transitional surfaces
167
The ____________ start 200-ft from runway end and extend outward from the primary surface for a distance of up to 50,000-ft in the case of precision instrument runways.
Approach surfaces
168
The ____________ area of P77 is a level plane 150-ft above runway elevation; for the safe operation and maneuvering of aircraft that are performing circle-to-land or missed approaches.
Horizontal surface
169
The ____________ starts at the perimeter of horizontal surface and continues upward at slope of 20:1 for a horizontal distance of 4,000-ft.
Conical surfaces
170
What does the FAA conduct after receiving notice of proposed construction, in order to analyze effect on airport access and aircraft operation?
Part 77 study
171
What do airport operators have to submit to FAA for proposed construction or alteration (Part 77 requirement)?
Form 7460-1
172
The ____________ begins and ends with intermodal connections to community that surround airport; includes parking, curb frontage, public transit, pedestrian walkways.
Access interface
173
The ___________ system includes airline ticketing, bag claim areas, flight information displays, concessions, lobby, and other areas passengers don't typically see.
Passenger processing
174
The ___________ includes concourses and connections to other concourses to accommodate transfer pax, lounge areas, pax-boarding devices, and airline operational and administrative spaces.
Flight interface
175
Close-in parking, quick curbside checking, adequate queuing, short walking distances, protection from weather, convenient restrooms, available concessions, and easy bag claim are examples of ___________.
Passenger convenience
176
Cost of heating, cooling, lighting, cleaning, maintenance of terminals, utility services, security and other needed services are examples of ___________.
Airport operating efficiencies
177
In the event of major terminal redevelopment, or new facility that will increase the capacity, the __________ approval process requires an environmental determination.
ALP
178
List 4 sources for Activity Forecasts (terminal planning).
1. Master Plan
2. FAA TAF
3. Forecasts developed by Airlines for America (A4A)
4. Forecasts developed by individual airlines
179
What is the heaviest activity concentration at certain times of the day based on elapsed hour?
Peak hour demand
180
List 4 audiences in Terminal Design.
1. passengers
2. airlines
3. airport operators
4. community
181
_________ desire convenient access, personal comforts, minimal walking distances, entertainment, effective signs,sufficient close-in parking, and rental car facilities.
Passengers
182
_________ desire accommodation of existing and future fleets, efficient means of passenger and baggage flow, and provisions for efficient and effective security.
Airlines
183
_________ are focused on maintenance issues, HVAC cost, and providing facilities that generate revenue from concessionaires and other sources.
Airport operators
184
_________ desires the airport provide a positive image, harmony with architectural elements of terminal complex, and coordination with the intermodal transportation systems.
Community
185
What kind of passenger desires business centers, close-in rental car access, short distances to boarding, and travel clubs?
Business travelers
186
What kind of passenger desires curbside check-in, less expensive parking, and seating areas?
Leisure travelers
187
What passenger requires space for processing of FIS such as customs and immigration, and separate pax holding and security, duty-free stores, and currency exchanges?
International passengers
188
List 2 measures for Terminal Sizing.
1. annual passenger volume - size of terminal building
| 2. peak hour is hourly design volume - terminal design
189
What type of airport sees 70-90% of passengers begin or end their travel at the airport and require max handling services for checking and claiming bags, as well as ground transportation?
Origination/Destination (O&D)
190
What type of airport have 50% or more of enplaning passengers transferring to another flight, requiring more space for bag transfers, concessions and public services, and centralized security locations?
Transfer (connecting) airports
191
What type of airport experiences lower levels of activity, parking, curb, and holdrooms? Often have EAS flights and passengers remaining on aircraft.
Through airports
192
___________ refers to the difference sizes (seats), types (turbojet, 4-engine, etc), styles (wide/narrow body) of aircraft.
Aircraft mix
193
The__________ consists of facilities necessary for handling passengers as they move through the terminal towards the flight interface.
Passenger processing system
194
List 3 types of ticket and bag check-in facilities.
1. linear
2. pass-through
3. island.
195
The September 11 attacks, emerging threats, and risk-based security measures have changed space planning for ___________.
