Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MLS > Molecular Diagnostics > Flashcards

Molecular Diagnostics Flashcards

1
Q

DNA and RNA are polymers of

A

mononucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A mononucleotide consists of

A

sugar, PO4-, and a nitrogenous base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A nucleoside consists of

A

a sugar and a nitrogenous base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The two purines are

A

adenine and guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The three pyrimidines are

A

thymine, uracil, and cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What bonds a base to a sugar?

A

Glycosidic bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Purine synthesis of AMP and GMP requires

A

Many amino acids (glycine, glutamine, arginine), Nitrogens, Oxygens, and folate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Purine synthesis of AMP and GMP is an energy consuming process, that requires how many ATPs?

A

~7-8 ATPs for 1 purine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the degradation of purines.

A
  1. Adenosine has its nitrogens removed by adenosine deaminase to become inosine
  2. Inosine gets de-phosphorylated, becomes Hypoxanthine
  3. Hypoxanthine has H2O2 removed by Xanthine oxidase, becomes Xanthine
  4. Xanthine has H2O2 removed by Xanthine oxidase (again), becomes uric acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In degradation of purines, Hypoxanthine-guanine phospho-ribosyltransferase (HGPRT) enzyme INHIBITS de-phosphorylation causing

A

hypoxanthine to go back to inosine –> adenosine –> AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Xanthanine oxidase deficiency is a purine metabolism disease that causes

A

hypouricemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HGPRTase, PRPP deficiency (salvage pathway enzymes) is a purine metabolism disease that causes

A

Hyperuricemia (Lesch-Nyhan syndrome/Juvenile gout)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Adenosine deaminase deficiency is a purine metabolism disease that causes:

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) (Missing body defense of B and T-cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DNA is linear and the 3’ to 5’ BOND is formed due to ribose becoming deoxyribose via

A

Ribonucleotide reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pyrimidine synthesis is different than purine synthesis in the sense that it does not

A
  1. require large energy
  2. No significant salvage in eukaryotes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pyrimidine synthesis requires

A

Amino acids (glutamine and aspartate), Carbons, and Nitrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cytosine pyrimidine is deaminated to ________ which is degraded to ________,

A

Uracil; B-alanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Thymidine (pyrimidine) is degraded to __________, which is then degraded to _____.

A

beta-aminoisobutyrate (aa derivative); urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

dTMP (thymidine monophosphate) is important for DNA synthesis.

Describe the process of thymidylate synthesis.

A

dUMP is converted to dTMP by thymidine synthase + Folate + B12

Thymidine synthase just adds a Methyl group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Thymidylate synthesis is inhibited by cancer therapy drugs. What are the drugs and their exact methods of inhibition?

A

Methotrexate and Aminopterin inhibit DHFR so DHF cannot become MTHF (Inihibits one carbon metabolism)

5-fluorouracil (F-FU) pyrimidine analog inhibits thymidine synthase by inhibiting dUMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Folic acid (B9/folate) works with what vitamin to do what?

A

Works with B12 to make RBCs and help iron function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In order for inactive folic acid to be activated, it must be converted by di-hydrofolate reductase (DHFR) to:

A

Tetrahydrofolic acid (THF) –> Methyltetrahydrofolate (MTHF) (Which can be used for DNA synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

THF and MTHF are folic acid congeners that are transported where they are needed to: (5)

A
  1. maintain normal erythropoiesis
  2. Interconvert amino acids
  3. Methylate tRNA
  4. generate and use formate
  5. Synthesize purine and thymidylate nucleic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin) is not made by the body, so it must be obtained via diet. What are the two forms used by the body?

A
  1. Methylcobalamin: Cofactor for homocysteine –> Methionine (Required for DNA methylation)
  2. 5-deoxyadenosyl cobalamin: cofactor for I-methylmalonyl CoA –> succinyl CoA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In DNA synthesis (primary structure), chain growth is always ____, while nucleobases are linked by ________.

A

Chain growth: 5’-3’
Nucleobases are linked by 3’-5’ phosphodiester ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In DNA synthesis, the secondary structure is double stranded and bases are paired through hydrogen bonds. What are the rungs and the legs of the ladder?

A

Rungs: Nitrogenous bases
Legs: Phosphate and sugar backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the direction of the leading and lagging strand?

A

Leading: 5’-3’ (Continuous replication)
Lagging: 3’-5’ (Discontinuous replication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

DNA synthesis is semiconservative meaning both strands are synthesized

A

simultaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 3 prokaryotic polymerase in prokaryotic DNA synthesis?

