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Biom1071 > Module 3: GIT > Flashcards

Module 3: GIT Flashcards

1
Q

How much saliva do we create everyday?

A

~1500ml

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2
Q

What is the name of the stomach rumble?

A

Borborygmi sounds

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3
Q

How much fluid can a stomach hold?

A

~1500-2500ml

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4
Q

What is the longest part of the GIT?

A

Small intestine

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5
Q

What are the 2 properties of digestion?

A
  1. Physical
  2. Chemical
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6
Q

What is an example of physical digestion of the GIT?

A
  1. Mastication
  2. Peristalsis
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7
Q

What is the chemical digestion of the GIT?

A

The enzymatic breakdown of foods, e.g. salivary amylase

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8
Q

Define the GIT

A

The breakdown of large molecules into small, water soluble molecules to allow for absorption into the blood and to be transported to organs

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9
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

The rhythmic wave that pushes food through the canal

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10
Q

Why are there sphincters in the GIT?

A

To facilitate unidirectional flow of food, in an antigrade direction

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11
Q

What are the accessory glands of the GIT?

A
  1. Salivary
  2. Pancreas
  3. Liver
  4. (Defunct) appendix
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12
Q

What does the GIT cover?

A

A closed circuit from mouth to anus

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13
Q

Which 2 parts of GIT do not directly take part in digestion?

A
  1. Oesophagus: moves food from pharynx to stomach
  2. Appendix: not in use in humans
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14
Q

What are the 2 directions of peristalsis?

A
  1. Antigrade: mouth to anus (preferred)
  2. Retrograde: vomiting
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15
Q

What is antigrade movement in the GIT?

A

Movement of molecules from mouth to anus

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16
Q

What is retrograde movement in the GIT?

A

Movement of molecules from anus to mouth, most common is vomiting.

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17
Q

What is the role of the liver and the pancreas in the GIT?

A

To secrete digestive enzymes into the GIT: bile and pancreatic juices

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18
Q

How is enzymatic release controlled from the liver and pancreas?

A

Via sphincters

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19
Q

Are sphincters open or closed during eating?

A

Open

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20
Q

Are sphincters open or closed when not eating?

A

Closed

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21
Q

What are the 7 layers of the GIT (out to in)
“Silly Luke Must Chew Salty M & Ms”

A
  1. Serosa
  2. Longitudinal muscle
  3. Myenteric plexus
  4. Circular muscle
  5. Submucosal plexus
  6. Muscularis mucosa
  7. Mucosa
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22
Q

What are the myenteric and submucosal plexus’?

A

Nerves

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23
Q

What does the submucosal plexus innervate?

A

The control of secretion of mucus from the mucosa cells

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24
Q

What does the myenteric plexus innervate?

A

Controls the muscles for contraction and relaxation to enable peristalsis

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25
Q

What are the 3 cell types of the mucosa?

A
  1. Epithelial cells
  2. Lamina propria
  3. Muscularis mucosa
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26
Q

What are the 3 parts of the submucosa?

A
  1. Circular muscle
  2. Longitudinal muscle
  3. Nerve plexuses
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27
Q

What are the intrinsic enteric nerves system in the GIT?

A
  1. Submucosal plexus
  2. Myenteric plexus
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28
Q

What are the extrinsic enteric sysems?

A
  1. Parasympathetic: vagus T2
  2. Sympathetic: pelvic L8
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29
Q

What are the 3 parts of the gut?

A
  1. Foregut
  2. Midgut
  3. Hindgut
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30
Q

What parts of the body does the foregut cover?

A

From the oral cavity to the initial part of the duodenum, as well a the liver and pancreas

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31
Q

What part of the body does the migut cover?

A

Duodenum to initial 2/3 of the transverse colon (submesenteric artery)

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32
Q

What part of the hindgut does the body cover?

A

The later 1/3 of the transverse colon to upper part of the anus (infmesenteric artery)

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33
Q

What is in saliva?

A
  1. Mucin
  2. Buffers (HCO3)
  3. Antibacterial enzymes (lysosyme)
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34
Q

What does amylase do?

A

Hydrolysis starch and glycogen to snake polysaccharides and maltose

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35
Q

What does the tongue have?

A
  1. Taste buds
  2. Food bolus
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36
Q

Are salivary glands paired?

A

Yes

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37
Q

What are the 3 glands in the oral cavity?

A
  1. Parotid
  2. Submandibular
  3. Sub lingual
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38
Q

What are the properties of the parotid gland?

A
  1. 25% secretion
  2. Serous
  3. Amylase
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39
Q

What are the properties of the sublingual gland?

A
  1. 5% secretion
  2. Mucous
  3. Lingual lipase
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40
Q

What are the properties of the submanddibular gland?

A
  1. 70% secretion
  2. Mixed lysozyme and lactoperoxidase
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41
Q

What is the property of the lamina propria?

