Module 3 - The Antipsychotic Market Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

What are 2 main side effects of 1st gen antipsychotics?

A

EPS and Tardive Dyskinesia

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2
Q

What is EPS?

A

Extrapyramidal symptoms
- spasms, tremors

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3
Q

What is Tardive Dyskinesia?

A

irregular, jerky movements

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4
Q

What pathway is overactive in schizophrenia?

A

Mesolimbine (increase da)

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5
Q

How do conventional antipsychotics reduce positive symptoms?

A

Blocking D2 in the mesolimbic pathway

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6
Q

Can D2 antagonism be selectively delivered to the mesolimbic pathway?

A

No, it gets delivered to the entire brain. blockade of d2 in other pathways results in undesirable side effects

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7
Q

Is the mesocortical pathway in a person with schizophrenia thought to be already underactive or overactive?

A

Underactive

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8
Q

What does treatment with a d2 antagonist do in the mesocortical pathway, and what are the side effects associated?

A

Decrease dopamine to the prefrontal cortex, resulting in worsened negative and cognitive symptoms

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9
Q

What are the 5 EPS symptoms that occur when there is D2 antagonism to the nigrostriatal pathway?

A
  • Tremor
  • Rigidity
  • Dystonia (movement disorders)
  • Akinesia (absence/ loss of control of voluntary muscle control)
  • Bradykinesia (slow movements)
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10
Q

How does D2 antagonism lead to tardive dyskinesia?

A

If the D2-r are chronically blocked, the neurons compensate by producing more D2-r AKA Upregulate

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11
Q

What are 4 symptoms related to Tardive dyskinesia?

A
  • Constant chewing
  • Tongue protrusion
  • Facial grimacing
  • Jerky limb movements
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12
Q

What occurs to prolactin when there is D2 antagonism in the tuberofundibular pathway?

A

PLT increases

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13
Q

What side effects are associated with Hyperprolactinaemia?

A

irregular; breast secretion, sx fx, bone demineralisations, periods.

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14
Q

What is the term for too much Prolactin?

A

Hyperprolactinaemia

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15
Q

How long have atypicals existed?

A

20 years

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16
Q

What receptor is ALSO antagonised in atypicals?

A

5-HT2A

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17
Q

What happens when 5-HT2A-r are antagonised?

A

Disinhibits release of DA. Therefore more is available in the synapse

18
Q

Name 3 partial D2 agonists.

A

Ambilify, Rexulti, Reagila

19
Q

Where are 5-HT2A-r most abundant and what is the effect?

A

Mesocortical Pathway, net result is improved negative symptoms

20
Q

What is PANSS and what does it stand for?

A

Schitzophnrenia rating scale
Positive And Negative Syndrome Scale

21
Q

What is BPRS and what does it stand for?

A

Measures major psychotic and non-psychotic symptoms

Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale

22
Q

What is CGI and what does it stand for?

A

Measure overall illness severity/ used to measure the effectiveness of treatment.

Clinical Global Impression

23
Q

What is CGI-S v CGI-I

A

s= Severity of illness v I= improvement

24
Q

What is PSP?

A

Clinician rated assessment

Personal Social Performance

25
Which rating system can be rated by a clinician but not another professional?
PSP
26
Olanzapine brand name
Zyprexa
27
Quetiapine brand name
Seroquel
28
What is a common 1st line for patients with acute/severe positive symptoms and poor sleep?
Zyprexa/ Olanzapine
29
Give 2 pros to Olanzapine.
- gold standard in efficacy - flexible dosing
30
Give 3 cons to Olanzapine.
- WG - Sedating - Diabetes potential
31
What is the MOA of Quetiapine?
Antagonises D1, D2, 5-HT2-r
32
What medication is sometimes used as an adjunct for sleep and breakthrough symptoms?
Seroquel/ Quetiapine
33
Why are higher doses used in Seroquel and what is a con of this?
Considered effective at higher doses (but also leads to side effects)
34
Risperidone brand name
Risperdal
35
Assign high or low affinity to the following receptors (Risperdal): a1 a2 5-HT1a 5-HT2a 5-HT7 D2 H1
high both a1, a2 1a - lower 2a, 7 - high d2, h1 - high
36
Would Risperidone be better suited for severe or moderate patients?
Moderate
37
What patients should exercise caution when using Risperdal and why?
young women, due to risk of hyperprolactinemia --> parkinsonism
38
Which medications are not recommended for the acute management of schizophrenia?
extended-release (long-acting injectable)
39
Which 6 medications are available as LAI?
Abilify Invega Sustenna Invega Trinza Invega Hafyra Risperdal Consta Zyprexa Relprevv
40
How Is Treatment-Resistant Schizophrenia Treated?
Clozapine
41
What 2 class warnings do antipsychotics carry related to cardiometabolic health?
Hyperglycaemia DM
42
Based on the 2016 RANZCP, how often should someone have their lipid profile monitored?
every 6-12 months