A

DNA polymerase I: replication and repair
DNA polymerase 2: implicated and repair
DNA polymerase 3: MAIN processive replicative enzyme (de novo synthesis of DNA) (aka makes it longer) 3’-5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Prokaryotic DNA synthesis sequence of events: (7)

A
  1. Topoisomerase
  2. Helicase
  3. SSB
  4. Primase
  5. DNA polymerase III
  6. Ligase
  7. Gyrase (type 2 isomerase)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Topoisomerase function:

A

uncoils/separates strands and cuts 1 or more phopshate backbones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Helicase functions:

A

Breaks hydrogen bonds and forms replication fork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Single-strand binding protein (SSB) function:

A

prevents rejoining of DNA single strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

RNA primase function

A

synthesized RNA primers used in DNA daughter strands formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DNA primase function

A

RNA polymerase that generates RNA primers (templates for DNA replication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DNA polymerase function

A

synthesizes DNA daughter strands by adding nucleotides to leading and lagging strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

DNA gyrase

A

rewraps and recoils DNA strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DNA ligase

A

links newly synthesized DNA fragments (okazaki fragments) by forming phosphodiester bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Exonucleases:

A

group of enzymes that remove nucleotide bases from the end of DNA chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Eukaryotic DNA synthesis consists of

A

-Replication in S phase of cell cycle
-Unwraping DNA from histones
-Multiple origins of replication on each chromosome (~100,000)
-DNA polymerases (alpha, beta, gamma, and epsilon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe the eukaryotic DNA polymerases necessary for polymerization

A

DNA poly alpha: acts as a primase, synthesizing an RNA primer, and repair

DNA poly beta: repair

DNA poly gamma: mitochondrial polymerase

DNA poly delta AND epsiol: Elongation of leading strand (synthesis) and lagging strand (gap filling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Inhibitors of DNA synthesis include

A
  1. quinolones (norafloxin, ciprofloxacin): inhibit DNA gyrase
  2. (Chemo) Methotrexate, aminopterin, trimethoprim: inhibit DHFR which inhibits DNA synthesis via thymidylate synth
  3. (Chemo) 5’ fluoracil: inhibits thymidylate synthesis
  4. AZT: DNA chain terminator (no 3’ OH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

AZT and 5FU are uracil

A

analogs

44
Q

Describe replication process

A

DNA –> DNA replication –> Transcription –> mRNA nucleus –> mRNA cytoplasm –> Translation –> protein

45
Q

Prokaryotic DNA is

A

circular

46
Q

How are eukaryotic chromosomes organization?

A
  1. DNA helix wraps around 4 pairs of histones (forms nucleosomes)
  2. Linear DNA connects nucleosomes (forms thick fiber)
  3. Fibers form loops to condense chromatin (forms chromosome)
  4. Each chromosome becomes two sister chromatids that attach at centromere
47
Q

Each homologous set of chromosomes is made up of

A

2 homologues

48
Q

What phase of mitosis is best for viewing chromosomes?

A

Metaphase; they;re highly coiled and very thick

Metaphase chromosomes make up the Karyotype picture (Set of chromosmes per individual)

49
Q

Euchromatin in the _____ type of chromatin. Describe this type.

A

Active type that helps transcribe RNA to proteins
-Less condensed –> stains lighter
-Gene expressing/gene rich (high G/C)

50
Q

Heterochromatin is the _____ type of chromatin, Describe this type.

A

-inactive
-More condensed (especially at centromeres and telomeres)
-Gene poor (high A/T content)
-Stains

51
Q

Telomere are made up of

A

repetitive nucleotide sequences in buffer zone that serve as a termination signal (TTAGGG; ‘cap sequence’)

52
Q

Telomerase enzyne adds more nucleotides to telomeres to

A

regenerate the protective “CAP” DNA sequence (avoid DNA damage)

53
Q

Lost/reduced telomerase activity causes _________, while over expression _______

A

premature cell aging and death; helps cancer cells grow fast/live longer

54
Q

Chromosome nomeclature.

A
  1. Chromosome #
  2. Location on short or long arm
  3. Region of arm )specific band)
55
Q

Check points of the cell cycle

A

G1, G2, and M (metaphase)

56
Q

What is the Go phase of the cell cycle?

A

Resting phase; Cell has left cycle and stopped dividing

57
Q

What is G1 in the cell cycle?

A

CHECKPOINT! makes sure everything is ready for DNA synth
-Cells increase in size

58
Q

What is the S phase in the cell cycle?

A

DNA replication occurs!!

59
Q

What is the G2 phase of the cell cycle?

