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PCP210 > Modules 1,2,3 collaborate PPT's > Flashcards

Modules 1,2,3 collaborate PPT's Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common causes of spontaneous abortion in the 1st trimester?

A

Fetal genetic abnormalities

Maternal conditions can also contribute in the 2nd trimester.

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2
Q

What types of spontaneous abortion exist?

A
  • Threatened
  • Inevitable
  • Incomplete
  • Complete
  • Missed
  • Habitual
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3
Q

What are the signs of spontaneous abortion?

A
  • Vaginal bleeding
  • Cramping
  • Contractions
  • Pain
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4
Q

What is the definition of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Ovum implantation outside the uterus, often in the fallopian tube.

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5
Q

What are the signs of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Abdominal pain with spotting (6-8 weeks after missed period).

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6
Q

What is the treatment for ectopic pregnancy?

A
  • Methotrexate (medical)
  • Salpingostomy or salpingectomy (surgical)
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7
Q

What is placenta previa?

A

Placenta implants over cervical os.

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8
Q

What are the signs of placenta previa?

A

Painless, bright red bleeding in 2nd/3rd trimester.

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9
Q

What is the management for placenta previa?

A
  • Monitor bleeding
  • Avoid vaginal exams
  • Prepare for C-section
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10
Q

What is abruptio placentae?

A

Premature separation of placenta.

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11
Q

What are the signs of abruptio placentae?

A
  • Dark red bleeding
  • Severe pain
  • Uterine tenderness
  • Fetal distress
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12
Q

What is the management for hypertensive disorders in pregnancy?

A
  • Bed rest
  • Magnesium sulfate
  • Antihypertensives
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13
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets.

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14
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A
  • Severe nausea/vomiting
  • Dehydration
  • Weight loss (>5%)
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15
Q

What is the management for blood incompatibility?

A

Rh immunoglobulin at 28 weeks.

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16
Q

What is polyhydramnios?

A

Excess fluid (>20 cm AFI); risk of preterm labor.

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17
Q

What is oligohydramnios?

A

Low fluid (<5 cm AFI); risk of fetal distress.

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18
Q

What is the management for premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?

A
  • Monitor infection
  • Avoid digital exams
  • Expectant management
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19
Q

What is the first stage of labor?

A

Cervical dilation, contractions intensify.

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20
Q

What is the second stage of labor?

A

Full cervical dilation, crowning, and birth.

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21
Q

What is the third stage of labor?

A

Placenta delivery and uterine contraction.

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22
Q

What are key prehospital interventions for supine hypotension?

A

Place pregnant women in left lateral position.

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23
Q

What is the management for postpartum hemorrhage?

A
  • Control bleeding
  • Massage fundus
  • Rapid transport
24
Q

What is the APGAR score used for?

A

Assess newborn health at 1 and 5 minutes.

25
What are common neonatal conditions?
* Hypothermia * Hypoglycemia * Meconium aspiration * Respiratory distress
26
What is the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)?
A tool used to form a general impression of a pediatric patient. Involves appearance, work of breathing, and circulation. | Used for rapid classification of severity.
27
What does the 'Appearance' component of PAT assess?
* Tone * Interactiveness * Consolability * Look/gaze * Speech/cry
28
What are the signs of shoulder dystocia?
Turtle sign, delayed delivery, prolonged second stage of labour, failure to deliver anterior shoulder.
29
What is the management for a prolapsed cord?
Elevate hips, avoid cord compression, moist dressing.
30
What are the four stages of syphilis?
Primary, secondary, latent, tertiary.
31
What does the TICLS mnemonic stand for?
Tone, Interactiveness, Consolability, Look, Speech
32
What are signs of work of breathing?
Grunting, wheezing, nasal flaring, retractions
33
What are the signs of circulation issues?
Pallor, mottling, cyanosis
34
What are common respiratory emergencies in pediatrics?
* Upper/lower airway obstruction * Lung tissue disease * Disordered breathing
35
What fluid bolus is recommended for hypovolemic shock in pediatrics?
20 ml/kg
36
What fluid bolus is recommended for cardiogenic shock in pediatrics?
5-10 ml/kg
37
What is the treatment for hypoglycemia in pediatrics?
D10W (2 ml/kg IV)
38
What is the management for trauma in pediatrics?
Maintain spinal precautions, monitor for internal injuries
39
When should chest compressions be initiated in pediatrics?
If pulse <60 bpm despite ventilation
40
What is the purpose of IV/IO access in emergencies?
Used for rapid fluid/medication administration
41
When should epinephrine be administered in pediatric emergencies?
If bradycardia persists after CPR
42
What are the stages of labour?
* First Stage: Cervical dilation * Second Stage: Full cervical dilation, crowning, birth * Third Stage: Placenta delivery and uterine contraction
43
What are common causes of spontaneous abortion in the first trimester?
Fetal genetic abnormalities
44
What are the types of spontaneous abortion?
* Threatened * Inevitable * Incomplete * Complete * Missed * Habitual
45
What is an ectopic pregnancy?
Ovum implantation outside the uterus, often in the fallopian tube
46
What are the signs of an ectopic pregnancy?
Abdominal pain with spotting (6-8 weeks after missed period)
47
What is the normal pulse rate for a newborn?
120-160 bpm
48
What is the APGAR Score used for?
Assessment of newborn at 1 and 5 minutes
49
What are the components assessed in the APGAR Score?
* Respiration * Pulse * Muscle tone * Reflexes * Skin color
50
What should be done if a newborn is apneic or has a pulse <100 bpm?
Start bag-mask ventilation (40-60 breaths/min)
51
What should be done if a newborn's pulse is <60 bpm?
Begin chest compressions (3:1 ratio with ventilation)
52
What is the first stage of labour characterized by?
Cervical dilation and intensifying contractions
53
What should be done for postpartum hemorrhage?
Fundal massage, oxytocin, transport
54
True or False: Shoulder dystocia can be managed with the McRoberts maneuver.
True
55
Fill in the blank: The umbilical cord clamping triggers a _______.
circulation change
56

PCP210 (3 decks)

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