A

It’s a connective tissue core that contains
1. Collagen fibers
2.elastic fibers
3. Reticular fibers
4. Connective tissue cells like fibroblasts

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42
Q

What is the function of the muscularis mucosa?

A

To reduce diameter of GIT

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43
Q

What is the serosa?

A

Connective tissue layer of the GIT to hold everything in place

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44
Q

Where are goblet cells found?

A

Anywhere where mucus is required
1. Bronchi
2. GIT

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45
Q

what are the 3 sections of the pharynx divided into?

A
  1. nasopharynx
    2.oropharynx
  2. hypopharynx/laryngopharynx
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46
Q

What area covers the nasopharynx?

A

everything above the soft palate

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47
Q

what are covers the oropharynx?

A

between the soft palate and the tip of the epiglottis

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48
Q

what area covers the hypopharyn/laryngopharynx?

A

from tip of epiglottis and below (not traches)

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49
Q

what is the role of the pharynx and oesophagus in the GIT?

A

it is a conduit for food and air (no digestion)

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50
Q

what does the parynx open into?

A

it splits to:
1. oesophagus (digestion)
2. trachea (breathing)

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51
Q

are respiratory passages open or closed during swallowing?

A

closed

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52
Q

what does patent mean?

A

ability to breathe

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53
Q

how is the pharynx kept patent?

A

the hyoid bone

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54
Q

what happens during swallowing?

A

the trachea moves upwards and the epiglottis closes the aditus to the larynx

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55
Q

which groups are at risk of reduced aditus function?

A

very old and young

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56
Q

which area of muscle in the oespophagus is voluntary and involuntary?

A
  1. proximal is voluntary
  2. distal is involuntary
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57
Q

how many liters can the stomach hold?

A

1.5-2.5L

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58
Q

where is the stomach located?

A

in the upper left abdomen

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59
Q

Where is the pancreas?

A

In the c shaped cavity below the duodenum

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60
Q

What is the anatomy of the liver?

A
  1. About 2kg
  2. Has a right, left, caudate and quadrate lobe
  3. Gall bladder and bile duct
  4. Aorta and vena cava
  5. Portal vein
  6. Hepatic artery
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61
Q

What is the job of the spleen?

A

Filtration for blood. It removes; old, malformed and damaged RBC

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62
Q

Is the spleen a part of the lymphatic system?

A

Yes

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63
Q

How is the spleen a part of the lymphatic system?

A

works to keep body fluid levels in balance and to defend the body against infections. It is made up of a network of lymphatic vessels that carrylymph— a clear, watery fluid that contains proteins, salts, and other substances — throughout the body.

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64
Q

What does the pancreas open to?

A

It opens to the bile duct of the gall bladder

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65
Q

What is the purpose of the pancreas?

A

To release pancreatic enzymes and bile to enable chemical digestion

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66
Q

What does it mean when the pancreas is a mixed gland?

A
  1. Endocrine function: substance secreted within the blood stream
  2. Exocrine function: pancreatic juice secretion into the gut, specific to GIT
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67
Q

What are the 3 parts of the small intestine?

A
  1. Duodenum
  2. Jejunum
  3. Ileum
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68
Q

What is the purpose of the small intestine?

A
  1. Break down food
  2. Aborb nutrients
  3. Remove waste
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69
Q

How does chyme move through the small instestine?

A

Via peristalsis

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70
Q

What is Migrating Myoelectric Complex?

A

It the movement of chyme from 2 points of the SI via contraction of smooth muscle due to AP firing, multiple times, in the rhythmical fashion

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71
Q

How is perstalsis initiated in the SI?

A

By a hormone called motilin that is released during fasting phase

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72
Q

What are Peyer’s Patches?

A

A group of lymphoid molecules found in the ileum and act as a bacterial defence of the small intestine

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73
Q

What state is chyme when it reaches the ileum?

A

Fecal matter

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74
Q

Describe the large intestine

A

A sack like structure with a longitudinal muscle coat that causes haustra (pockets) to form

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75
Q

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

A

Reabsorption of water

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76
Q

Why doesn’t the large intestine absorb nutrients?

A

Fecal matter present, high change of absorbing something dangerous, like amonia

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77
Q

What is the purpose of the rectum and anus?

A

A reservior

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78
Q

Where does the rectum begin?

A

At the end of the large intestine

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79
Q

What are anal columns?

A

Columnar like structures which have blood vessels deep to them.

Hemmeroids

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80
Q

What is the anus?

A

The opening at the end of the digestive tract

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81
Q

What body parts are in the upper GIT?

A
  1. Mouth
  2. Pharynx
  3. Oesophagus
  4. Stomach
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82
Q

What body parts are in the lower GIT?

A
  1. Small intestine
  2. Large intestine
  3. Rectum
  4. Anus
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83
Q

Where is the boundary for the upper and lowe GIT?