Security screening checkpoints
196
____________ serve as an assembly area for passengers waiting to board a flight and exit for deplaning passengers.
Departure lounges
197
The ___________ should be located near the terminal curb for passengers that are departing the airport.
Baggage claim area
198
List 7 types of Terminal Layouts.
1. simple
2. linear
3. curvilinear
4. unit-terminal
5. combined-unit
6. multiple-unit
7. Hybrid
199
What design is a lengthened simple building?
Linear
200
What design was used for limited space?
Curvilinear
201
What design was used with multiple tenants and high-capacity?
Unit-terminal
202
What design is when multiple airlines share a common building?
Combined-unit terminal
203
What design uses separate buildings for each airline, resulting in each building as its own terminal?
Multiple-unit terminal
204
The unit-terminal represented a move from __________ terminal process, to separate buildings, and eventually to a __________ process.
Centralized
| Decentralized
205
___________ airport designs can be found at DEN, ATL, and MCO Airports, to name a few.
Decentralized
206
___________ terminal layouts result from modifying an existing facility or building that no longer meets needs of stakeholders; combining decentralized and centralized facilities.
Hybrid
207
List 5 terminal building design concepts.
1. simple
2. pier finger
3. satellite
4. linear
5. transporter
208
What helped with connecting airfield concourses to terminal building?
Automated people movers (APMs)
209
What is the most fundamental gate arrival concept, often used at non-hub and smaller airports?
Simple
210
What terminals are simple terminals that have been lengthened to accommodate more aircraft?
Linear
211
What concept allows for centralization of passenger processes while retaining airline-operating efficiencies, with piers allowing aircraft to park along their length?
Pier fingers
212
A ___________ terminal has gates located at the ends of long concourses or connected by APMs rather than being spaced along the pier concourse.
Satellite
213
What concept allows an aircraft to be remotely parked on a hard-stand and allows for safer aircraft maneuvering? (Dulles Airport)
Mobile lounge or transporter
214
__________ includes buildings, equipment, technology services, and infrastructure shared by more than one tenant or airline; reduces expenses and more efficient use of space.
Common-use Terminal Equipment (CUTE)
215
Effective wayfinding, including access roads, parking areas, curbside, and terminal experience, begins with ____________.
Airport layout
216
List 6 elements of Effective Wayfinding.
1. conspicuous
2. concise
3. comprehensible
4. legible
5. location
217
What usually includes immigration, customs, agriculture, and public health facilities for international passengers?
Federal Inspection Services (FIS)
218
_____________ FIS system is employed at most airports, providing separate immigration and custom checkpoints.
Custom Accelerated Passenger Inspection Service (CAPIS)
219
___________ FIS system allows travelers who do not have goods to declare to be separate from those who do, with latter passing through secondary inspection.
"Red-green"
220
___________ FIS system combines immigration and custom functions at a single station.
"One stop"
221
___________ are where customs and immigration process is conducted at point of origin.
Pre-clearance operations
222
What is the primary objective of Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting (ARFF)?
Save lives - minimizing catastrophic effects of accident
223
Where is Snow Removal Equipment (SRE) building located?
Direct and convenient access to airport operational area
224
What law requires that any public or private entity that provides public accommodations must (1) ensure new facilities do not restrict use by individuals with disabilities (2) ensuring existing facilities are altered to be readily accessible (3) afford communication by the disabled?
Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
225
The DOT has adopted ____________ to ensure that buildings, facilities, and vehicles are accessible to individuals with disabilities in terms of architecture and design, transportation, and communication.
Americans with Disabilities Act Accessibility Guidelines (ADAAG)
226
Places of public accommodation located within airports, such as restaurants, shops, lounges, or conference centers are covered by ____________ .
ADA
227
The FAA ___________ is designed to ensure that operators meet regulatory ADA requirements, all travelers have access to services/programs, and increasing awareness of accessible air travel.
Airport Disability Program (ADCP)
228
The FAA meeting ____________ obligations reduces delays in construction projects.
NEPA
229
What law requires an EA or EIS for certain projects?
Airport and Airway Improvement Act (AAIA)
230
The __________ includes efforts to comply with NEPA and other federal laws, regulations, and DOT orders applicable to a proposed project.
