Module 5 GI Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is not a bacterial cause of gastroenteritis?

a) campylobacter jejuni
b) salmonella
c) C. diff
d) enterobacteriaceae
e) C. perfringens

A

Answer: d) enterobacteriaceae

Other bacteria include: S. aureus, shigella (most common in kids), and E. coli

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2
Q

Which bacteria responsible for gastroenteritis is reportable?

a) campylobacter jejuni
b) salmonella
c) C. diff
d) enterobacteriaceae
e) shigella

A

Answer: shigella

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3
Q

True or false, to diagnose gastroenteritis, usually no diagnostic testing is needed?

A

True. A stool culture can be done to determine causative organism if needed.

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4
Q

Match the bacteria involved with gastroenteritis with the onset period:

a) campylobacter jejuni
b) salmonella
c) C. diff
d) S. aureus
e) C. perfringens
f) shigella
g) Giardia (protozoan)

1) 30 min-6 hours
2) 12-26 hours
3) 2-4 days
4) 10 hours-6 days
5) 1-7 days
6) 1-4 weeks
7) n/a

A

S. aureus: 30 min-6 hours

Salmonella: 12-26 hours

Shigella: 2-4 days

E.coli: 10 hr-6 days

Campylobacter: 1-7 days

Giardia: 1-4 week

C. Diff: n/a

“SSSECGC”= Sally sells seashells every corner grocery case?”

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5
Q

Treatment is not recommended for which of the following bacteria involved in gastroenteritis (choose all that apply):

a) Campylobacter
b) Shigella
c) Salmonella
d) Giardia
e) S. aureus

A

Answer: c& e

Treatment with antibiotics of S. aureus and salmonella is generally not recommended

Note: salmonella in at risk patients can be treated with Bactrim or Cipro

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6
Q

Which causative organisms of gastroenteritis are treated with bactrim or cipro (choose all that apply)?

a) Campylobacter
b) Shigella
c) Salmonella
d) E. coli
e) S. aureus

A

Answer: b& d

Shigella and E. coli

Shigella-Bactrim BID q3-5 days; if outside US (cipro Q10days)

E. Coli-Bactrim BID q3days; cipro alternative

Note: at risk patients with Salmonella can be treated with bactrim or cipro also

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7
Q

Treatment of choice for campylobacter is:

a) Bactrim
b) Erythromycin
c) Metronidazole
d) Ciprofloxacin

A

Answer: b) erythromycin or cipro

Erythromycin QID for 5 days or Cipro BID q7days

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8
Q

Which organisms involved with gastroenteritis are treated with metronidazole?

a) C. diff
b) Shigella
c) Salmonella
d) Giardia
e) S. aureus

A

Answer: A&D

C. diff is treated with metronidazole 500 mg TID or 250 mg QID+vancomycin 125 mg QID

Giardia is treated with metronidazole 250 mg TID q5-7days

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9
Q

Which medication can be used for nausea and vomiting in pregnant patients (choose all that apply):

a) diclegis (Doxylamine-pyridoxine)
b) promethazine (phenergan)
c) ondansetron (zofran)
d) prochlorperazine (Compazine)

A

Answer: a & c

Diclegis is the only one approved for this in pregnancy & ondansetron.

Note: ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist

Prochlorperazine is contraindicated in pregnancy
Phenergan is a teratogen

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10
Q

What medications are safe for kids to treat nausea and vomiting, choose all that apply:

a) metoclopramide (Reglan)
b) promethazine (phenergan)
c) ondansetron (zofran)
d) prochlorperazine (Compazine)

A

Answer: b, c, d

Metoclopramide is the only one NOT safe for children.

Note: scopolamine is not recommended for kids.

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11
Q

What medication is used for nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy?

a) metoclopramide (Reglan)
b) promethazine (phenergan)
c) ondansetron (zofran)
d) prochlorperazine (Compazine)
e) dolasetron mesylate

A

Answer: e) dolasetron mesylate

Can be given to adults and children 1 hour prior to chemo

SE: diarrhea, HA, QT prolongation, serotonin syndrome

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12
Q

Match the age appropriate for the indicated medication (if applicable):

a) metoclopramide (Reglan)
b) promethazine (phenergan)
c) ondansetron (zofran)
d) prochlorperazine (Compazine)

1) ages 2+
2) ages 4+
3) not safe at any age

A

A) metoclopramide: not safe at any age
B) promethazine: ages 2+
C) ondansetron: ages 4+
D) prochlorperazine: ages 2+

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13
Q

What nausea/vomiting medications are on the Beer’s list:

a) metoclopramide (Reglan)
b) promethazine (phenergan)
c) ondansetron (zofran)
d) prochlorperazine (Compazine)
e) dolasetron mesylate

A

Answer: b & d

Promethazine & Proclorperazine are on Beer’s list for those ages 65+

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14
Q

True or false, constipation in anyone aged 50+ is a red flag for colorectal neoplasm?