A

The duodenum to the spleen

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84
Q

What is the ligament of Trietz?

A

A fold of peritoneal between the duodenum and near the spleen that’s held up against gravity

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85
Q

What is luminal basal movement?

A

The movement of molecules from the lumen to the base of the epithelial cells

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86
Q

What is ingestion?

A

The process of food being taken into the alimentary canal, chewing and swallowing

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87
Q

What is propulsion?

A

Movement of food through the GIT

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88
Q

What is segmentation?

A

Mainly done in the small intestine,localized contractions of the smoothe muscle in the GIT causes chyme to break apart into smaller bundles

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89
Q

What are the 4 papillae on the tongue?

A
  1. Filiform
  2. Fungiform
  3. Foliate
  4. Circumvallate
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90
Q

Where is filiform papillae found?

A

On most of the caudal tongue, hair like in structure

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91
Q

Where is the fungiform found?

A

On the caudal part of the tongue, small knobs in structure

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92
Q

Where is the foliate papillae found?

A

Oh the distal and side of the tongue, leaf like in structure

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93
Q

Where is the circumvillate found?

A

At the back of the tongue across the superior of the tongue, large knobs

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94
Q

What is the purpose of the tongue?

A

Taste via the CNS

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95
Q

What areas of the tongue detect which flavours?

A

Tip: sweet/salty
Back: bitter
Side: greasy

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96
Q

How is stimulus carried from the tongue to the brain?

A

3 Cranial nerves

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97
Q

What are the 3 Cranial nerves that carries taste to the brain?

A

7: facial

#9: glossopharyngeal
#10: vagus

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98
Q

Where for nerves 7/9/10 synapse?

A

Cerebral Cortex to gustatory cortex

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99
Q

What does the gustatory cortex experience?

A

Flavour, sits close to amygdala

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100
Q

What 2 mechanisms control salivary release?

A
  1. Local: pressure and chemoreceptors
  2. Central: sight/smell induces a positive feedback loop to create saliva
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101
Q

What is the pathway of saliva production?

A
  1. Local/central stimulus
  2. Synapse in medulla
  3. ANS activates salivary gland
  4. Increase salivary secretion
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102
Q

What is the pathway for dry mouth?

A
  1. SNS activates a cascade effect
  2. beta adronergic receptors activates phosphokinase A (PKA) enzyme
  3. PKA mobilizes Ca2+ to move mucus filled vacuoles to basal of cell
  4. Vacuoles come into contact with membrane and exocytoses into the oral cavity.
  5. This causes dry mouth
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103
Q

Explain the pathway to create watery saliva

A
  1. PNS activates noradrenaline (NA) release and Acetyl Choline release (ACh)
  2. NA activates the alpha adronergic receptors and ACh activates the muscarinic receptors (M³)
  3. They both activate the inositol triphospate (IP³) and diacylglycerol (DAG) pathway to create a dual action.
    4a. Ca2+ increases, causing increased mucus production
    4b. Phosphokinase C (PKC) is activated
    5a. PKC causes Cl- to move to lumen of acini in salivary gland
    5b. Cl- cotransports into acini with Na+ and K+
  4. Na+ pushed out of cell to avoid lysing, H²O follows
  5. Watery saliva!
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104
Q

What state is saliva in when secreted into the lumen of the acini?

A

Isotonic

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105
Q

What are the 2 sphincters of the oesophagus?

A
  1. Upper oesophegeal
  2. Lower oesophegeal
106
Q

What is the function of the upper oesophegeal sphincter?

A
  1. Voluntary control
  2. Closed at rest
  3. Opens when food passes through
107
Q

What is the properties of the lower oesophegeal sphincter?

A
  1. Involuntary control
  2. Closed at rest
  3. Opens when bolus is moving to the stomach
  4. Within the abdominal cavity
108
Q

Where are parietal cells found?

A

In the funds and body of the stomach

109
Q

What does a parietal cell secrete?

A
  1. Intrinsic Factor - B12 secretion
  2. Hydrochloric Acid
110
Q

Where are Chief cells found and what is their purpose?

A
  1. Fundus of the stomach
  2. Pepsin secretion
111
Q

What cells are found in the body of the stomach?

A
  1. Parietal cell
  2. Chief cell
  3. APUD
  4. G-cell
  5. Mucus secreting cell
  6. ECL
112
Q

How is pepsin created in the stomach?

A

HCl activates pepsinogen rendering the stomach sterile against ingested pathogens

113
Q

What are the physiological phases in the stomach during mastication?

A
  1. Cephalic: food in mouth, stomach getting ready for digestion
  2. Gastric: food digested in stomach
  3. Intestinal: negative feedback loop when full to reduce acid secretion.
114
Q

What triggers an action potential in the stomach?

A

Food entering the stomach

115
Q

What do the action potentials do in the stomach?