Environmental review process
231
___________ means all items of proposed development requiring environmental processing have received environmental approval.
Unconditional Approval
232
___________ means that some near-term projects in ALP have completed NEPA reviews while long-term projects have not.
Mixed Approval
233
Sponsors should request approval from FAA's __________ for actions affecting environment.
Office of Airports
234
NEPA requires each agency to disclose to public, a clear, accurate description of potential environmental impacts that proposed __________ would cause.
Federal actions
235
ALP approvals, federal funding requets, AIP funded maintenance, and PFC approvals are ____________ (environmental requirements).
Federal actions
236
List 3 categories of (NEPA) environmental action.
1. Categorical Exclusion
2. Environmental Assessment
3. Environmental Impact Statement
237
A project would no environmental impact expected would require a ___________.
Categorical Exclusion (CATEX)
238
Less complex projects, with little to no impact expected, would require a ___________.
Environmental Assessment (EA)
239
____________ identifies the effects a project might have on surrounding locations, describes and discusses the significant impacts of proposed action, and the impacts of alternatives.
Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)
240
Air quality, archaeological, biotic communities, coastal resources, compatible land use, construction impacts, endangered species, energy supply + natural resources, environmental justice, are 9 of the 28 _____________ to consider.
CATEX environmental resource areas
241
The FAA determines ____________ as those situations in which a normally categorically excluded action may cause significant adverse environmental impacts.
Extraordinary circumstances
242
What is defined as a significant noise level impact?
>= DNL 1.5dB, within 65 DNL noise contour
243
Whether the project will, when viewed with other planned actions, have significant impacts are ___________.
Cumulative actions
244
A proposed federal action is considered ___________ when an action is opposed on environmental grounds by a government, or by a substantial number of affected persons.
Highly controversial
245
Certain projects, such as those affecting air quality, coastal zones, and compatible land use, may or may not involve ____________.
Significance Thresholds
246
On the basis of the results reported in an EA, if the impacts are not significant, then reviewing agency prepares a ____________.
Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI)
247
The FAA may issue a FONSI with a _____________ to address circumstances relevant to mitigation actions or highly controversial actions.
Record of Decision (ROD).
248
Where an EIS is required, the airport will file a _____________ with FAA for draft EIS forthcoming.
Notice of Intent (NOI)
249
Preparation of EIS for AIP projects, in accordance with NEPA, is responsibility of _____________.
FAA
250
It may be difficult for government or a private citizen to successfully prosecute the manager if a ____________ has been made to comply with the law.
Good-faith effort
251
In response to the global concern of sustaining compliance with environmental regulations and policies, airports are utilizing comprehensive ____________.
Environmental Management Systems (EMS)
252
One of the key activities for maintaining compliance is to have periodic _____________.
Environmental Audits
253
What are areas that do not meed federal air quality standards?
Nonattainment
254
Through the NAAQS, airports must confirm to _____________ and conduct an inventory of all airport emission sources.
State Implementation Plans (SIP)
255
What program offers credits for emission reductions, which airport can use to offset cost of compliance?
Voluntary Airport Low Emissions (VALE)
256
____________ discharge represents most prolific source of water pollution, with wetlands protection also a factor.
Storm water
257
Ground water is protected by requirement that only a ____________ may apply pesticides and fungicides.
Certified Applicator
258
What permit program is the means of regulatory compliance for point source discharges at airports?
National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)
259
An airport operator is required to have a ____________ as part of the permit process and identify/implement Best Management Practices (BMPs).
Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP)
260
_____________ pollution results from land runoff, precipitation, or seepage into a body of water, rather than from a specific, single location.
Non-Point Source (NPS)
261
Rehabilitation or expansion activities that disturb one or more acres on airport would require a storm water ____________ permit.
Construction
262
The following: are examples of ____________?
- good housekeeping
- inspections
- preventative maintenance program
- spill prevention + response
- personnel training + awareness
- record keeping and internal reporting system
Best Management Practices (BMPs)
263
BMP procedures should consider ____________ of products used on airfield, and hazardous materials.
