Module 3 Antibiotics Flashcards

(214 cards)

1
Q

Describe selective toxicity

A

It is the ability to enjoy target so organism without injuring other cells

Indicates ability of an antibiotic to kill or suppress microbial pathogens without causing injury to the host

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2
Q

What is the difference between bacteria cell wall and mammalian cell walls?

A

Bacterial cell walls are rigid and thick. (If It were not for the cell wall bacteria would absorb water and Burst)

Mammalian cells have no cell wall so drugs don’t affect this

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3
Q

Which drug class selectively inhibits an enzyme needed to make folic acid?

Why does in affect bacteria but not us?

A

Sulfonamides Inhibit an enzyme needed to make folic acid

Extra info: Bacteria my synthesize folic acid themselves they can’t take it from dietary sources like us

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4
Q

What 2 drug classes inhibit bacteria cell wall synthesis?

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins

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5
Q

Which Drug class causes LETHAL inhibition of bacterial proteins synthesis?

A

Aminoglycosides (gentamicin)

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6
Q

Which drug class causes NON-LETHAL inhibition of protein synthesis?

How do they differ from lethal inhibition?

A

Tetracyclines

They differ from aminoglycosides because they only slow microbial growth

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7
Q

Which three drugs inhibit bacterial synthesis of DNA and RNA?

A

Rifampin, metronidazole(flagyl) , and fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin)

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8
Q

What are anti-metabolites?

A

Drugs that disrupts specific bio chemical reactions

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides

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9
Q

What is the difference between bactericidal drugs and bacteriostatic drugs?

A

Bacteriocidal drugs are lethal and kill bacteria directly

Bacteria static drugs slow bacterial growth but elimination of bacteria is needed to be done by the host

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10
Q

What are four basic mechanisms for microbial drug-resistance?

A

They can decrease the concentration of a drug at its site of action

Alter the structure of drug target molecules

Produce a drug antagonist

Cause drug inactivation

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11
Q

What is a super infection?

A

An infection that appears during the course of treatment for a primary infection

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12
Q

What are three principal factors that must be considered when choosing or selecting an antibiotic?

A

Identify the infecting organism, drug sensitivity to the infecting orgasm, and host factors

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13
Q

What is empiric therapy in regards to abx therapy?

A

Never send a patient home with an infection because you’re waiting on lab results.

Based on knowledge and assessment give a broad-spectrum agent as initial treatment and wait for culture and sensitivity results and if you need to contact the patient, you can switch to a more selective antibiotic for the organism

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14
Q

drug levels should be how many times the minimal inhibitory concentration ?

A

4-8 times the MiC are often desirable

Antibiotics must be present at the site of infection, dosages should be adjusted to produce drug concentrations that are equal to or greater than the minimal inhibitory concentration

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15
Q

Antibiotic dosage too high can increase the risk for what?

A

Superinfection

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16
Q

What class of abx medication should not be given to infants? And why?

A

Infants should not receive sulfonamides because it can cause Kernicterus (neuro disorder cause by bilirubin displacement)

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17
Q

Which class of antibiotics causes staining to teeth or discoloration?

A

Tetracyclines

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18
Q

Gentamicin use in pregnancy can cause what?

A

It can cause irreversible hearing loss in the infant

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19
Q

Women who are taking sulfonamides while breast-feeding should know that it can cause what in infants?

A

Kernicterus Because it can enter the breast milk

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20
Q

In order for penicillins to produce antibacterial affects they must bind to what?

A

Penicillin binding proteins

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21
Q

Tell me basic facts about penicillin

A
They are bactericidal 
They Weaken the cell wall 
Treat mainly gram-positive bacteria
Known as beta-lactam antibiotics 
In older adults decrease dose may be needed due to renal dysfunction 

Safe to use in infants
Safe for pregnancy
Amoxicillin is safe to use while breast-feeding

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22
Q

Clavunolic acid Is used with amoxicillin because?