A

Create contractions and migrating myoelectric complexes

116
Q

What are migrating myoelectric complexes?

A

Action potentials that travel the whole length of the intestine

117
Q

How does the bolus move through the intestine?

A

Through mixing peristaltic waves that squeeze and segment the bolus to further digestion

118
Q

What is gastric emptying?

A

When the sphincter of the duodenum opens to move the bolus into the intestine

119
Q

What is retrograde peristalsis?

A

Vomiting

120
Q

How is vomiting induced?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone activated, sends signals via the solitary tract to the cerebral cortex which contacts the abdominal muscles to increase pressure

121
Q

List the gastric secretions

A

HCl
Pepsin
Prostaglandin
Mucus

122
Q

How are ulcers formed?

A

Reduced prostaglandins

123
Q

List the molecular transfer in parietal cells

A
  1. CO² from blood stream into cell, metabolises with H²O to create H²CO³ (carbonic acid).
  2. H²CO³ quickly dissociates into HCO³ and H+ due to carbonic anhydrase
  3. HCO³ moves into the blood stream via an antiporter with Cl- this creates an alkaline tide in the blood.
  4. Cl- moves into the stomach lumen via the Cl- channel
  5. An ATP pathway moves K+ in and out of the cell via diffusion and a proton pump respectively, this allows the H+ to move into the lumen of the cell.
  6. Cl- and K+ bind to create HCl
124
Q

Where does the CO² come from in the body?

A
  1. Respiratory
  2. Cellular metabolism
125
Q

How does medication work to enable ulcer recovery?

A

It blocks the proton pump

126
Q

What are the 4 receptors that affect gastric acid secretion?

A
  1. Cholecytokine B (CCK)
  2. Somatostatin Receptor (SSR)
  3. Muscarinic (M³)
  4. Histaminergic Receptor (H²-R)
127
Q

which 3 receptors in the stomach increase gastric acid secretion?

A
  1. Cholecytokine B (CCK)
  2. Muscarinic (M³)
  3. Histaminergic Receptor (H²-R)
128
Q

which receptor in the stomach decreases gastric acid secretion?

A

Somatostatin Receptor (SSR)

129
Q

which receptor is normally blocked to help the stomach achieve homesostais?

A

Histaminergic Receptor (H²-R)

130
Q

what are the 3 parts of the small intestine?

A
  1. duodenum: 25cm, chyme mixes with pancreatic juices and bile
  2. Jejunum:4m, absorption of Amino Acids, lipids,CHOs, Fe and Ca2+
  3. illeum: 2.5m, absorption of B12 and bile salt
131
Q

what is the primary purpose of the small intestine?

A

absorption

132
Q

what is chyme?

A

compressed food mixed with pepsin and salivary amylase

133
Q

what is secretin?

A

a hormone produced in the S-cells of the duodenum, creating pancreatic bicarbonate, to cause contraction of billary ducts in the liver.

134
Q

what is the purpose of secretin release?

A

This causes bile bile from the gall bladder and duct system move towards the duodenum, which makes food alkaline and starts digesting fats

135
Q

what does bile acid enable?

A

emulsifies fats

136
Q

does the vagus nerve have stimulation of the gall bladder?

A

yes, a weak one

137
Q

what does cholecystokinin do?

A
  1. contracts the gall bladder
  2. relaxes the sphincter of Oddi
138
Q

where does cholecystokinin come from?

A

the bloodstream

139
Q

is bile secretion a postive or negative feedback loop?

A

postivie

140
Q

describe the molecular pathway of pancreatic acinar cells?

A
  1. CO² from blood stream into cell, metabolises with H²O to create H²CO³ (carbonic acid).
  2. H²CO³ quickly dissociates into HCO³ and H+ due to carbonic anhydrase
  3. HCO³ moves into the cell via cotransport with Na+
  4. Na+ also moves into the cell via an antiporter to move H+ into the blood stream
  5. an ATPase pathway recycles K+ between the cell and the bloodstream to move Na+ into the cell, this causes ion flux within the cell
  6. Na+ lastly, moves into the lumen via paracellular transport from the bloodstream “leaky junction”
  7. HCO3- from cotransport and dissociation; moves into the lumen via an antiporter with Cl- moving into the cell
  8. Cl- is recycled back into the lumen by cotranport via the CFTR channel with HCO3-
141
Q

how is pancreatic secretion controlled?

A
  1. 10th Cranial Nerve (Vagus)
  2. Cholecytokine B (CCK)
142
Q

what is the primary function of the large intestine?

A
  1. water absorption
  2. micrbiome maintenance
  3. to reduce waste os water and electrolytes
143
Q

how much material is absorbed via the large intesting, and where?

A

6L/d mostly from the first half of the large intestine (ascending and 2/3 transverse colon)

144
Q

describe the molecular pathway of the large intestine

A
  1. CO² from blood stream into cell, metabolises with H²O to create H²CO³ (carbonic acid).
  2. H²CO³ quickly dissociates into HCO³ and H+ due to carbonic anhydrase
  3. HCO3 moves into the lumen via an antiporter with Cl- moving into the bloodstream
  4. Cl- diffuses out of the cell, into the bloodstream via diffusion
  5. H+ moves into the lumen via and antiporter with Na+, which moves into the cell
  6. an active antiporter recycles K+ between the cell and the bloodstream to move Na+ out of the cell, this causes ion flux within the cell
145
Q

why is both H+ and HCO3- moved int othe lumen of the large intestine?

A

to not have acidic poo

146
Q

why is it bad to be chronically constipated?

A

it causes over absoprtion of toxic substances into the bloodstream (NH4) which can cause death

147
Q

give examples of macronutients

A
  1. carbohydrates
  2. fats
  3. proteins
148
Q

of the macronnutrients, which is the main source of energy?

A

carbohydrates

149
Q

give examples of sugars within the body

A
  1. monosaccarides
  2. glucose
  3. fructose
  4. galactose
150
Q

give an example of disaccarides

A
  1. sucrose (glucose + fructose)
  2. lactose (galactose + glucose) reducing sugards
  3. Maltose (2x glucose) - reducng sugars
151
Q

what is a disaccaride?

A

when two monosaccharides are joined by glycosidic linkage. Like monosaccharides, disaccharides are simple sugars soluble in water.

152
Q

what is a reducing sugar?

A

any sugar that is capable of acting as a reducing agent. (donates electrons)

153
Q

what is starch?

A

complex (amylose + amylopectin)

154
Q

what is glycogen?

A

stored glucose found in muscles (branched polysaccarides)

155
Q

describe carbohydate absorption

A
  1. glucose enters the bloodstream andcomes into contact with the brush border enzymes
  2. the enzymes break down glucose to easier absorption
  3. the socium-glucose-transporter (SGLT) receptor cotransports Na+ and glucose into the cell from the small intestine
  4. a proton pump at the basal of the cell causes an ion flux due to the movement of K+ and Na+ into and out of the cell, water also follows Na+
  5. the ion flux causes the glucose to move to the basal of the cell where is moves into the interstitial fluid via the GLUT-2 receptor
  6. the glucose then moved from the interstitial fluid, into the capillaries and into the bloodstream
156
Q

describe the process of fat absoption

A
  1. large molecules are emusified by bile salt into lipid emulsion
  2. lipid emulsion is further broken down by pancreatic lipase into monoglyceride and free fatty acids
  3. Bile salts breaks down and compacts these into micelles
  4. As micelle is a lipid is diffuses into the cell of the small intestine
  5. micelle dissoves in the cell and releases the MG and FFA, which is carried by a protein to the ER
  6. the ER forms the trigylceride and sends it to the Golgi apparatus, where it is placed in a vesicle of chylomicrons and exocytosed out of the cell into the interstitial fluid.
  7. once in the fluid they are pushed into the lympthatic vessel
157
Q

describe protein obsorption

A
  1. proteins are broken don into amino acids which are then co-transported into the small intestine cell with Na+ fro mthe lume
  2. a Na+ and H+ antiporter moves H+ into the lumen and Na+ into the cell, to enable more water to move into the cell
  3. a proton pump at the basal of the cell causes an ion flux due to the movement of K+ and Na+ into and out of the cell, water also follows Na+
  4. the ion flux causes the amino acid to move to the basal of the cell andinto the blood stream via simple diffusion
158
Q

how much iron do we absorb everyday?

A

~20mg, but only use ~2mg

159
Q

what are the 2 forms and 3 groups of iron?

A
  1. Heme and ferrous iron (Fe2+): aborbs well
  2. non heme iron (Fe3+): not absorbed well
160
Q

where is non heme iron found?

A

in plant based material like spinach

161
Q

what element doesn’t allow Fe2+ absorption?

A

Ca2+

162
Q

describe the process of iron absorption

A
  1. non heme iron contacts the bursh border and is carried into the cell by Heme carrier protein 1 and divalent metal transporter 1
  2. some iron bonds with the protein called proapoferotin and is stored in the cell
  3. some iron moves to basal of cell where the protein ferroportin moves it to the bloodstream
  4. once in the bloodstream a protein called prottransferrin joins with the iron to become transferrin
  5. transferrin moves to where it’s requiireed in the body
163
Q

what hormone controls iron release into the body?

A

Hepcidin

164
Q

how is iron lost in the body?

A
  1. bleeding
  2. periods (cellular sloughing)
165
Q

is the defecation reflex concious or unconcious?

A

both

166
Q

describe the process of defecation

A
  1. feces reaches sygmoid colon and rectum
  2. rectum stretches due to a local reflex (no to brain, concious)
  3. the internal sphincter unconciously relaxes due to pressure
  4. external sphincter conciously relaxes when you are ready to defecate
167
Q

what would happen to the defecation reflex if you had a spinal cord injury?

A

you wouldn’t be able to control the defectaion reflex

168
Q

what % of CO does the kidney use?

A

20%

169
Q

what are the functions of the kidney?

A
  1. homeostasis
  2. waste removal (ammonia, urea, uric acid, creatinine)
  3. formation of urine
  4. endocrine function (renin and erthropoietin (RBC genesis)
  5. osmolarity regulation
  6. acid/base balance
  7. Ca2+ homeostasis
  8. detoxification
170
Q

describe the anatomy of the kidneys

A

2 of them, L and R
attached to a urter, which is attached to a urinary bladder
urethra is attached to the urinary bladder

171
Q

what is the pathway of urine in the kidney?

A
  1. nephron creates urine and drains it into the collecting duct
  2. from the collecting duct the urine moves into the papillary duct (in the pyramid)
  3. from the papillary duct it moves into the minor calyx
  4. then to the major calyx
  5. then to the renal pelvis
  6. then to the ureter
  7. to the bladder
  8. to the urethra
  9. out of the body
172
Q

what is an extension of the renal cortex?

A

renal column

173
Q

how is the structure of the ranal medulla described?

A

pyramid, with an apex and a base

174
Q

where is the proximal and distal convoluted tutble in relation to the kidney?

A

in the renal cortex

175
Q

where is the straight tutbules, loop of henle and collecting duct in relation to the kidney?

A

in the medulla

176
Q

what happens in the Bowman’s capsule?

A

Glomerulus capillaries are stuffed in there so the pressure difference forces out filtrate from the capillaries into the nephron

177
Q

what is thr glomerulus?

A

a bundle of capillaries within the Bowman’s capsule

178
Q

explain the flow of filtrate through a nephron

A
  1. blood flows into glomerulus from afferent capillaries
  2. filtrate leaves the capillaries due to pressure into the Bowman’s Capsule
  3. filtrate moves into the proximal convoluted tubule where molecules and nutrients leave the nephron and move into the kidney for absorption
  4. some glucose left in tubules as it is osmotically active so water will move into the Loop of Henle
  5. H+ and NH3 moves into tubules and into the descending loop of henle, which is permeable to H2O, not NaCl, so filtrate will lose H2O, concentrating the filtrate and raising the osmolarity from 300osmol to max 1200osmol
  6. the base of the loop of henle is at 1200osmol, this creates an isotonic space, so no net movemnt of molecules ocurs here
  7. ascending loop of henle is permeable to NaCl, so NaCl will move into the kidney, reducing the osmolarty back to 300osmol
  8. within the distal convoluted tubule HCO3-, NaCl and H2O is absorbed into the kidney, HCO3- to keep the pH balance, K+ and H+ is taken intothe nephron
  9. within the outer medulla ADH will activate aquaporins on the collecting duct to absorb more water into the body to reduce dehyration
179
Q

does the kidney have it’s own nerve supply?

A

Yes

180
Q

is the kidney innervated by the PNS or SNS?

A

both, has control over RAAS (blood pressure)

181
Q

what is the network of capillared called within the kidneys and around the nephrons?

A

Counter current exchange

182
Q

does the ureter have it’s own blood supply?

A

Yes

183
Q

is the ureter innervated by the PNS or SNS ?

A

both

184
Q

which artery supplies blood to the ureter?

A

Renal artery, it partners with regional vessels along the way

185
Q

what are the 3 areas of constriction in the ureter?

A
  1. pelviuritary junction (PUJ)
  2. iliac blood vessel crossover
  3. vesicle uriteric junction (meets bladder)
186
Q

where are kidneystones most likely to be found?

A

in the areas of contriction within the ureter

187
Q

how much urine does the bladder hold?

A

~250-300ml

188
Q

what happens to the bladder lining when empty?

A

it folds into itself to create rugae

189
Q

what is rugae?

A

a series of ridges due to the folding of an organ, e.g. in stomach and bladder

190
Q

what is the triangular area of a bladder that doesn’t form rugae?

A

the trigone of the bladder

191
Q

is the bladder controlled by the SNS or PNS?

A

both

192
Q

which nerves acivate the PNS of the bladder?

A

Nervi Erigentes (S2-4)

193
Q

explain the control of urination

A
  1. bladder fills a signal is sent to lower spinal cord to activate a local reflex
  2. local reflex arch synpases with interneurons, efferent neurons in symp. ganglia to innervate the bladder wall.
  3. detrusor muscles in the wall and sphincters of the bladder are innervated to contract and relax respectively.
  4. when holding bladder (voluntary) afferent signals sent to pons control mechanism to hold pee in
  5. due to involuntary control from local reflex has relaxed musclesand sphincters some urine is in the urethra, which activates the sensation of needing to pee.
194
Q

is urination a local or central reflex?