Safety Data Sheets
264
____________ and Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasures are plans for contacting emergency response personnel and, in the event of a oil spill, fire, or other release, methods for containing hazardous wastes and notifying the Ntl Response Center.
Emergency Response Plan (ERP)
265
Hazardous waste materials must be tracked from ____________.
Cradle to grave (generation to disposal)
266
A substance is hazardous when listed on hazardous waste lists contained in ____________.
CFR Title 40 CFR 261
267
List 4 characteristics of Hazardous Waste.
1. ignitability - easily combustible or flammable
2. corrosive - burns skin or dissolves materials
3. reactive - unstable or reaction with other material
4. toxic - high concentration heavy metals/pesticides
268
Hazardous waste generators with > 1,000 kg of waste per month are ___________.
Large Quantity Generators (LQGs)
269
Hazardous waste generators with > 100 kg but < 1,000 kg of waste per month are ___________.
Small Quantity Generators (SQGs)
270
Hazardous waste generators with < 100 kg per month are ___________.
Conditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generators (CESQGs)
271
Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) is generally known as the ____________ for hazardous wastes.
"Superfund"
272
List the 2 purposes that the CERCLA served.
1. Potentially Responsible Parties (PRP)
| 2. Toxic waste cleanup fund
273
____________ hazardous substances generally include toxic, flammable, corrosive, or environmentally harmful substances.
Superfund
274
What is the primary communications center for reporting major chemical and oil spills or other hazardous substances?
National Response Center (NRC)
275
The _____________ Trust Fund addresses releases from federally regulated underground storage tanks (USTs).
Leaking Underground Storage Tank (LUST)
276
_____________ must meet corrosion protection requirements of cathotically-protected steel or fiberglass, fiberglass liners, or a cathodic protection system.
Underground Storage Tanks (USTs)
277
What is the primary agency responsible for nationwide enforcement of environmental regulations?
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
278
____________ covers all efforts to ensure compliance with environmental laws; causes deterrent effect and motivates compliance.
Enforcement
279
____________ refers to the condition that exists when a person or company fully obeys the law.
Compliance
280
Airport management should be aware that suits and penalties can extend to ____________ and ____________ can be held personally liable.
Employees
| Individuals
281
____________ refers to building environmental networks and communities-of-practice by stakeholders; proactive in managing environmental concerns and enhancing effectiveness.
Environmental capacity
282
What management ethic is rooted in global concern for socioeconomic policy, environmental factors, and business policy?
Sustainable development, "sustainability"
283
____________ is a certification process that verifies if a building or infrastructure meets stringent environmentally safe building and performance measures (sustainability).
Leadership in Environmental Energy and Design (LEED)
284
List 5 advantages/principles of Sustainable Development.
1. management strategy
2. proactive approach
3. improving airport profitability
4. improving partnerships, community relations
5. reduce environmental and carbon footprint
285
The Clean Airport Partnership (nonprofit) offers the ___________.
Green Airport Initiative
286
Sustainable Sites, Water Efficiency, Energy and Atmosphere, Materials Resources, Indoor Environmental Quality, and Innovation in Design are _____________.
LEED Categories
287
Reducing pollution from construction, brownfield redevelopment, and storm water control are ___________ measures.
Sustainable site
288
Reducing water use overall and more efficient use of water in landscaping are ___________ measures.
Water efficiency
289
Reducing energy output by a facility, using green power and optimizing energy performance are ___________ measures.
Energy and atmosphere
290
Recycling programs, reducing construction waste, and reuse of existing walls are ___________ measures.
Materials and resources
291
Low-emitting materials, sealants, flooring system, control of lighting, thermal comfort and daylight are ___________ measures.
Indoor environmental quality
292
___________ relates to other design measures not covered under the 5 LEED credit categories.
Innovation in design
293
___________ relates to regional environmental priorities for buildings in different regions.
Regional priority
294
___________ relates to effects of wildlife on airports and aircraft noise on migration and nesting patterns.
Biodiversity
295
Possible solutions to land use and wildlife concerns are ________ in land use planning and green spaces.
Community partnerships
296
Who administers the LEED program?
Green Building Certification Institute (GBCI)
297
What is the lowest and highest LEED ratings?
Certified (low)
| Platinum (high)
298
What airways are below 18,000-ft?
"Victor" Airways
299
What airways are above 18,000-ft?
Jet Routes
300
__________ is the sum total of all airports, navigational aids, ATC, and airspace.
National Airspace System (NAS),
301
___________ includes Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, restricted and prohibited areas.
Regulatory airspace
302
___________ includes military operations areas, warning areas, alert areas, and controlled firing areas.
Non-regulatory airspace
303
List 4 types of airspace within US within 2 categories of airspace.
1. controlled
2. uncontrolled
3. special use
4. other
304
___________ is area around major airports, although several airports may be located within its bounds; 60 miles in diameter.
Terminal airspace
305
ATCT and Terminal Radar Approach Control Facilities (TRACON) typically provide ATC services within __________ .
Terminal airspace
306
__________ is larger area of navigable airspace that covers the nation and exists between terminal airspace areas.
En route airspace
307
__________ provide air traffic services to all aircraft on an instrument flight plan within en route airspace.
Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC)
308
__________ is generic term covering that covers the different classification of airspace and defined dimensions.
Controlled Airspace
309
__________ airspace extends from 18,000-ft MSL to flight level (FL 600); must follow IFR rules; fast-moving traffic.
Class A
310
__________ airspace is from surface to 10,000-ft MSL surrounding nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or pax enplanements; ATC clearance required; configuration individually tailored.
Class B
311
__________ airspace is from surface to 4,000-ft above the airport elevation (MSL) surrounding airports with operational control tower, serviced by radar approach control tower, and certain number of operations/enplanements.
Class C
312
__________ airspace extends upward from the surface to 2,500-ft above airport elevation (MSL) surrounding airports with operational control tower; configuration individually tailored.
Class D
313
__________ (controlled areas) airspaces are corridors identified as federal airways; to provide separation of VFR and IFR traffic.
Class E
314
__________ includes all airspace that is not otherwise classified as A, B, C, or D; uncontrolled airspace.
Class G
315
__________ are controlled airspace extending out from the end of the radius of controlled airspace around Class B and C; allow for descent/ascent of IFR aircraft.
Transition Areas
316
__________ is airspace designated for certain activities, such as military, or prohibited from entry by civil aircraft; on instrument charts.
Special Use Airspace
317
List 2 methods for identifying and agreeing to ground operations at airport.
Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
| Letter of Agreement (LOA)
318
A __________ has the responsibility of managing all aircraft and vehicular activity on taxiways.
Ground Controller
319
__________ is responsible for handling arriving and departing aircraft on the active runways and within assigned airspace.
Tower Controller
320
_________ towers are staffed by airport or airline personnel; aircraft parking and push-back in non-movement.
Ramp Control
321
Non-towered airport procedures and communication practices for operating on airport are in ___________.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)
322
Air ___________ are established to maintain visual separation and provide orderliness for aircraft using airport.
Traffic Patterns
323
The ___________ of the rectangular pattern is a straight course aligned with, and leading from, the takeoff runway.
Departure leg
324
A pilot flying a straight-in approach into traffic pattern, or aborted landing while attempting to land, may be on the ___________ .
Upwind leg
325
___________ is the part of rectangular pattern perpendicular to the extended takeoff runway centerline (90° turn from upwind).
Crosswind leg
326
The ___________ is a course flown parallel to the landing runway, but in a direction opposite to landing.
Downwind leg
327
The ___________ is transitional part of traffic pattern between downwind and final approach leg.
Base leg
328
The ___________ is a descending flight path starting from the completion of the base-to-final turn and extending to touchdown.
Final approach leg
329
FAA contracts ATC services to private sector at certain VFR airports, under ___________.
Contract Tower Program
330
What did AAAE authorize to advance safety and enhances future viability of the Contract Tower Program?
U.S. Contract Tower Association (USCTA)
331
___________ provide air traffic services to all aircraft on an instrument flight plan within en route.
Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC)
332
ARTCC facilities utilize _________ to identify air traffic.
Radar
333
____________ web portal providers enable pilots to receive online preflight briefings, file flight plans, and get alerts; new FSSs.
Direct User Access Terminal Service (DUATS II)
334
____________ were air traffic facilities with functions such as pilot briefing, en route communications, relay clearances, weather, and monitor NAVAIDs.
Flight Service Stations (FSSs)
335
___________ and ___________ have been installed provide current and reliable weather information to pilots and aviation users.
Automated Surface Observations Stations (ASOS) - upgrade of AWOS w/ more measurements
Automated Weather Observation Systems (AWOS)
336
___________ requires all airports with control zones to have weather observation services.
Part 91 of FAR
337
__________ is of major concern to airlines because of its impact on net profit.
Gate Capacity
338
Who provides ATC services within terminal airspace?
ATCT
| TRACON
339
It is the responsibility of pilot to ensure ATC clearance or radio communication are met prior to entry into Class B, C, or D airspace, under _____________ requirements.
VFR
340
____________ is airspace in which flight is prohibited, typically for reasons of national security (Camp David).
Prohibited Areas
341
____________ denote airspace that may be used for hazards that are visible to aircraft, such as aerial gunnery, guided missiles, or artillery firing.
Restricted Areas
342
____________ denote airspace over international waters and extend from 3 miles beyond the shore.
Warning Areas
343
____________ separate high-speed military traffic from GA and commercial aviation traffic.
Military Operations Areas (MOAs)
344
____________ are one-way, high-speed routes for military traffic flying below 10,000 MSL.
Military Transition Routes (MTRs)
345
____________ are airspaces in which an unusual activity is taking place; advise pilots of potential conflicts.
Alert Areas
346
____________ contain activities that could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft, but the activities are immediately suspended when aircraft approaching.
Control Firing Areas (CFAs)
347
____________ consist of airspaces established at locations where increased security and safety of ground facilities is necessary.
National Security Areas
348
____________ exist around the borders of US and DC.
Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZ)
349
____________ exists over the Capitol, White House, and surrounding areas; only approved IFR flights allowed.
A Flight Restriction Zone (FRZ)
350
____________ exist at airports without control tower but have an on-field FAA FSS in operation.
Airport Advisory Areas
351
____________ are published locations where parachute activities occur.
Parachute Jump Areas
352
____________ are imposed to preclude aircraft from entering the area in which an incident occurred - natural disaster, President, Olympics, etc
Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR)
353
____________ are for transitioning around, under, or through complex airspace (Los Angeles).
Published VFR Routes
354
____________ are areas where pilots can receive additional radar services and typically overlay Class D.
Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA)
355
As aircraft departs tower controlled airspace, controllers in ____________ vector pilot out of Class B airspace and to initial flight route.
Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
356
When operating an aircraft or vehicle at airport without an ATCT, operators required to call out positions on common air traffic frequency, such a ___________ or ___________.
UNICOM
| Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF)
357
Pilots at non-towered airports use the situational awareness concept of __________.
See and avoid
358
Where are non-towered airport procedures and communication practices found?
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)
359
Who can request a contract ATCT? Even if all criteria are met, is getting one guaranteed?
Airport Sponsor
| No
360
Within a __________ are several controller positions including approach, departure, clearance delivery, and flight data.
TRACON
361
The primary function of Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) is to separate aircraft within ______________ Airspace?
En Route
362
__________ is a short-range (60 NM) radar used for identifying and separating traffic around airports.
Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR)
363
ASR is combined with ___________ for the controller to provide position information and identify aircraft.
Automated Radar Terminal Systems (ARTS)
364
___________ has longer range (100-250 NM) and is used for en route separation and identification; used at ARTCCs.
Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR)
365
___________ is a short-range radar system used by ATC to augment and confirm position reporting.
Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE)
366
___________ enables ATC to detect potential runway conflicts by providing detailed coverage of airfield movement.
ASDE-X
367
___________ activates and alerts pilots of an active runway or a potential conflict with another aircraft.
Airport Movement Area Safety System (AMASS)
368
___________ is a high-update radar coupled with a high resolution ATC display that allows more accurate tracking of inbound aircraft; parallel runways.
