Molecular Review (White) Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

endocrine signaling

A
  • long distance signaling
  • long lasting, freely diffusible signals
  • moves through bloodstream
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

paracrine signaling

A
  • acts locally

- short lived, affects nearby cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

synaptic signaling

A
  • acts locally

- short lived, NEUROTRANSMITTERS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

autocrine signaling

A
  • cells respond to signals that they themselves release or release to cells of the same type
  • growth factors –> cells grow, divide, mature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

direct cell signaling

A
  • immune cells

- Ag presentation to T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

G protein coupled receptors

A
  • extracellular domain: binds ligand
  • transmembrane domain: anchors receptor
  • cytoplasmic domain: associated with G protein

associates with heterotrimeric G proteins –> alpha subunit regulate target enzymes (activated G protein)

  • alpha subunit binds GTP –> activates adenylyl cyclase
  • alpha subunit binds GDP –> binds to beta subunit (inactive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cholera and G protein

A
  • cholera toxin keeps G-alpha in GTP active form indefinitely
  • pump Cl/water out of cells in intestine and causes severe diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cAMP

A
  • generated by adenylyl cyclase –> interacts with target protein to cause biological response
  • activates PKA (2 cAMP molecules bind to regulatory subunits of PKA which releases 2 catalytic subunits)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs)

A
  • enzyme-linked receptors (enzymatic domain in cytoplasm) –> transmit signal through tyrosine kinase domain
  • used for response to growth factors
  • adds phosphate to tyrosine on proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase activation

A
  • ligand binding causes dimerization (autophosphorylation occurs)
  • acts as scaffold to recruit other proteins to plasma membrane (Grb2 –> SH2 binds)
  • SH3 domain of Grb2 binds SOS, which binds Ras (SOS is GEF that adds GTP to Ras)
  • Ras binds Raf –> activates MAP kinase pathway (phosphorylates and makes changes in protein activity and gene expression)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What was the first discovered human oncogene?

A

Ras

  • plays crucial role in cell division and a frequent mutation in cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

JAK-STAT receptors

A
  • ligand binds to receptors (dimerization) then bind JAK
  • JAK phosphorylates each other and the receptor
  • STATS bind and are phosphorylated by JAK
  • STATS dimerize and enter nucleus –> bind DNA and cause transcription of target genes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Serine-threonine receptor and Smad

A
  • ligand binds type II receptor, which phosphorylates second receptor (type I)
  • Type I phosphorylates R-Smad, which associates with Co-Smad
  • moves into nucleus to impact transcription of target genes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

helix-turn-helix

A
  • simplest DNA-binding motif
  • 2 alpha helices connected by short chain of AAs
  • longer helix portion = recognition module (DNA binding module)
  • bind DNA as dimers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

zinc finger domain

A
  • DNA binding motif with Zn atom

- binds to major groove of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Leucine zipper motif

A
  • two alpha helical DNA binding domain
  • dimerization through leucine zipper region
  • grabs DNA like clothespin
  • hydrophobic AA side chain interactions at every 7 AA down one side of alpha helix
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

helix-loop-helix

A
  • short alpha chain connected by loop to second longer alpha chain
  • can occur as hetero or homodimer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

RNA stability regulation

A
  1. remove 5’ cap –> mRNA degraded from 5’ end

2. mRNA degraded from 3’ end through poly-A tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Checkpoints of the Cell Cycle (3)

A

Checkpoint 1: Start –> cell commits to cell cycle entry and chromosome duplication

Checkpoint 2: G2/M –> move into chromosome alignment on spindle in metaphase

Checkpoint 3: metaphase-to-anaphase transition - trigger sister chromatid separation and cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cdks

A
  • heart of cell cycle control system
  • dependent on cyclins (must be bound to cyclin to have protein kinase activity)
  • activities rise and fall during cell cycle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CAK

A
  • causes phosphorylation at T-loop of Cdk (normally blocks active site) –> fully activates enzyme
  • cyclin binding causes T-loop to move out of active site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

condensins

A
  • help reorganize sister chromatids to be pulled apart during anaphase with NO breakage
  • chromosomes condensation and resolution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

M-Cdk

A
  • activates APC/C to complete mitosis
  • ubiquitinates and causes degradation securin and allows separase to activate
  • separase cleaves cohesins, causing metaphase to enter anaphase (pull apart sister chromatids)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Two major classes of caspaces

A
  • synthesized as inactive precursor (procaspases)
  • initiator caspases and executioner caspases
  • executioner destroys actual targets (apoptosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Intrinsic Apoptosis
cytochrome c released from mitochondria binds to Apaf1 --> assembles into apoptosome and recruits caspase-9 caspase-9 cleaves and activates executioner procaspases (APOPTOSIS)
26
BH123
form aggregation in mitochondrial outer membrane, releasing cytochrome C
27
Bcl2
prevents aggregation of BH123 (inhibits apoptosis)
28
BH3
apoptotic stimulus that inactivates Bcl2 proteins - allows BH123 to assemble
29
IAPs
bind to caspases and prevent their activity
30
anti-IAPs
- released from mitochondria and bind to IAPs | - prevent IAP association with caspases, allowing for normal executioner caspase activity
31
Overactivity vs Underactivity mutations
Overactivity - GAIN OF FUNCTION (oncogenes) --> single mutation event, activation of gene causing proliferation (dominant) Underactivity - LOSS OF FUNCTION (tumor suppressor genes) --> one mutation, no effect; two mutations, cause problem (recessive): involve genes that inhibit growth
32
Hereditary Retinoblastoma
- loss of function/deletion of one copy of Rb in every cell (defect inherited) - somatic event occurs that eliminates the good copy = tumor formation (loss of heterozygosity)
33
Sporadic Retinoblastoma
- non-hereditary | - first Rb gene obtains mutation, increasing the likelihood that second gene mutates
34
Polyp
- precursor of colorectal cancer - slow progression (10 years) - cut off polyp = CURE
35
Colorectal Cancer mutations (3)
>80% --> loss of Apc (tumor suppressor gene) 40% --> point mutation in K-Ras 60% --> loss of p53
36
Actin Filaments
- determine shape of cell's surface and are necessary for whole-cell locomotion, secretion, endocytosis
37
Microtubules
- forms tube-like structure - determine the positions of membrane-enclosed organelles - direct intracellular transport
38
Intermediate Filaments
- provides mechanical strength, strong filament | - resists mechanical stress, allow formation of hair/fingernails
39
Actin filament assembly
- monomer contains ATP/ADP binding - two protofilaments that twist around each other (right handed helix) - held together by lateral contacts (arranged head-to-tail - flexible, easily bent
40
Tubulin assembly
- formation of microtubules - end-to-end and side-to-side protein contacts - heterodimer of a/B tubulins (binding sites for GTP) (+) end --> fast growing/shrinking end (-) end --> slow growing/shrinking end
41
Hereditary Spherocytosis
- RBCs spherical, not bi-concave (get shape from cytoskeleton, defective SPECTRIN --> durability/stability) - fragile RBCs burst = hemolytic anemia
42
Listeria
- pathogenic bacteria that invade intestinal cells - causes food poisoning especially if immunologically deficient or immunocompromised - smashes through organelles (leaves actin track aka 'comet trails')
43
Listeria and ARP (Arp 2/3)
- Arp complex is responsible for generating the actin trails that Listeria uses to move - actin branch filaments pushes the bacteria
44
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
- most common fatal neuromuscular disorder in boys - severe, progressive muscle degeneration - patients in wheelchairs by 12 years of age - no medical treatment, just maintain patients general health and improve quality of life
45
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy genetics
- X linked recessive | - caused by dystrophin gene mutations; present at birth but does NOT show symptoms until about 3 years of age
46
What is the main function of the dystrophin protein?
to provide structural stability to the muscle cell membrane during contraction and relaxation - 4 functional domains
47
4 functions domains of dystrophin
1. N-terminus (actin binding domain) 2. Long spectrin-like repeat domain 3. Cysteine rich domain 4. C-terminus domain
48
Dystrophic myopathy
progressive muscle degeneration w/loss of functional muscle tissue over time with resulting weakness
49
DMD Clinical Presentation
necrosis of muscle fibers occurs with replacement of fat or connective tissue - leads to pseudohypertrophy: replacement of muscle w/adipose tissue and fibrous CT (enlarged calves)
50
Lordosis vs Kyphosis
Lordosis: excessive inward curvature Kyphosis: upward back curvature outward
51
Gower Maneuver
- boys with DMD rising from floor | - first get on hands and knees, then elevate posterior, then 'walk' their hands up the legs to raise upper body
52
Becker Muscular Dystrophy
- milder than Duchenne (similar symptoms but milder) - increased workload on left ventricle = left ventricular enlargement (severity results in heart failure and death) - some dystrophin protein of abnormal quantity and size (Duchenne = NO dystrophin)
53
Mitochondrial Myopathies w/Ragged Red Fibers
- degeneration of muscle fibers caused by accumulation of abnormal mitochondria - abnormal mitochondrial aggregates for red sarcolemmal blotches (Ragged Red Fibers)
54
heteroplasmy
mixture of normal and mutant mitochondria in one cell - threshold effect of mutant mitochondria are required for disease manifestation
55
MERRF
- myoclonus epilepsy - INVOLUNTARY JERKING - ataxia, myclonic epilepsy, ragged red fibers - 90% caused by 2 mutations of tRNA(Lys)
56
MERFF Mutations (2)
85% --> due to A to G mutation | 5% --> due to G to C mutation
57
MELAS
- Mitochondrial Encephalopathy, Lactic Acidosis with Stroke-like episodes - onset = 2-10 years - BLINDNESS, Ragged Red Fibers, vomiting, anorexia, headaches, seizures - mutation in tRNA(Leu) --> A3243G
58
Kearns-Sayre Syndrome
- retinosis pigmentosa (degenerative eye disease leading to blindness - onset before age 20 - at least one: cardiac conduction abnormality, cerebellar ataxia, cerebral spinal protein level above 100 mg/dL - 85% of KSS due to mtDNA rearrangements
59
Chronic Progressive External Ophthalmoplegia (CPEO)
- mild to moderate mitochondrial myopathy (ragged red fibers observed in skeletal muscle) --> mtDNA rearrangements - PTOSIS (drooping of eyelid)
60
Leber Hereditary Optic Neuropathy (LHON)
- mitochondrial mutation ONLY affects optic nerve - acute or subacute, bilateral, central vision loss - degeneration of retinal ganglion cell layer and optic nerve - initially affects one eye but eventually both eyes affected at the same time (Maternal inheritance)
61
Hemoglobin Structure
- multi-subunit protein (tetramer) --> 2 alpha/beta chains | - heme: one per subunit, has iron atom
62
4 types of hemoglobin chains
alpha, beta, delta, gamma
63
Hemoglobin forms
HbA --> 2 alpha and 2 beta chains (adult form) HbA2 --> 2 alpha and 2 delta (3%) HbF --> 2 alpha and 2 gamma (fetal form) (0.5%)
64
Sickle Cell Anemia and HbF
- sickle shaped RBCs that impede circulation = hemolytic anemia - HbS--> substitution of valine for glutamic acid at AA #6 - use hydroxyurea to induce HbF
65
Modular HbF
- fetus needs Hb that has higher affinity for oxygen than mother's Hb - HbF does not bind well to 2,3-BPG = has a HIGHER affinity for oxygen