A

it is a local reflex, with central control, this gives the sensation of needing to pee, without wetting yourself

195
Q

how much body fluid does a body generall hold?

A

~30-40L

196
Q

what is the plasma osmolality generally held at?

A

275-295mOsm/kg

197
Q

what ratio is plasma within the ECF and ICF in the human body?

A

2:1

198
Q

within the extra cellular fluid, how much plasma is within the interstitial fluid?

A

about 3/4

199
Q

what happens to fluid particles when temperature increases?

A

they become more active

200
Q

what is a uniport carrier?

A

where 1 cell is moved into or out of a cell

201
Q

what is a symport carrier?

A

where 2 particles move in the same direction

201
Q

what is an antiport carrier?

A

when 2 particles move in opposite directions

202
Q

Describe the counter current multiplier system

A

When the proximal convoluted tubule filtration moves into the loops of Henle. Here the osmolality increases from 300 to 1200 osmol due to absorption of water into the kidney. It then drop back to 300ml in the asce ding loop of henle because Na and Cl move out of it and into the kidney. This cases the capillaries within the loop of henle space to fluctuate in pressure

This Flux is the counter current system

203
Q

What happens to the pituitary gland when there’s too much salt in the body?

A

It release ADH, which encourages the collecting duct to absorb more water, retaining it, instead of peeing it out.

204
Q

Is urine regulation controlled by a local or central mechanism?

A

Central: the pituitary gland

205
Q

What does ADH do to the collecting tubules of nephrons?

A

It opens more aqaporins on the collecting duct to absorb more water back into the body

206
Q

What happens to urine if it’s hypotonic?

A

Sodium is reabosrbed to the body to make it isotonic

207
Q

What happend to urine if it’s hypertonic?

A

More water is reabosrbed back into the body through aquaporins, to create an isotonic balance

208
Q

What is Glomerular Filtration Rate? (GFR)

A

How the function of the kidney is described.

The amount of blood flowing through the glomerulia at and given time.

The flow of plasma from glomerulus to bowmans space over a specified period of time

209
Q

What could happen if the GFR drops?

A

Death

210
Q

What factors influence GFR?

A
  1. Renal flow and perfusion pressure (RAAS)
  2. Surface area (damage=more toxins)
  3. Hydrostatic pressure: fluid compartment (water)
211
Q

What is a normal Renal Blood Flow (RBF)

A

About 1200ml/minute

212
Q

What is total renal vascular resistance is RBF dependent upon?

A
  1. SNS*
  2. Adrenaline*
  3. Noradrenaline*
  4. Endothelin
  5. Renin*
  6. Angiotensin 2*
  7. Prostaglandin
  8. Glucose and protein increase (sometimes)
213
Q

What is the equation to find pressure in Ren artery?

A

Pressure in renal artery - pressure in renal vein

214
Q

What is urinary secretion dependent upon?

A

GFR: reduced GFR = Reduced secretion of toxins, so more urea will build in the body

215
Q

How else can we remove urea fro mthe vody?

A

Sweat, causing a crustiness on the skin

216
Q

What do kidneys excrete to maintain homeostasis?

A

Cations and anions

217
Q

What molecules are reabsorbed from the nephron tubules to maintain homeostasis?

A

Na+, K+, Ca²+,PO⁴-, Mg²+, Cl-, HCO³-

218
Q

How do molecules move from glomerulus to bowmans space?

A

Hydrostatic pressure

219
Q

How is the counter current multiplier triggered?

A

By sensors in the heart and blood vessels

220
Q

What does the counter current multiplier prevent?

A

Large quantities of urine being diluted daily

221
Q

What is the name of the blood vessels inside the loop of henle?

A

Vasa recta

222
Q

What happens in acidosis in the kidney?

A

More HCO³- is reaborbed, collecting ducts secrete more H+, which creates more bicarbonate and NH³, so a buffer is formed

223
Q

What happens in alkalosis?

A

Kidney excretes more HCO³- and reduces secretion of H+, more NH³ is secreted

224
Q

How can the body become imbalanced regarding acidosis or alkalosis?

A

Either metabolically or respiratory

225
Q

What 2 organs work together to create and acid base balance?

A

Kidneys and lungs

226
Q

What can increase acidosis?

A
  1. Excercise (breathing in mor CO²)
  2. Diabetic keto acidosis: too much glucose, not enough insulin to control it, which breaks down fats faster and releases ketones, which are acidic
227
Q

What can cause alkalosis?

A

Vomiting: H+ ions are lost

228
Q

How does RAAS help control the acid base balance?

A

It increases and decreases blood pressure to facilitate exchange of ions accordingly

229
Q

Describe the RAAS

A
  1. Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System
  2. Increase SNS, decrease pressure, Na+ delivery to tubules
  3. Renin activates ans reacts to angiotensinogen that has been released from the liver
  4. This converts to angiotensin 1, which is converted into angiotensin 2 by the angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) from the lungs.
  5. Angiotensin 2 will increase vascular resistance, so the blood pressure increases, so mor Na+ will flow through nephrons, achieving homeostasis
230
Q

What does aldosterone do to NaCl in the collecting duct?

A

Absorbs NaCl to make urine less concentrated

231
Q

What is Erythropoietin (EPO)?

A

A hormone mainly created by the kidney and a little bit from the liver

232
Q

What is the purpose of erythropoietin?

A

Produce red blood cells

233
Q

How does erthropoietin keep rbc and oxygen stable?

A

Through a dynamic feedback loop

234
Q

Does increated erythropoietin increase or decrease O²?

A

Increase

235
Q

Does erythropoietin move to bone marrow?

A

Yes

236
Q

Is erythroproeitin active for a short or long time?

A

Long time

237
Q

What areas of the body does erythroproetin affect?

A
  1. Endothelium
  2. Heart
  3. Muscle
  4. White fat
  5. Brain
  6. Bone marrow
238
Q

Is erythropoietin inverse to O²?

A

Yes

239
Q

Where is vit D found in the body?

A
  1. Liver
  2. Kidney
  3. Skin
  4. Immune cells
  5. Parathyroid gland
  6. Intestinal epithelium
  7. Prostate
  8. Breast
240
Q

Describe the vitamin D pathway

A

1a. Food
1b.From sunlight on the skin via UVB.
2. Converts to 7 dehydrocholesterol
3. Converts to previtamin D
4. Converts to Vitam D, which is done in the liver
5. Metabolises into 25 hydroxy vitamin D
6. Converts to 250 HD³ in the kidney

241
Q

What is the main enzyme to produce 125 hihydroxy vit D?

A

Renal 1 hydroxylase

242
Q

What area of the body produce renal 1 hydroxylase?

A

Parathyroid hormone FGF23, calcium and phosphate

243
Q

What are cytokines dependent on for vit D?

A

The regulation of extra renal hydroxylase

244
Q

How is vitamin D carried in the blood?

A
  1. Vitamin D-binding-protein
  2. Albumin
245
Q

What can vitamin D protect you from?

A
  1. Cancer
  2. Blood pressure
  3. Heart disease
  4. Immunitilogical disorders
246
Q

How is calcium and phosphorus regulated in the body?

A

By 125 dihydroxy from the kidney and parathyroid hormone (PTH)

247
Q

How is calcium and phosphorus regulated in the body?

A

By 125 dihydroxy from the kidney and parathyroid hormone

248
Q

Where is the major site of synthesis for 1 alpha 25 dihydroxy vitamin D?

A

Kidney

249
Q

How is 25 hydroxy vitamin D 1 alpha regulated?

A
  1. Parathyroid hormone
  2. Fibroblast growth factor
  3. 23 FGF
  4. Inorganic phosphorous
250
Q

Does the kidney have a receptor for 1 alpha dihydroxy vitamin D?

A

Yes

251
Q

Is Ca²+ an intracellular or extracellular messenger?

A

Both

252
Q

What’s percentages is calcium bound in to move around the body?

A

40% protein bound
10% in an anion complex like citrate and sulphate
50% freeform

253
Q

Why is Ca²+ tightly regulated?

A

Because any discrepancy can cause significant damage to the body as it influences so much

254
Q

Where is 99% of calcium reabsorbed?

A

In the renal tubules of the nephron in the kidneys

255
Q

What 3 tissues regulate plasma phosphate regulation?

A
  1. Bone tissue
  2. Intestinal tissue
  3. Kidneys
256
Q

What are the major factors of regulation for plasma phosphate?

A
  1. Parathyroid hormone
  2. Vitamin D and fibrogrowth factor 23 (FGF 23)
257
Q

Describe the plasma phosphate regulation

A
  1. Increase of plasma phosphate causes a release of: PTH and FGF23
  2. Increase of PTH increases calcitriol synthesis and phosphate excretion
  3. FGF23 causes a reduction of calcitriol and increases phosphate excretion
258
Q

How does calcitriol affect plasma phosphate levels?

A

It stimulates Ca²+ ans PO⁴(³-) uptake in GIT ans reabsoption in renal

259
Q

How does the parathyroid hormone regulate plasma phosphate?

A

Stimulates the rapid transfer of Ca²+ and PO⁴(³-) from bone to increase PO⁴(³-) excretion and reabosrbtion of Ca²+

260
Q

How does FGF23 regulate plasma phosphate?

A

Increases the excretion of PO⁴(³-) and reabsorption of Ca²+

Biom1071 (6 decks)

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