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM)
369
What is a restricted boundary between the 2 approach corridors?
No transgression zone
370
___________ is used by military and provides both lateral and vertical guidance.
Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
371
Radar usage is enhanced by a ___________, a beacon device installed on the aircraft to transmit position data.
Transponder
372
____________ are referenced by pilots of slow to medium-speed for cross-country navigation under Visual Meteorological Conditions.
VFR Sectional Charts
373
For ____________ , either low altitude en route charts or high altitude en route charts are used.
Instrument Meteorological Conditions
374
List 4 requirements for navigational aids.
1. integrity - system must be able to monitor itself and provide timely warnings to users
2. accuracy - true position
3. availability - providing functional navigational service whenever needed
4. reliability
375
__________ is one of earliest forms of radio navigation, for bad terrain, inexpensive, little ground space, used by GA.
Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)
376
__________ ground station transmits VHF radio signals; not greatly affected by atmosphere or terrain.
Very High Frequency (VHF) Omni-Directional Range (VOR)
377
NAVAID primarily used for instrument approaches and local navigation with range of 25 NM are __________.
Terminal VORs
378
List other VORs.
- Distance measuring equipment (DME)
| - TACAN or Tactical Air Navigation (US military)
379
Increasingly, en route navigation relies upon _________, with new approaches being developed, replacing VOR and NDB approaches.
GPS
380
GPS will be able to supply a precision approach capability when augmented by ____________ and Ground Based Augmentation System.
Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)
381
___________ is designed to enhance the capabilities of GPS signals to permit the system to be used for precision approaches.
Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)
382
___________ augments existing GPS utilized in airspace by providing corrections to aircraft in the vicinity of an airport in order to improve the accuracy and integrity; set to replace replace ILS.
Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS)
383
___________ provides both vertical and horizontal guidance along final approach to a runway.
Instrument Landing System (ILS)
384
What navaid involves a FAA-determined safe Decision Height (DH)?
Instrument Landing System (ILS)
385
What is the 1st component of ILS, providing lateral guidance for runway approaches?
Localizer (LOC)
386
__________ is a localizer used for approach to airport, but the signal does not align aircraft with runway centerline.
Localizer directional-aid (LDA)
387
__________ is 2nd component of ILS system; provides the pilot with vertical guidance (approach slope).
Glide slope
388
Located along localizer approach path at fixed distances, __________ convey distance from runway threshold.
Marker Beacon
389
List distances for ILS Marker Beacons from Runway Threshold: Outer, Middle, Inner.
OUTER: 4-7 NM from threshold
MIDDLE: 2,000 to 6,000-ft from threshold
INNER: 1,000-ft from threshold
390
What is the point at an altitude of 200-ft above Middle Marker for the approach?
Decision Height (DH)
391
What is used to determine current landing visibility (ILS categories)?
Runway Visual Range (RVR)
392
Both Category II and Category III ILS approaches require an airport to have __________ equipment.
Runway visual range (RVR)
393
___________ are newer systems using infrared projectors to replace older transmissometers - low maintenance, eliminate steel/concrete structures, and provide low (0-ft) readings.
Scatter-Effect RVR Systems
394
___________ is an air traffic function that coordinates and relays initial departure, route, and altitude information to pilot.
Clearance Delivery
395
___________ balances air traffic demand with system capacity in the National Airspace System; clearance delivery.
ATC System Command Center (ATCSCC)
396
___________ are recorded messages from the ATCT that continuously transmit airport information --> eliminates need for controllers to make repetitive announcements for basic information.
Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS)
397
List and describe the 4 ASOS categories.
Level A - major hubs or airports with severe weather
Level B - smaller hubs and worse than avg weather
Level C - augmented by tower controllers
Level D - completed automated + not augmented
398
One major component of __________ is a transition from radar to satellite-based tracking and navigation, leading to less delays and efficient navigation.
NextGen
399
NextGen will accommodate air traffic growth, which is projected to increase by ________ by 2025.
50%
400
Weather accounts for over ________ of all air traffic delays.
66%
401
Describe NextGen benefits.
