Module 24A Flashcards by Andrea. McKnight

In addition to SMR, which flexibility technique is used for corrective flexibility?

a. Static stretching
b. Ballistic stretching
c . Dynamic stretching
d. Active-isolated stretching

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A fitness professional is training a beginner client who has never tried resistance training. How many exercises per body part is most appropriate?

a. 5-6
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1-2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the appropriate rest interval when training in the Maximal Strength Phase?

a. 6 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 30 seconds
d. 60 seconds

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the appropriate tempo for a core exercise when training for hypertrophy?

a. Fast
b. Explosive
c. Medium
d. Slow

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A client performs a ball squat, curl to overhead press followed by a push-up, a standing cable row, a single-leg scaption, and a single-leg squat in a circuit fashion. This is an example of which of the following resistance training systems?

a. Split-routine
b. Vertical loading
c. Peripheral heart action
d. Pyramid

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion?

a. Functional flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Passive flexibility
d. Active flexibility

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During the Stabilization Phase of the OPT model, which tempo is recommended for resistance training exercises?

a. 1/1/1
b. 1/0/1
c. 2/0/2
d. 4/2/1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a training plan that involves a week long exercise program based upon the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?

a. Macrocycle
b. Microcycle
c. Metacycle
d. Mesocycle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Maximal strength adaptations during a resistance training program are best achieved with which of the following rest periods?

a. 1-2 minutes
b. 0-90 seconds
c. 3-5 minutes
d. 0-60 seconds

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

For which of the following are Stage 1cardiorespiratory training programs designed?

a. To help clients improve anaerobic power and sprinting capabilities
b. To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients
c. For advanced clients who have a moderately high cardiorespiratory fitness level base
d. For clients with low-to -moderate cardiorespiratory fitness levels who are ready to begin training at higher intensity levels

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is required in order to develop Maximal strength and power?

a. Longer rest periods
b. Energy via aerobic pathways
c. Short bouts of exercise
d. Low-intensity workouts

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following involves the number of training sessions performed during a specified period?

a. Duration
b. Volume
c. Frequency
d. Intensity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion, and is used in Phase 1 of the OPT model?

a. Relative flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Active flexibility
d. Functional flexibility

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following best describes an OPT model training program that will progress for a year in order to meet a fitness goal?

a. Mesocycle
b. Macrocycle
c. Microcycle
d. Metacycle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following intensity ranges best describes someone just moving into a zone 3 cardiorespiratory training workout?

a. 66-70%
b. 75-79%
c. 86-90%
d. 80-85%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

High-volume training with low intensity increases which of the following?

a. Motor unit synchronization
b. Motor unit recruitment
c. Rate of force production
d. Metabolic rate

Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits arms falling forward?

a. Floor prone cobra
b. Lat pull- downs
c. Reverse flys
d. Light chest press

How can a personal trainer provide uncompromising customer service?

a. Give the impression that a question is inconvenient
b. Take complaints and pass them onto the front desk
c. Express ideas well through verbal communication
d. Avoid opportunities to create moments that strengthen professional relationships

An advanced client who is interested in gaining high levels of muscle mass would benefit most from which of the following resistance-training systems?

a. Circuit training
b. Superset System
c. Peripheral heart action
d. Single-set training

Which of the following is a proper equation when determining a client’s heart rate for zone 1?

a. (220-clients age)x (65% and 70%)
b. (200-clients age)x (60% and 75%)
c. (220-clients age)x (65% and 75%)
d. (200-clients age)x (60% and 70%)

When working with a client with hypertension, which of the following is the most appropriate exercise?

a. Isometric squat
b. Standing cobra
c. Floor bridge
d. Bench press

Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?

a. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance
b. Place hands at both ends of the barbell
c. Spot at the elbows
d. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set

A personal trainer is working with a client who is having trouble performing a single-leg balance on a foam pad. Which of the following balance training modalities is appropriate for this client.

a. A wobble board
b. Balance disk
c. A half foam roll
d. BOSU ball

Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client?

a. Postural control
b. Speed
c. Muscle trophy
d. Strength

Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits anterior pelvic tilt?

a. Calf raises b. Leg raises c. Chest press d. Seated calf raises

In which of the following cases should a static stretch be performed?

a. When underactive muscles have been identified b. When peripheral arterial disease has been identified c. When overactive muscles have been identified d. When high blood pressure has been identified

Bracing occurs when a person contracts the abdominal and buttock muscles at the same time as which of the following?

a. Neck b. Lower back c. Left shoulder d. Foreman

During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?

a. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion b. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension c. Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation d. Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation

When training a client in the Stabilization Level, what is the proper immediate progression for a ball two-arm dumbbell chest press!

a. Single-arm b. Move to a bench c. Alternating arm d. Increase the weight

In order for long-term adherence, what is an exercise program required to be?

a. Flexible b. Extreme c. Intense d. Rigid

Ice skaters are an example of which type of exercise?

a. Plyometric-power b. Reactive-strength c. Balance-strength d. Balance-power

Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to step forward with toes pointing straight ahead and then pushing off of the front foot through heel onto the back leg and maintain balance on the back leg?

a. Lunge to balance b. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization c. Single-leg box hop-down with stabilization d. Step-up to balance

What is the immediate progression of an alternating arm ball dumbbell press?

a. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on the bench b. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press c. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press d. Barbell bench press

When performed as fast and as explosive as possible, ice skaters are categorized in which of the following phases?

a. Power b. Stabilization Endurance c. Maximal Strength d. Strength Endurance

A client complains about pain in his shoulder while performing the triceps dip exercise. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?

a. Decrease the range of motion b. Perform the exercise with legs elevated c. Elevate the shoulders up to the ears and push the body down d. Perform the exercise without a bench

When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?

a. 90* internally rotated humerus b. Posteriorly rotated pelvis c. Anteriorly rotated pelvis d. 90* horizontally abducted humerus

What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise?

a. Squat, curl to press exercise b. One-arm ball squat, curl to press c. Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press d. Step-up to curl to press

A multiplaner single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?

a. Leg-stabilization b. Balance-stabilization c. Leg-power d. Balance-power