A

CHECKPOINT Make sure everything is ready to go into mitosis
-Cells still growing

60
Q

What is the M (mitosis) phase of the cell cycle?

A

Cell growth stops and division into two daughter cells occurs

METAPHASE CHECKPOINT makes sure cell is ready to complete cell division

61
Q

Major proteins that control the cell cycle? These proteins are depended on activation via:

A
  1. Cyklin-dependent protein kinases (Cdks)
  2. Cyclins
  3. Cdk-cyklin complex: ability of cdl to phosphorylate target depends on cyclin that it forms with

Phosphorylation/dephospho-rylation

62
Q

SnoRNA and miRNA are dual regulatory non-coding RNAs. What are their characteristics?

A

-Regulatory roles in cells
-Non-coding

63
Q

What are the three major types of RNA and their dominance (%)?

A

rRNA (80%)
tRNA (15%)
mRNA (5%)

64
Q

RNA synthesis requires

A
  1. DNA template
  2. RNA polymerase* (1 polymerase/6 subunits; alpha-2, beta, beta-prime, sigma, and omega)
65
Q

The sigma (σ) subunit is important for RNA synthesis because

A

it recognizes the promoter region!

66
Q

DNA polymerase

A

DNA –> DNA

67
Q

RNA polymerase

A

DNA –> RNA

68
Q

RNA replicase

A

RNA –> RNA

69
Q

Reverse transcriptase

A

RNA –> DNA

70
Q

Rifampin inhibits RNA synthesis by

A

inhibiting B unit of polymerase

71
Q

Steps in prokaryotic transcription

A
  1. RNA polymerase binds to promoter region
  2. Promotor has specific sequences (CAAT, GC, TATA)
  3. DNA coding strand=sense
    (same sequence as message except U instead of T)
  4. Non-coding strand (template)= anti-sense (Used in the 3’-5’ direction so RNA chain is synthesized 5’-3’ and makes a coding strand)
72
Q

Enzymes in eukaryotic transcription

A

Poly 1: nucleolus: synth 45s rRNA

Poly 2: nucleoplasm, synth mRNA (recognized promoter sequence)

Poly 3: nucleus, synthesizes tRNA, 5sRNA, miRNA

Mitochondrial polymerase: synthesized mitochondrial RNA

73
Q

TATA mutation results in

A

B-thalassemia

74
Q

Upstream of gene consists of

A

Hormone binding receptors, transcription binding receptos, enhancers, and promoter region

75
Q

Eukaryotic primary transcript (pre) RNA contains Introns and exons. To form a function mRNA what must occur?

A

Splicing must occur to remove the introns and combine the exons

76
Q

What are the 3 types of processing for mRNA?

A
  1. 5’ cap: add 7-Methyl-guanosine to 5’ end
  2. 3’ poly-A tail: add many adenosines for stability
  3. Splicing: removal of introns
    -Alternative splicing
77
Q

Inhibitors of RNA synthesis (5)

A
  1. Actinomycin D: inhibit template binding (at transcription initiation)
  2. Rifampin: inhibits B subunit of polymerase binding
  3. A amanitin (mushroom toxin): Inhibit euk pol II and III
  4. AZT: inhibits reverse transcription
  5. DDIL inhibits RT
78
Q

3 human diseases related to mRNA synthesis

A
  1. Thalassemia: abnormal formation of hemoglobin (inherited)
  2. a-thalassemia: prod. of alpha globin chain is affected (deletions)
  3. b-thalassemia: prod. of beta chain is affected (mutations)
79
Q

Genes can be regulated at any point of gene expression, but most commonly at

A

transcription by transcription factors, enhancers, suppressors, or during certain developmental stages

80
Q

Peptide bonds are formed via peptide linkage. When two amino acids are formed,

A

water is removed

81
Q

Carboxyl terminal is always linked to:

A

incoming or next amino acid

82
Q

In the amino acid, the central carbon is covalently bonded to

A
  1. amine group
  2. hydrogen
  3. a carboxyl group
  4. variable R- group
83
Q

A genetic code is made up of

A

3 nucleotides

84
Q

What is a degenerate (wobble base codon)?

A

First 2 positions of mRNA have Watson base pairing rules, but 3rd position exhibits wobble

85
Q

What is the initiation codon/amino acid?

A

AUG (Met)

86
Q

What are the stop codons?

