Molecular biochem Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

What pathway is CPS I (carbamoyl-phosphate-synthetase) used in? Location? Nitrogen source

A

Urea cycle. Mitochondria. Ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What pathway is CPS II (carbamoyl-phosphate-synthetase) used in? Location? Nitrogen source

A

Pyrimidine synthesis (rate limiting step). Cytosol. Glutamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the rate limiting step in purine synthesis?

A

PRPP amidotransferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the rate limiting step in pyrimidine synthesis?

A

CPS II (carbamoyl-phosphate-synthetase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

**What are the sources of carbons in the formation of purines?

A

Glycine, CO2, Tetrahydrofolate. Aspartate and glutamine are also essential (donate nitrogens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

**What are the carbon sources in pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Aspartate and CO2. (CO2 and glutamine form carbamoyl phosphate).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What accounts for the positive charge of histones.

A

Lysine and Arginine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What accounts for the negative charge of DNA

A

phosphate groups on nucleoTides (vs nucleosides which are simply base + ribose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many adenine residues are found in a molecule of DNA if one strand contains A =2000, G = 500, C= 1500, and T= 1000.

A

3000 (2000 on this side, plus 1000 on the other since there are 1000 T’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What strand of DNA nucleotides opposes the strand 5’ ATTGCGTA 3’

A

TACGCAAT (3’ TAACGCAT 5’). MUST MAKE SURE TO WRITE IT 5’ ->3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which med? Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

A

Hydroxyurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which med? Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

A

Methotrexate and trimethoprime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which med? inhibits PRPP synthetase

A

6-MP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which med? inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

A

Mycophenylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which med? inhibits thymidylate synthase

A

5-FU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the characteristic features of orotic aciduria?

A

Orotic acid in the urine. Megaloblastic anemia that is not correctable with vitamin B12 or folate. Failure to thrive. No elevated blood levels of ammonia. (**Autosomal recessive, UMP synthase defect -> accumulation of orotic acid)

17
Q

**How does UV light damage DNA?

A

Causes a thymine-thymine bond on the same strand of DNA (thymine dimer). Not on complementary strands.

18
Q

Which eukaryotic DNA polymerase replicates lagging strand and synthesizes RNA primer?

A

DNA polymerase alpha

19
Q

Which eukaryotic DNA polymerase repairs DNA?

A

DNA polymerase beta/ epsilon

20
Q

Which eukaryotic DNA polymerase replicates mitochondrial DNA?

A

DNA polymerase gamma

21
Q

Which eukaryotic DNA polymerase replicates leading strand DNA?

A

DNA polymerase delta

22
Q

Which antibiotic(s)? Inhibits the 50s peptidyltransferase

A

Chloramphenicol and streptogramins

23
Q

Which antibiotic(s)? binds 50s blocking translocation

A

Macrolides, linezolide

24
Q

Which antibiotic(s)? bind 30s, preventing attachment of the tRNA

A

Tetracyclines

25
Which antibiotic(s)? inhibits prokaryotic RNA polymerase
Rifampin
26
Which antibiotic(s)? inhibits prokaryotic topoisomerase
Fluoroquinilones
27
Which antibiotic(s)? inhibits prokaryotic dihydrofolate reductase
Trimethoprim (methotrexate does also but is a immunosuppresent/ anticancer drug)
28
What are three different mechanisms cells employ to break down proteins
1. Ubiquitin tagging with ubiquitin protein ligase degradation 2. Lysosome 3. Ca++ enzyme
29
What enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation during protein synthesis?
Peptidyl transferase (ribozyme = 23s rRNA)
30
What enzyme matches amino acids to tRNA?
Aminoacyle-tRNA synthetase
31
What are the mRNA stop codons?
UGA, UAA, UAG (You go away, you are away, your are gone)
32
what are the different RNA polymerases in eukaryotes?
RNA polymerase I -> codes for rRNA RNA polymerase II -> transcribes mRNA RNA polymerase III -> codes for tRNA
33
What amino acid typically has more coding sequences in the mRNA than are represented in the peptide that is created from that mRNA?
Methionine
34
**How is hnRNA processed before it leaves the nucleus
Gets a 5' cap, poly A tail and introns spliced out
35
What is the characteristic sequence of the promotor region? What does a mutation in the sequence cause?
TATA box (-25 nucleotides) and CAAT box (-75 nucleotides). Mutation will decrease amount of gene transcription
36
What enzyme is deficient in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome? Tx?
HGPRT. Allopurinol
37
What structural motifs allow for proteins to bind to DNA?
1. Helix loop helix 2. Helix turn helix 3. Zinc finger 4. Leucine zipper