A

True

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15
Q

What is the stepwise approach to GERD management:

Phase 1:
Phase 2:
Phase 3:

A

Phase 1: lifestyle+antacids
Phase 2: H2 blockers
Phase 3: PPI, if symptoms persist refer to endoscopy

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16
Q

First line pharmacologic treatment for GERD is?

a) antacids
b) PPIs
c) H2 blockers
d) barrier agents
e) prokinetics

A

Answer: b&c

H2 blockers (ranitidine and famotidine)

PPIs are also first line “prazoles”

Note: PPIs are also 1st line and more effective than H2 blockers

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17
Q

Side effects of PPIs include:

a) B12 deficiency
b) hip fracture
c) hypermagnesemia
d) C. diff
e) blood dyscrasias

A

Answer: a,b,d

PPIs can cause: hip fractures, B12 deficiency, C. diff, community acquired pneumonia, and hypomagesemia

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18
Q

Side effects of H2 blockers include:

a) B12 deficiency
b) hip fracture
c) decreased renal clearance
d) QT prolongation
e) blood dyscrasias

A

Answer: a)B12 deficiency and d) QT prolongation

Note: H2 blockers dosage needs to be decreased if CrCl<50

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19
Q

2nd line pharmacologic treatment for GERD is:

a) antacids
b) PPIs
c) H2 blockers
d) barrier agents
e) prokinetics

A

Answer: a, d, e

Second line agents: antacids, barrier agent (sucralfate) and prokinetics (metoclopramide)

Note: Metoclopramide can cause blood dyscrasias if given with PPI/H2; also has risk of tardive dyskinesia

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20
Q

What drugs can PPIs/H2 blockers interact with:

a) metoclopramide
b) warfarin
c) phenytoin
d) digoxin
e) lasix

A

Answer: a,b,c,d

PPIs/H2 blockers are metabolized in P450 so they will prolong diazepam, warfarin, phenytoin,

Note: when given with metoclopramide they can cause blood dyscrasias

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21
Q

True or false, pediatric patients can take liquid PPIs/H2 blockers?

A

True

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22
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of peptic ulcer disease:

a) NSAIDS
b) corticosteroids
c) radiation
d) H. pylori
e) stress

A

Answer: e) stress

PUD is NOT caused by stress, spicy foods, or emotional distress

23
Q

Duodenal ulcers are (relieved/exacerbated) by food and (relieved/exacerbated) by antacids. Whereas gastric ulcers are (relieved/exacerbated) by food and (relieved/exacerbated) by antacids.

A

Answer:

Duodenal ulcers are RELIEVED by food and RELIEVED by antacids. Whereas gastric ulcers are EXACERBATED by food and RELIEVED by antacids.

24
Q

True or false, NSAID-induced ulcers are usually silent.