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

87
Q

Translation is a high energy consuming process that consumes ____% of cells energy and ___ ATP

A

90%; 4 ATP

88
Q

Protein synthesis players consist of

A

Ribosome –> rough ER –> rER (rRNA + protein)

tRNA=anticodon w/ aa

mRNA= codon

2 ribosome sites:
P-side: initiation
A-site: elongation

89
Q

Protein synthesis steps in detail (3)

A
  1. Initiation
    **First aa is always methionine at P side
    -Codon is read by anticodon or tRNA
  2. Elongation
    New aa brought to match new codons and peptide bonds are formed
  3. Termination
    Stop codon
90
Q

mRNA function

A

carries instructions from DNA to rest of ribosome (tells ribosome what protein to make(

91
Q

tRNA function

A

A go getter!! gets the right parts to make right protein for mRNA

**ANTICODON NEEDS TO BE COMP. W/ mRNA codon sequencE

92
Q

rRNA function and its two types.

A

-part of ribosome structure
-helps in protein production
-Contains two rRNAs and 50 or more proteins

-Prokaryotic rRNA (size 70s): 50s, 30s
Eukaryotic rRNA (size: 80s): 60s, 40s

93
Q

Proteins (post-translation) can be modified and regulated by

A

Glycosylation, proteolysis cleavage, folding, R-group modifications, etc.

R-group modifications:
1. phosphorylation
2. Methylation
3. acetylation
4. isopentation
5. hydroxylation

94
Q

Describe insulin maturation

A
  1. Pre-pro insulin:
    -single-peptide sequence (~30 AA) REQUIRED for transfer into ER
    -B chain, alpha chain, and C. peptide
    -Cleaved
  2. Pro-insulin
    -Folds
    -No signal sequence
  3. Insulin
    -A and B chain (No-C peptide)
95
Q

C-peptide levels are measured instead of insulin levels because:

A

C-peptide can assess a persons own insulin secretions EVEN if they’ve had insulin injections

(Liver does not metabolize C-peptide, so blood C-peptide is best)

96
Q

Genetic codon changes that cause mutations in proteins

A
  1. point mutations
    1a. no change: silent due to alteration of wobble base
    1b. missense: change in base leads to change in aa
    1c. nonsense: formation or modification or termination codon
  2. frameshift: insertion or deletion of a nucleotide
97
Q

Alpha thalassemia is caused by a mutation and has many variants. What are they?

A

Alpha thalassemia (nonsense mutation):
Normally 142 aa long, but becomes 172 aa

Variants:
Constant spring –> glutamine @ 142

98
Q

Thalassemia is caused by what mutation? What is abnormal hemoglobin wayne?

A

Thalassemia is caused by frameshift mutation

Abnormal hemoglobin Wayne: everything after 138 is incorrect (Goes to 147 before it stops)

99
Q

Inhibitors of protein synthesis (7)

A
  1. streptomycin/gentamicin: 30S prokaryotic initiation
  2. Erythromycin: 50S pro elongation in gram +/-
  3. Chloramphenicol: 70S, elongation, broad spectrum, none marrow suppression
  4. tetracycline: inhibits incoming tRNA to site A at 30S
  5. Cyclohexidide: 80 S and fungus
  6. puromycin: mimic tRNA binds at A site in pros and euks
  7. Diptheria toxin: euk elongation factor II inhibitor
100
Q

The following antibiotics bind to the 30S subunit of the ribosome

A

Aminoglycoside
Tetracycline

101
Q

The following antibiotics bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit

A

Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin

Streptogramins – a group of cyclic peptide antibiotics that inhibit, like macrolides and lincosamides, the synthesis of bacterial proteins

102
Q

4 types of exogenous DNA damage

A
  1. Thermal disruption
  2. UV light exposure
  3. Ionizing radiation
  4. Exposure to mutagens, carcinogens, viruses
103
Q

3 types of endogenous DNA damages

A
  1. cellular metabolism
  2. hyrdolysis
  3. nuclease digestion
104
Q

Agents that damage DNA (3)

A

Certain wavelengths of radiation (UV-B, UV-C) (~260)

Chemicals in the environment: hydrocarbons, aflatoxins

Intrinsic spontaneous mutation:
Reactive oxidative species
Error during DNA replication
MMR enzyme mutation caused by mismatch repair failure

105
Q

How can damaged or inappropriate bases be repaired?

A
  1. Direct chemical reversal of the damage
  2. Excision repair: damaged base(s) are moved and then replaced with the correct one
    -Three modes: Base excision repair (BER), Nucleotide excision repair (NER), Mismatch repair (MMR)
106
Q

Direct repair genes

A
  1. DNA photolyase:
    -natural repair for pyrimidine dimers caused by UV damage
    -Directly reverse CPD via photochemical directions
  2. ## O6- methylguanine- DNA- methyl-transferase (MGMT):

MLS (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions