Molecular Genetics 2nd Half Flashcards

(75 cards)

1
Q

What is the central dogma

A

It is the main idea of how you go from DNA to Protein

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2
Q

What is transcription

A

DNA is used as a template for the synthesis of mRNA occurring in the nucleus

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3
Q

What is efficient about converting to mRNA

A

Numerous copies can be made in a very short period of time

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4
Q

What is translation

A

The messenger RNA is decoded by transfer RNA by the help of ribosomes and specific amino acids are assembled into polypeptide chains (Cytoplasm)

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5
Q

What are the three stages of both Transcription and Translation

A
  1. Initiation
  2. Elongation
  3. Termination
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6
Q

Who developed rapid DNA sequencing

A

Frederick Sanger in 1977

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7
Q

What was the first mapped genetic disease

A

Huntington’s

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8
Q

What chromosome does huntington’s affect

A

Chromosome 4

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9
Q

Who created PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

A

Kary Mullis

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10
Q

What was the human genome project

A

Develop technology to map and sequence human and other genomes

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11
Q

What was the goal of the private company Celera Genomics

A

Trying to privatize the human genome

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12
Q

What is the goal of biotechnology tools and techniques

A

To manipulate DNA

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13
Q

What is recombinant DNA

A

A DNA fragment composed of sequences from at least 2 different sources

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14
Q

What are Restriction enzymes

A

Act as molecular scissors, cut DNA at specific base-pair sequences, and every restriction enzyme has a unique recognition site

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15
Q

How big are recognition sites on restriction enzymes

A

4-8 base pairs

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16
Q

What is a characteristic of recognition sites

A

They are palindromic

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17
Q

How are blunt cutters different from sticky end cutters

A

Blunt ends do not want to bind whereas sticky ends are more useful and can easily reform the H-Bonds required between complementary ends

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18
Q

Where do restriction enzymes come from

A

They come from bacteria which use the enzymes to defend against viruses (bacteriophages)

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19
Q

What prevents the bacterial DNA from being cut as well

A

Methylation

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20
Q

What is methylation

A

Methyl groups are added to nucleotides in the recognition site by methylase enzyme