25
True or false, gastric ulcers are more common than duodenal?
False, duodenal ulcers are 4x more common than gastric.
26
Which of the following is a diagnostic tool used for peptic ulcer disease? a) ultrasound b) H. pylori testing c) stool sample d) CBC
Answer: b & d CBC, H. pylori testing Note: consider endoscopy if no improvement after 8-12 weeks of treatment
27
How long should PUD be treated with either PPIs/H2 blockers initially?
4-8 weeks
28
What is the treatment approach to H. pylori induced ulcers?
Quadruple therapy
29
What does quadruple therapy involve for H. Pylori ulcers?
14 days of "CAMP": clarithromycin BID, amoxicillin BID, metronidazole BID, PPI Or: 14 days of: Bismuth, tetracycline, metronidazole BID, PPI
30
What medication is likely causing the patient to have a black tongue and black stools? a) metronidazole b) clarithromycin c) metoclopramide d) bismuth
Answer: d)bismuth Note: it contains aspirin so use caution
31
What medication can pregnant patients with PUD take? a) H2 blockers b) PPI c) sucralfate d) antacids
Answer: b) PPIs but use caution
32
A patient presents with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and fever. What is a likely diagnosis? a) peptic ulcer disease b) diverticulitis c) Crohn's disease d) ulcerative colitis
Answer: b)diverticullitis or d) ulcerative colitis Crohn's disease typically does not present with bloody diarrhea
33
What age range is ulcerative colitis most prevalent in (choose all that apply): a) ages 10-20 years b) ages 15-40 years c) ages 20-55 years d) ages 30-65 years e) ages 50-80 years
Answer: b & e The first peak is at ages 15-40 years and a secondary peak occurs (smaller peak) at ages 50-80 years
34
Which is not a cause of or contributing factor to peptic ulcer disease? a) stress b) NSAIDs c) tobacco & alcohol d) H. pylori e) hypersecretion syndromes f) medications g) radiation g) spicy foods
Answer: a) stress and g) spicy foods All of the other choices can contribute to PUD
35
How do you differentiate ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?
See notes
36
Which of the following are consistent with ulcerative colitis: a) involves the rectum b) bleeding c) granulomas d) transmural inflammation e) skip lesions
Answer: a,b UC involves the rectum (usually the colon) and causes bleeding. Granulomas, transmural inflammation and skip lesions are consistent with Crohn's disease
37
Which of the following are consistent with Crohn's disease: a) involves the rectum b) skip lesions c) bleeding d) fissures e) weight loss f) fat soluble vitamin deficiency
Answer: b,d,e,f Crohn's disease involves skip lesions, inflammation which can cause fissures/abscesses, weight loss due to frequent diarrhea/malabsorption, which can also lead to decreased absorption of fat soluble vitamins like D (note: B12 can be decreased and lead to anemia).
38
Which is the treatment of mild to moderate ulcerative colitis? a) steroid enema b) azathioprine c) mesalamine d) Humira e) budesonide
Answer: c) mesalamaine (Pentasa) Treatment of mild-moderate UC is 5-ASA which is Pentasa, Lialda, Apriso. The next option would be rectal 5-ASA
39
If a patient is unresponsive to steroids in managing ulcerative colitis, what is the next treatment option? a) sulfasalazine b) methotrexate c) Remicade d) azathioprine
Answer: d) azathioprine If unresponsive to steroids the next step is immune modulators (azathioprine & 6-mercaptopurine). If unsuccessful treatment there, the next step is biologics (Humira or Remicade)
40
What is the first line of treatment for mild to moderate Crohn's disease? a) budesonide b) azathioprine c) mesalamine d) Humira e) prednisone
Answer: a) budesonide is given 9 mg daily x 8 weeks
41
What medication is given for acute Crohn's and maintenance? a) budesonide b) azathioprine c) mesalamine d) Humira e) prednisone
Answer: c) mesalamine 5-ASA are given and include Mesalamine & sulfasalazine Remember: in ulcerative colitis only the 5-ASA without sulfa are given such as mesalamine to achieve and maintain remission.
42
Which is not a risk of developing Crohn's disease: a) alcohol b) refined sugar rich diet c) cigarette smoking d) diet rich in animal fat e) age 15-40
Answer: a & e Risks include: a diet rich in refined sugar/fat, cigarette smoking, a bacterial infection (C. diff)
43
Which inflammatory bowel disease process is actually protected by smoking?
Ulcerative colitis Remember: Crohn's risk is almost doubled with smoking
44
Which of the following is not included in the Rome criteria (choose all that apply)? a) improvement/worsening of pain with defecation b) change in stool frequency c) nocturnal pain or passing stools d) change in stool appearance e) GI bleed
Answer: c&e Rome criteria is used to help diagnose IBS. It is recurrent abdominal pain 1+ day/week in the past 3 months plus one of the following: Improvement/worsening of pain with defecation Change in stool frequency Change in stool appearance
45
Which is not a medication used for IBS in women ONLY: a) Alosetron (Lotronex) b) Lubiprostone (Amitiza) c) Tegaserod (Zelnorm) d) Linaclotide (Linzess)
Answer: d) Linaclotide (Linzess) can be used in men and women Note: alosetron (Lotronex) is linked with ischemic colitis and death
46
True or false, SSRIs can be useful in managing IBS?
False. Tricyclic antidepressants can be helpful.
47
Risk factors for diverticulitis include (choose all that apply): a) obesity b) low fiber diet c) smoking d) female gender e) rapid weight loss
Answer: a,b,c Risks include: age 40+, low fiber diet, smoking, sedentary lifestyle, and previous diverticulitis
48
True or false, any type of scope (flex sig, colonoscopy) is appropriate to perform during an acute diverticulitis episode?
False. It is generally contraindicated.
49
What is the bowel rest regimen for managing an acute diverticulitis episode?
NPO-->clear liquid 3 days-->low residue 5-7 days-->high fiber
50
Mainstays of diverticulitis treatment are: a) imipenem b) fluoroquinolone c) rifaximin d) piperacillin/tazobactim
Answer: c) rifaximin 400 mg BID q7days or continuous mesalamine 800 mg BID Note: antibiotic use is controversial
51
What foods should a patient with diverticulosis avoid? a) oatmeal b) popcorn/corn c) nuts d) seeds
Answer: b,c,d These foods should be avoided as they can become lodged and produce diverticulitis
52
What medications are appropriate for the initial management of Alzheimer's? a) Memantine (Namenda) b) Levodopa/Caribdopa (Sinemet) c) SSRIs d) Galantamine (Reminyl) e) Donepezil (Aricept)
Answer: d&e These drugs will increase the level of acetylcholine (which is impaired in Alzeheimer's). Another option is rivastigmine (Exelon) Note: use caution when combining these with beta-blockers
53
What medication can be used for moderate-severe Alzheimer's (or if patients cannot tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors)? a) Memantine (Namenda) b) Levodopa/Caribdopa (Sinemet) c) SSRIs d) Galantamine (Reminyl)
Answer: a) Memantine (Namenda) Note: need to adjust for renal impairment