A

It helps inhibit the beta-lactamase enzyme from destroying the beta-lactam ring of the anabiotic

This is needed because of bacterial resistance

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23
Q

Which salt carriers for penicillin G are the fastest for absorption?

A

Potassium and sodium

Procaine and benzathine are the slowest

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24
Q

Penicillins have a cross sensitivity to what other class of medication?

A

Cephalosporins

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25
Penicillin G, penicillin V, oxacillin, dicloxacillin, Nafcillin Are these narrow or broad-spectrum penicillin?
Narrow spectrum
26
Broad-spectrum penicillin’s such as ampicillin and amoxicillin Have a greater ability to treat what strain of grams?
Gram negative bacilli and gram-positive
27
Which broad-spectrum anabiotic is better tolerated? Ampicillin or amoxicillin?
Amoxicillin
28
Staphylococcus aureus is what strain of bacteria?
Gram-positive bacteria
29
MRSA or staphylococcus aureus Has developed resistance against which two classes of antibiotics?
Penicillin and most cephalosporins
30
What is the treatment for healthcare associated MRSA?
Vancomycin IV or linezoid (zyvox)
31
Community associated MRSA Is treated by what anabiotic?
Bactrim or doxycycline
32
To eradicate MRSA in the nares , to decolonize What is the treatment?
Intranasal Mupirocin
33
What other class like penicillins are beta-lactam antibiotics and bactericidal?
Cephalosporins
34
What is the mechanism of action for cephalosporins?
Agents fine to penicillin binding proteins and disrupts cell wall synthesis And Activate autolysins (enzyme that cleave bonds in cell wall)
35
Which generation of cephalosporins is destroyed by beta lactamases?
First generation Third and fourth generations are highly resistant
36
What is the rule for cephalosporins?
As you increase in generations, there is a higher activity of Gram negative bacteria and higher ability of distribution to reach CSF fluid
37
Ceftriaxone is largely eliminated by how?
The liver
38
Cross sensitivity with penicillins is less and which generations of cephalosporins?
Fourth and fifth generation of cephalosporins
39
What is common after several days of treatment with cephalosporins?
A maculopapular rash
40
What interaction do cephalosporins have with alcohol?
Cephalosporins block metabolism of alcohol thereby increasing acetaldehyde That can cause tachycardia flashing and nausea ( disulfiram reaction)
41
Cefotetan, cefazolin, and ceftriaxone Can cause what?
They can promote bleeding
42
What is one major adverse effect that providers should instruct patients to report about Cephalosporins?
Instruct patient reports increased in frequency because all cephalosporins can promote C. Diff infection
43
Describe Vancomycin’s mechanism of action
Inhibits cell wall synthesis Bactericidal Does not interact with penicillin binding proteins Does not contain a beta-lactam ring
44
Clostridium Difícil is what type of bacteria?
Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria
45
What is a major adverse effects with Vancomycin?
Renal toxicity To minimize the restaurant serum levels should be no greater than needed
46
What is the first line of choice for C.diff infection? What is the second?
First line therapy is Vancomycin Second line therapy is Flagyl or Metronidazole
47
What defines a C.Diff infection?
Passage of three or more unformed stools in the past 24 hours and a positive stool test for C.diff
48
Which anabiotic’s are likely to cause a C.diff infection?? 4 types of classes
Clindamycin Second generation cephalosporins Third generation cephalosporins Fluoroquinolones
49
Cefazolin, cephalexin (keflex), and cefadroxil Are what generation of cephalosporins? What do they usually treat?
First generation cephalosporins, treat gram positive (staph and strep), good for skin infections
50
Cefaclor, cefotetan, cefoxitin, cefprozil, cefutoxime, are apart of what Generation of cephalosporins? What bugs do they treat?
Second generation cephalosporins They treat Gram-negative and gram-positive organisms ( h.influenzae, klebsiella, pneumococci, and staphylococci) Good for Otitis, sinusitis, and respiratory infections
51
Cefdinir, cefditoren, cefixime, cefotaxime, cefpodoxime, ceftazidime, ceftibuten, ceftriaxone (rocephin) What generation of cephalosporins? What do they treat?
Third generation cephalosporins Treat Gram negative organisms (Pseudomonas, neiserria gonorrhea, klebseilla, Serratia) Preferred for use in meningitis
52
What is important to know about cephalosporins absorption in general?
Poor absorption in the G.I. tract Many are usually given IM or IV
53
What type of spectrum of antibiotics or tetracyclines and are they bacteriostatic or bactericidal? What is their mechanism of action?
Tetracyclines are broad-spectrum antibiotics treats gram negative and positive They are bacteriostatic The inhibit protein synthesis
54
Tetracycline antibiotics end in what?
Cycline Main ones Tetracycline, doxycycline, and minocycline
55
What are important facts you need to know about tetracycline?
It doesn’t penetrate the cerebral spinal fluid or cross the blood brain barrier It can stain teeth yellow or brown It does cross the placenta, should not be used in kids younger than eight, can cause teratogenic effects in the fetus. Gastrointestinal irritation is common.
56
What superinfection needs to be of a concern for tetracyclines?
C.diff
57
What food interactions do you tetracyclines Have?
Tetracycline should not be taken with milk products,calcium supplements, iron supplements, laxatives and most anti-acids because it will decrease absorption. (Should give one hour before two hours after ingestion)
58
What are the drug interactions with tetracyclines?
Tetracyclines can increase Digoxin and warfarin levels
59
Patient education and provider knowledge about tetracyclines with sun and kidney disease
Tetracycline increases sensitivity to the skin so avoid prolonged sun exposure Should avoid and patients with kidney disease
60
Macrolides or what type of spectrum of anabiotic’s and Are they bactericidal or bacterial static? what do they do?
Macrolides or broad-spectrum anabiotic’s that usually cover gram-positive strains They inhibit bacterial protein synthesis They are bacteriostatic
61
Tetracyclines Do they pass the CSF or the blood brain barrier? Do they cross the placenta?
Tetracyclines do not pass the CSF or the blood brain barrier They do cross the placenta And can enter fetal circulation
62
Some macrolides End in what?
“Mycin” Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin
63
Adverse effects of macrolides include what?
They can cause gastrointestinal effects such as nausea vomiting diarrhea That can be reduced if given with meals. Can also prolonged QT when taken with CYP3 enzyme inhibitors
64
Clindamycin is what type of spectrum anabiotic? Is it bactericidal or bacteriastatic? What is their mechanism of action?
Clindamycin is a broad-spectrum gram-positive and gram-negative antibiotic It is mostly bacteriostatic It inhibits protein synthesis
65
What is clindamycin a drug of choice for?
Severe group strep A And gangrene (C.perfringes)
66
What is the most severe adverse effect of clindamycin?
It can cause C.diff super infection Have the patient notify the provider if they have five watery stools a day This can occur in the first week of therapy or up to 4 to 6 weeks after
67
What antibiotic should be used if patients are allergic to penicillin and have a cross sensitivity to Cephalosporins?
Macrolides such as azithromycin erythromycin
68
What do you floroquinolones mainly cover in regards to a gram strain? What is their mechanism of action? Are they bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
Fluoroquinolones primarily cover Gram- negative strains but do cover some positive strains They inhibit bacterial DNA replication They are bactericidal
69
All floroquinolones have what major adverse effect?
They can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture
70
What is the preferred drag for treating anthrax also called bacillus anthracis?
Ciprofloxacin | Which is a fluoroquinolones
71
In the pediatric population which drug class can be use for treatment of complicated UTIs and kidney infections caused by E. coli?
Fluoroquinolones
72
What significant adverse effects | Do fluoroquinolones have? (4)