- 20% reduction of en route communication errors
- enhances national security
- increasing safety on the ground
- better traffic management
- more flexibility for airport designers
- environmental benefits (reduced fuel, C02, noise)
402
___________ NextGen technology (both RNAV and RNP) allows a pilot to follow a 3-D ground track into or out of an airport or airspace, enabling more efficient routes and procedures.
Performance Based Navigation (PBN)
403
____________ NextGen technology will speed up departure queues and enable controllers to provide reroute information to cockpits during a flight, thus saving time, reducing fuel , and streamlining traffic.
Data Communications
404
__________ for a pilot means heads-up displays and enhanced vision systems, and for operator, means autoland in very low visibility.
Low-Visibility Operations
405
___________ is the platform that shares up-to-date and identical information users of the NAS and processes information from different systems.
System Wide Information Management (SWIM)
406
___________ NextGen technology include GIS integration for data about obstructions and transponder technology tech for surface vehicles.
Airport Enhancements
407
Aircraft diversions and excessive and regulatory tarmac delays are __________.
Irregular Operations (IROPS)
408
__________ is a NextGen component, encompassing automatic, dependent, surveillance, and broadcast; uses Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) position technology.
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)
409
Congress and courts have found that _________ is a limited national resource and to be managed by FAA.
Airspace
410
The ability of a portion of airspace or an airport to handle a given volume of traffic within a specified period is __________.
Capacity
411
__________ is the rate (simulated) at which aircraft can operate into or out of the airfield without regard to the amount of delay incurred.
Throughput Capacity
412
__________ is the rate at which aircraft can operate without exceeding a maximum acceptable level of delay.
Practical Capacity
413
List 2 capacity measures that can be used for evaluating feasibility and benefit of airport development and improvement projects.
Practical Hourly Capacity (PHOCAP)
| Practical Annual Capacity (PANCAP)
414
__________ is used by ARTCC to calculate the desired interval between successive arrivals; Maximum number aircraft within 1-hour period.
Airport Acceptance Rate (AAR)
415
The average delay per aircraft operation is __________ when the Practical Capacity of an airport is reached.
4 to 6 minutes
416
What data collection website is a source for historical delay information?
Airline Service Quailty Performance (ASQP)
417
Runway configuration and length, fleet mix, weather conditions, distribution of arrivals vs departures, radar coverage, all affect ___________.
Airfield capacity
418
Simultaneous departure and arrival operations allowed under _________ and _________ when 2 parallel runways have a minimum spacing of 2,500-ft.
Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)
| Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC)
419
The FAA’s __________ mission is to balance the air traffic demand for NAS with system capacity in order to ensure max efficiency (minimum delay).
Traffic Management System (TMS)
420
___________ programs are the primary tools for limiting the number of arrivals at an airport that is significantly affected by bad weather or have limited runway availability.
Ground delay
421
___________ is used as a last resort because it holds aircraft on the ground for varying periods (inconvenient/expensive)
Ground stop
422
___________ is designed to match the arrival of aircraft to the ability of airport to handle the volume (acceptance rate).
Metering
423
___________ specifies exact order of aircraft, takes into account operational safety, uniformity of traffic flow, efficiency of runway, and weather.
Sequencing
424
___________ involves establishing and maintaining the appropriate interval (considering wake vortex) between successive aircraft.
Spacing
425
___________ is responsible for monitoring aircraft traffic for the purpose of alleviating congestion— central flow control.
Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC)
426
An administrative method of demand management, __________, allocates or restricts airport access by setting quotas on enplanements or no./type of operations.
Slot allocation
427
The term _________ was used to identify the authority of aircraft to conduct IFR op at a high-density airport.
Slot
428
Slot rules establish a maximum limit on allocated IFR operations at each _________ airport, and among specified users (at ORD, DCA, JFK, LGA).
High-density traffic area (HDTA)
429
Attempting to _________ certain aircraft types helps to alleviate capacity problems by allowing for greater aircraft uniformity.
Divert
430
___________ attempts to create ways to internalize the cost of congestion in the price of airport access (differential pricing + slot auctioning).
Economic demand management
431
Having peak hour surcharges, managing demand by charging cost-based landing fees are an example of __________.
Differential pricing