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21
Q

After methylation, what is the restriction enzyme prevented from doing

A

Cleaving bacterial DNA

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22
Q

In recombinant DNA, why do sticky ends not fully seal the gaps

A

The phosphodiester bonds of the backbone must still be repaired by DNA ligase

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23
Q

What are plasmids

A

Small circular pieces of DNA that naturally occur in the bacterial cytoplasm

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24
Q

How bog are plasmids

A

Range in size from 2000 to 100 000 base pairs long

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25
In what process are plasmids exchanged between bacteria
During conjugation via the sex pilus
26
What do plasmids often contain
Antibiotic resistance genes
27
How are plasmids useful to molecular biologists
A gene of interest can be inserted into a plasmid then this recombinant plasmid can be inserted into a bacteria cell which will then produce the protein from this gene
28
What is Gel electrophoresis
A technique to separate fragments of DNA by size, once the DNA has been digested by restriction enzymes
29
Why is DNA negatively charged
Phosphate groups present
30
What electrode will the DNA run towards
The positive electrode as opposites attract
31
What end are the wells located on
The negative electrode
32
What is the purpose of the wells
To load the DNA letting it run into the gel
33
More migration means what
smaller DNA fragments
34
What is the agarose gel like
Acts like a sieve or a maze
35
What is usually located in the first well
A molecular weight marker with pre determined benchmark fragments to compare other DNA to
36
What do same length bands mean when looking at results for forensics
DNA is matching
37
What is diabetes Mellitus
A disease in which the blood glucose level is too high due to insufficient production or activity of insulin
38
What is type 1 diabetes
Inability to produce insulin
39
What is type 2 diabetes
Low insulin or an inability to use insulin
40
Who isolated insulin
Dr Frederick Banting and Dr Charles Best at U of T
41
Who founded a method to determine blood sugar by dip test urinalysis
Helen Free
42
What is a recognition site
A sequence of bases on DNA strands that restriction enzymes bind to
43
What is a competent cell
A cell that is able to take up foreign DNA from its sorroundings
44
What is a vector
A DNA molecule that is used as a vehicle to transfer foreign genetic material into a cell
45
What is a copy number
The number of plasmids of a specific type within a cell
46
What is a host cell
A cell that has taken up foreign plasmid or virus and has used its machinery to express the foreign DNA
47
What is a cloned gene
An identical target of an original target gene that can be introduced by adding it to the host cell and having it copied
48
What is a restriction map
A diagram that shows restriction enzyme recognition sites and the distances, measured in base pairs, between the sites
49
What is transformation
The successful introduction of DNA from another source
50
What is hybridization used for
Identify the cells that contain the introduced plasmids with the desired gene
51
What is a hybridization probe
A fragment of DNA that is used to detect the presence of complementary nucleotide sequences
52
What did Cohen and Boyer do
Developed the first recombinant plasmid
53
Describe Cohen and Boyer's experiment
Restriction enzyme cleaves amphibian DNA on either side of target gene, the same enzyme then cleaves the double helix of bacterial plasmid DNA, the complementary sticky ends form base pairs with each other and then sealed up with DNA Ligase, the result is a bacterial plasmid with an amphibian gene
54
What are the four steps to cloning a gene into a plasmid
Cutting the gene of interest, ligate gene into plasmid making a recombinant plasmid, transform bacteria with recombinant plasmid, and selection to isolate bacterial cells that actually take up recombinant plasmid DNA
55
What is PCR used for
A technique used to create many copies of a certain DNA segment or to amplify DNA
56
What is the machine behind PCR
thermocycler
57
What principle is PCR based off of
enzymatic replication of DNA
58
What enzyme is involved with PCR
Taq DNA Polymerase
59
Where can Taq DNA polymerase be found
Found in thermophilic bacteria, hot springs
60
What are the primers used in PCR
DNA primers because RNA primers are too easily degraded
61
What are the three steps of PCR
Denaturation, Annealing, and DNA synthesis
62
What happens in denaturation
reaction mixture heated to 94 degrees breaking hydrogen bonds and converting to single stranded DNA, these strands now act like a template for the new strands of DNA
63
What happens in Annealing
The temperature is lowered to 50-65 degrees, the primers bind to their complementary sequences/anneal, primers are single stranded and 20-30 base pairs in length, serve as a starting point for DNA synthesis, they run in opposite directions so there is a forward primer and a reverse primer
64
What happens in DNA synthesis
temperature is raised to 72 degrees, the bases area added to the 3' end of the primer by Taw DNA polymerase elongating the DNA in the 5' to 3' direction
65
How many times are the three steps of PCR repeated to obtain a million copies
repeated approximately 20 times, each cycle doubles the amount of target DNA
66
What are the three post transcriptional modifications
5" Cap, Poly-A Tail at 3' End, and Removal of Introns/Joining of exons
67
What does the 5' Cap do
protects mRNA from digestion from nucleases in the cytoplasm and binds to ribosomes to initiate translation
68
What does the Poly-A Tail do
Approximately 200-300 adenine nucleotide bases added to 3' end by poly-A polymerase
69
What are exons
Expressed regions, code for part of a protein
70
What is an intron
interspersed among exons, do not code for protein so they must be removed
71
What removes introns and joins exons
Spliceosomes remove the introns which are degraded in the nucleus and join exons by phosphodiester bonds
72
Why is proofreading not necessary in mRNA
errors are less detrimental because hundreds of mRNA are made from the same gene, there will be enough correct copies to produce protein required
73
Describe Transcription in prokaryotes
No nuclear membrane, transcription and translation are coupled and occur together, no introns in genes of prokaryotes
74
explain the outcome of how a single gene can code for a variety of proteins
human genome consists of 30-35000 genes however the body can produce well over 100 000 different proteins via ALTERNATIVE SPLICING PATTERNS
75
In Translation, what is the start codon and what are the 3 stop codons
AUG = Start Codon UAA, UAG, UGA = 3 Stop Codons