Older adults can have significant risk for confusion psychosis and visual disturbances. It can cause tendinitis or tendon rupture Patient should be aware of phototoxicity should not be given and patience with myasthenia gravis because it can exacerbate muscle weakness
73
When should floroquinolones be discontinued?
At the first sign of a phototoxic reaction such as a burning sensation redness or rash. Patient should stop medication at The first sign of tendon pain, swelling,or inflammation in regards to possible tendon rupture.
74
Any aluminum, magnesium containing acids for iron or zinc salts, sucralfate should be taken how long before or after taking ciprofloxacin (Fluoroquinolone)?
should be taken at least 6 hrs prior or 2 hrs after cipro.
75
Which two floroquinolones are approved for children?
Ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin
76
What ending do fluoroquinolones have?
“Oxacin”
77
Ciprofloxacin can cause toxicity and what drugs?
Theophylline and warfarin
78
Flagyl or Metronidazole is Primarily effective against what type of Gram strain Bacteria and is it anaerobic or aerobic?
Flagyl is primarily lethal to anaerobic organisms and mostly Gram negative
79
Is Flagyl or metronidazole bactericidal or Bacteriostatic? What infections do they treat?
They are bactericidal They treat protozoal infections
80
What is a black box warning for Metronidazole?
It is associated with increased carcinogenic risk in mice. Unnecessary use should be avoided
81
Daptomycin also called Cubicin Is active against what type of strain of bacteria? Is it Bactericidal or Bacteriostatic?
It is active it only against gram-positive anaerobic and aerobic bacteria It is bactericidal
82
What is one notable side effect of daptomycin?
Muscle injury or myopathy
83
What are the approved uses for daptomycin?
A country bloodstream infection caused by staphylococcus aureus and complicated skin infections
84
What drug interaction should be avoided in these patients on daptomycin?
Simvastatin or cholesterol lowering medication because it can cause myopathy Stop taking these meds when using daptomycin
85
What are Sulfonamides mechanism of action? Are they bacteriostatic or bactericidal ? What type of Bacterial strain do they cover?
Sulfonamides are Bacteriostatic drugs They are active against broad-spectrum gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli Sulfonamides inhibit a derivative of folate needed for cell synthesis
86
What is the primary causative agent in urinary tract infections?
E. coli
87
Do sulfonamides cross the placenta?
Yes they are not indicated or should be used in pregnancy
88
Sulfonamides should be discontinued if what happens?
A skin rash develops or is observed because it could be an indicator of Steven Johnson syndrome
89
What are the 4 major adverse effects of sulfonamides?
Hyper sensitivity with phototoxicity can occur Can cause hemolytic anemia—If patient report fever pallor or jaundice Kernicterus in newborns Can Have renal damage Because of crystalline form if Not adequately hydrated
90
Sulfasalazine is used to treat what?
Ulcerative colitis
91
Sulfonamides should not be given to infants younger than how old?
Two months
92
Sulfonamides can intensify which three meds?
Warfarin, phenytoin, and sulfonylura hypoglycemics
93
Sulfacetamide is used for what?
Seborrheic dermatitis, acne vulgaris, and rosacea
94
Silver sulfadiazine and mafenide Are used to suppress back to your colonization and patience with second and third-degree burns but should not be used on what?
The face because it can cause blue, green or gray discoloration
95
Trimethoprim has what mechanism of action?
It’s a process bacteria synthesis of DNA and RNA
96
Is trimethoprim bactericidal and Bacteriostatic?
Depending on the side of infection it can be either
97
Trimethoprim treats which strain of bacteria?
Enteric Gram negative bacilli
98
What are Trimethoprim’s major adverse reaction?
Most common is itching and rash Megaloblastic anemia can occur in patient’s you already have a folate deficiency such as alcoholics, pregnant woman and nursing home patients Hyperkalemia is common because it reduces renal excretion of potassium
99
Patients who are taking an ARB, ACEI, aldosterone antagonist while on trimethoprim Should be monitored for what adverse reaction?
Hyperkalemia
100
Does trimethoprim cross the placenta and is it safe to use while breast-feeding?
Because it crosses the center of what it’s routine use it is excreted in milk which can interfere with folic acid utilization by the nursing infant
101
What is Bactrim made up of? TMP/SMZ What do these two drugs do together?
It is made up of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole They potential each other’s affects
102
What is the microbial spectrum for trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactria)?
It is active against a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
103
Adverse effects of Bactrim or a combination of sulfonamides adverse reactions and trimethoprim adverse reaction, name a few
Hypersensitivity reaction such a Steven Johnson syndrome, blood dyscrasia such as hemolytic anemia, Kernicterus in neonates, Hyperkalemia, and Renal damage
104
Bactrim taken with methotrexate can cause what in patients?
It can intensify bone marrow suppression
105
Lower urinary tract infections involves what organ parts?
The bladder and urethra
106
What organ do upper urinary tract infection involve?
The kidneys
107
What are the 2 types of urinary Tract infections?
Complicated or uncomplicated
108
Uncomplicated UTIs usually occur and what population?
Women of childbearing age with no predisposition
109
What are predisposing factors that complicated UTIs?
Calculi, prosthetic hypertrophy, and wine catheters, obstruction to urine flow
110
Urinary tract infections that are associated community acquired are caused by what pathogen what is the strain?
E.coli and it’s gram negative
111
Hospital acquired UTIs are caused by what common pathogens?
Klebseilla, Proteus, and Tara factor, Pseudomonas, staphylococci, and enterococci
112
Single dose therapy and short course therapy are utilized for what population?
They are for uncomplicated, community associate infection and women who are not pregnant and symptoms that began less than seven days prior to treatment
113
What are the first line drugs for uncomplicated acute cystitis? List in order
Bactrim, nitrofuratonin, fosfomycin For a patient you are not pregnant with symptoms less than seven days
114
What is the second class medication for acute cystitis uncomplicated?
The floroquinolones Ciprofloxacin And levofloxacin
115
Complicated urinary tract infections What are the drugs in order?
Bactrim, Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin, amoxicillin or Augmentin, And cephalexin
116
For treatment of complicated urinary tract infections, how long would conventional therapy be?
At least 7 to 14 days
117
Nitrofuratonin Also known as Macrobid is used in what instance?
Only use for lower urinary track infections, prophylaxis, and reoccurring infections
118
What is the mechanism of action of Macrobid or nitrofurantoin?
It injures bacteria by damaging their DNA That low concentration it is Bacteriastatic and at high concentrations it bactericidal
119
What are the four major side effects associated with nitrofuratonin?
G.I. disturbances such as nausea vomiting diarrhea ****Can cause pulmonary reaction such as shortness of breath, chest pain, chills, fever, cough and alveolar infiltrates Can cause hematologic a fact such as megaloblastic anemia Can cause peripheral neuropathy
120
Nitrofuratonin (macrobid)is contraindicated in what 2 populations?
It is contraindicated in patients less than one month old and in patients with renal impairment (geriatrics)
121
Nitrofuratonin is contraindicated in what trimester pregnancy?
In the third trimester
122
For infants what 2 anabiotic’s can be used in infants for UTIs?
Ampicillin and gentamycin
123
What two antibiotics are safe in pregnancy?
Penicillins Such as Augmentin and cephalosporins
124
Women who are breast-feeding and taking the floroquinolones for a urinary tract infection, they should wait how long before breast-feeding?
They should wait 4 to 6 hours after a does before breast-feeding
125
Methenamine hippurate (similar to nitrofuratonin) It’s approved for children between what age?
Six and 12 years of age It can also be used in children of six years of age and younger
126
What are Sulfonamides mechanism of action? Are they bacteriostatic or bactericidal ? What type of Bacterial strain do they cover?
Sulfonamides are Bacteriostatic drugs They are active against broad-spectrum gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli Sulfonamides inhibit a derivative of folate needed for cell synthesis
127
What is the primary causative agent in urinary tract infections?
E. coli
128
Do sulfonamides cross the placenta?
Yes they are not indicated or should be used in pregnancy
129
Sulfonamides should be discontinued if what happens?
A skin rash develops or is observed because it could be an indicator of Steven Johnson syndrome
130
What are the 4 major adverse effects of sulfonamides?
Hyper sensitivity with phototoxicity can occur Can cause hemolytic anemia—If patient report fever pallor or jaundice Kernicterus in newborns Can Have renal damage Because of crystalline form if Not adequately hydrated
131
Sulfasalazine is used to treat what?
Ulcerative colitis
132
Sulfonamides should not be given to infants younger than how old?
Two months
133
Sulfonamides can intensify which three meds?
Warfarin, phenytoin, and sulfonylura hypoglycemics
134
Sulfacetamide is used for what?
Seborrheic dermatitis, acne vulgaris, and rosacea
135
Silver sulfadiazine and mafenide Are used to suppress back to your colonization and patience with second and third-degree burns but should not be used on what?
The face because it can cause blue, green or gray discoloration
136
Trimethoprim has what mechanism of action?
It’s a process bacteria synthesis of DNA and RNA
137
Is trimethoprim bactericidal and Bacteriostatic?
Depending on the side of infection it can be either
138
Trimethoprim treats which strain of bacteria?
Enteric Gram negative bacilli
139
What are Trimethoprim’s major adverse reaction?
Most common is itching and rash Megaloblastic anemia can occur in patient’s you already have a folate deficiency such as alcoholics, pregnant woman and nursing home patients Hyperkalemia is common because it reduces renal excretion of potassium
140
Patients who are taking an ARB, ACEI, aldosterone antagonist while on trimethoprim Should be monitored for what adverse reaction?
Hyperkalemia
141
Does trimethoprim cross the placenta and is it safe to use while breast-feeding?
Because it crosses the center of what it’s routine use it is excreted in milk which can interfere with folic acid utilization by the nursing infant
142
What is Bactrim made up of? TMP/SMZ What do these two drugs do together?
It is made up of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole They potential each other’s affects
143
What is the microbial spectrum for trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactria)?
It is active against a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
144
Patients with age should not use Bactrim because of why?
They have a high incidence of adverse effects
145
Adverse effects of Bactrim or a combination of sulfonamides adverse reactions and trimethoprim adverse reaction, name a few
Hypersensitivity reaction such a Steven Johnson syndrome, blood dyscrasia such as hemolytic anemia, Kernicterus in neonates, Hyperkalemia, and Renal damage
146
Bactrim taken with methotrexate can cause what in patients?
It can intensify bone marrow suppression
147
Lower urinary tract infections involves what organ parts?
The bladder and urethra
148
What organ do upper urinary tract infection involve?
The kidneys
149
Herpes simplex virus causes what
Infection of the genitalia, mouth, face and other sites
150
Herpes zoster is what?
Shingles, it’s a painful condition resulting from reactivation of varicella that has been dormant within the sensory nerves
151
Varicella zoster is what
The chickenpox
152
Describe Zovirax (Acyclovir)
It is the first drag a choice for most infections caused by herpes simplex virus and varicella Serious side effects or uncommon Cheap drug, it is needed to be taken more often though—compliance issue
153
Acyclovir mechanism of action
It inhibits viral replication by suppressing the synthesis of viral DNA
154
What is the drug of choice for varicella zoster infection in immunocompromised patients?
Acyclovir
155
Acyclovir Is approved for children as young as how old?
As young as three months of age
156
Valacyclovir is approved for children how old?
Two years of age
157
Is foscarnet recommended in pregnancy?
No it is not, there was a normal development of tooth enamel an animal students
158
Are Acyclovir and Valacyclovir in the secreted in the breast milk? Can they be use while breast-feeding?
It is present in breastmilk, it is recommended that women who are taking systemic drugs for herpes simplex virus and varicella zoster should avoid breast-feeding
159
Describe valacyclovir (Valtrex)
It is a pro drug form of acyclovir It has greater bioavailability than acyclovir More expensive than acyclovir Dosage frequency is less
160
Describe Docosanol cream (abreva)
Unlikely to promote resistance Drag available over the counter And they created for herpes labialis (oral)
161
Famciclovir Is a pro drug for?
Penciclovir
162
What is the dosing for acyclovir In a Herpes simplex virus breakout? Give dosage
Treatment for HSV is 200 mg five times daily for 7 to 10 days. Or 400 mg three times a day for 7 to 10 days (1000-1200mg in a day)
163
What is the treatment for herpes zoster (shingles) when using acyclovir? Give dosage
800 mg five times a day for 7 to 10 days
164
What are side effects for antiviral medication’s for herpes simplex, herpes zoster (shingles), and herpes varicella?
Headache nausea vomiting
165
Acyclovir can help with what in shingles
Can help post herpetic neuralgia
166
Valtrex dosage for orolabial breakout
2g twice a day for one day
167
Valtrex dosage for herpes zoster (shingles) and varicella (chicken pox)
1 g three times a day for 5 to 7 days or until lesions have crusted Varicella minimum 5 days and Zoster full 7 days
168
Valtrex dosage in Mucutaneous herpes simplex
1 g twice a day for 7 to 10 days | Or until lesions have healed
169
What is the first line of medication for treating chlamydia trichomonas? What is the second?
Azithromycin 1 g PO once or doxycycline 100 mg PO two times a day for seven days
170
What is the treatment for gonorrhea urethritis, cervicitis, prostatitis, and pharyngitis?
Ceftriaxone (rocephin) 250 mg IM once and 1 g of azithromycin
171
What is the treatment for non-Gonococcal urethritis?
Azithromycin 1 g PO once Or Doxycycline hundred milligrams PO twice a day For seven days
172
What is the treatment for primary syphilis, secondary syphilis, early latency syphilis? Give dosage
Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once
173
What is Daily suppressive dosage therapy for acyclovir?
400 mg PO two times a day
174
What is the daily suppressive therapy dosage for Valacyclovir?
500 mg PO once a day Or 1 g PO once a day
175
What is the first line drug for streptococcus pneumonia? What is the second line? Class wise
First line is penicillin or amoxicillin—penicillin class Second line is azithromycin—macrolides
176
What is the first time medication neisseria meningitis? What is the second line?
First sign is a third-generation cephalosporin Second generation is penicillin
177
What is the first sign medication for staphylococcus aureus?
First line amoxicillin/ Augmentin Second line is a cephalosporin
178
What is the first and second line for bacillus anthrax?
First sign of ciprofloxacin—fluoroquinolone Second line is gentamicin or a tetracycline
179
Bordetella pertussis also known as whooping cough, what is the first and second line treatment for it?
First line treatment is azithromycin— Macrolides Second line is Bactrim
180
For shigella what is the first sign and second line treatment?
First line floroquinolone Second line is Bactrim or Ampicillin.
181
Salmonella treatment What is first line and second line?
First line treatment is a cephalosporin Second line treatment is Bactrim or a penicillin
182
Community associated MRSA is treated how? Name first line and second line
First line is Bactrim Second line is doxycycline
183
Gardnerella vaginalis First line and second line treatment
First line is Flagyl Second line is topical clindamycin or metronidazolep
184
Klebsiella First line Second line
First line is azithromycin Second line is doxycycline then Bactrim
185
H influenza in a upper respiratory infection What is the first line and second line?
First line is Bactrim Second line is a cephalosporin or Augmentin
186
H influenza infection of the meningitis, epiglottitis, arthritis What is the treatment?
Cephalosporins | Cefotxime and ceftriaxone
187
What is the treatment for Corynebacterium diphtheriae? 1st and 2nd line
First line is erythromycin or a macrolide Second line is penicillin G
188
listeria, First line and second line treatment?
First line treatment is ampicillin or penicillin G with or without gentamycin Second line is Bactrim
189
Klebseilla Pneumonia what is the first line and secondly treatment?
First line is cephalosporins Second is carbapenems
190
For Mycoplasma pneumonia | What is the first line and second line treatment?
1st line Erythromycin or a macrolide Second line it’s a fluoroquinolone
191
H pylori infection First line and second line?
First line is clarithromycin and amoxicillin along with Esomeprazole Second line is a Tetracyclines with Flagyl
192
Cholerae | First line and second line treatment?
First line tetracycline Second line Bactrim
193
What is the first line drug for streptococcus pneumonia? What is the second line? Class wise
First line is penicillin or amoxicillin—penicillin class Second line is azithromycin—macrolides
194
What is the first time medication neisseria meningitis? What is the second line?
First sign is a third-generation cephalosporin Second generation is penicillin
195
What is the first sign medication for staphylococcus aureus?
First line amoxicillin/ Augmentin Second line is a cephalosporin
196
What is the first and second line for bacillus anthrax?
First sign of ciprofloxacin—fluoroquinolone Second line is gentamicin or a tetracycline
197
Cholerae | First line and second line treatment?
First line tetracycline Second line Bactrim
198
H pylori infection First line and second line?
First line is clarithromycin and amoxicillin along with Esomeprazole Second line is a Tetracyclines with Flagyl
199
For Mycoplasma pneumonia | What is the first line and second line treatment?
1st line Erythromycin or a macrolide Second line it’s a fluoroquinolone
200
Klebseilla Pneumonia what is the first line and secondly treatment?
First line is cephalosporins Second is carbapenems
201
listeria, First line and second line treatment?
First line treatment is ampicillin or penicillin G with or without gentamycin Second line is Bactrim
202
Bordetella pertussis also known as whooping cough, what is the first and second line treatment for it?
First line treatment is azithromycin— Macrolides Second line is Bactrim
203
What is the treatment for Corynebacterium diphtheriae? 1st and 2nd line
First line is erythromycin or a macrolide Second line is penicillin G
204
H influenza infection of the meningitis, epiglottitis, arthritis What is the treatment?
Cephalosporins | Cefotxime and ceftriaxone
205
H influenza in a upper respiratory infection What is the first line and second line?
First line is Bactrim Second line is a cephalosporin or Augmentin
206
Klebsiella First line Second line
First line is azithromycin Second line is doxycycline then Bactrim
207
Gardnerella vaginalis First line and second line treatment
First line is Flagyl Second line is topical clindamycin or metronidazolep
208
Community associated MRSA is treated how? Name first line and second line
First line is Bactrim Second line is doxycycline
209
Salmonella treatment What is first line and second line?
First line treatment is a cephalosporin Second line treatment is Bactrim or a penicillin
210
For shigella what is the first sign and second line treatment?
First line floroquinolone Second line is Bactrim or Ampicillin.
211
Very proficient for complete murder and death What are these medications for bactericidal drugs?
Vancomycin, penicillins, fluoroquinolone, Cephalosporins, metronidazole, daptomycin
212
To slow the microorganism carefully Bacteriostatic drugs what are these medications?
Tetracycline, Sulfonamides, trimethoprim, macrolides, Clindamycin
213
What treatment for uncomplicated UTI is approved for a single does therapy?
Fosfomycin (monurol)
214
Which cephalosporin medication can be given in large doses without harming the kidneys?
Ceftriaxone