More exam questions + System Reviews Flashcards

1
Q

Max T/O elevation

A

8,400 feet

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2
Q

Cabin ALT at 41,000 feet

A

8,000 feet

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3
Q

Center tank config alert on the CDU appears when

A

More than 726kg in the center tank, and pumps not on / not functioning

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4
Q

Max and min fuel temp

A

Max 49C

Min -43 or 3 degrees warmer than fuel freeze temp, whichever is higher

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5
Q

What must you do after selecting ATT on the IRS in flight

A

Fly straight, level, unaccelerated flight for 30 seconds

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6
Q

How many smoke detectors are there per cargo compartment

A

4 fwd 6 aft

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7
Q

Which 3 air systems can be reset

A

bleed air
pack
zone

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8
Q

On T/O and landing, what is the cabin pressurized to

A

on T/O 200’ below FE

on Landing 300’ below FE

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9
Q

What is the wingtip height

A

6.4m

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10
Q

Do not turn from an object within x meters from nose and wingtip

A

7.4nose 5.4 wingtip

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11
Q

wingspan

A

35.79

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12
Q

What do you need in order to arm RTO

A

switch set to RTO with:

  • less than 60kts wheel speed
  • thrust levers in idle
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13
Q

Engine driven pump has how much more capacity than the electrical

A

6 times

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14
Q

Standpipe in system A for the engine driven pump leaves you with how much fluid?

A

20%

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15
Q

What can manually start the stby hyd pump

A

Force fight monitor

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16
Q

Right igniter is on which bus

A

AC standby bus

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17
Q

What’s the min hyd pressure

A

2800psi

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18
Q

Turning the utility switch off, also turns off?

A

Recirc fans

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19
Q

ELEC light on the ground means what

A

fail in the DC or STBY system

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20
Q

AC voltage and frequency limits are

A

400hz +/- 10, 115V +/- 5

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21
Q

In which order are the buses load shed

A

Galley bus 2, main bus 2, galley bus 1, main bus 1, IFE

22
Q

TRU 1 usually powers

A

DC bus1, stby bus

23
Q

TRU 2 usually powers

24
Q

TRU 3 usually powers

A

Battery bus

25
Auto ignition for the engines exist when
57-50% N2, idle - 5% N2, uncommanded drop
26
Which engine indications do you get with power off
N1, N2, Oil quant, vib
27
When does the oxygen mask transit to pressure breething
>27,000 feet
28
How many detector loops are in the: engine, cargo, apu
2, 2, 1
29
Speed trend shows how many seconds
10
30
Bottom of black/red tape shows you what
Vmo/Mmo, flap placard, gear placard
31
Bottom of amber speed gives you what
1.3g buffet margin
32
SPD LIM alert on PFD means what
Loss of oversped and/or stick shaker protection (and associated red/black bar)
33
Wind arrow appears and disappers when
more than 6 knots, less than 4 knots
34
What does the alert DISPLAY CONTROL PANEL mean
That side's EFIS panel isn't working
35
When will you get AOA disagree alert
AOA vanes disagree by more than 10 degrees for more than 10 seconds
36
INSTR SWITCH alert comes when
IRS selector is set to both on r/l
37
When will you get the landing gear horn with flaps set to 0-10
less than 800', if power is set to idle or 20 (34) degrees or less. Below 200' the horn cannot be cut out
38
When will you get the landing gear horn with flaps set to 15-25
any altitude when power lever is idle or less than 20(34) degrees
39
When will you get the landing gear horn with flaps set to >25
Always
40
When is the altitude alert inhibited
When flaps are 15 or more, or the GS is captured
41
Look ahead terrain cautions are how far ahead
40-60 seconds
42
Look ahead terrain warnings are how far ahead
20-30 seconds
43
When are windshear warnings (not predictive) active
below 1,500 feet
44
When are windshear cautions and warnings inhibited
cautions less than 400' 80ktswarnings less than 50 feet 100kts
45
When are "increase descent" alerts inhibited
below 1,500 feet
46
when are descent alerts inhibited
below 1,100 feet
47
all RA are inhibited below
1,000 feet
48
All voice alerts are inhibited below
500 feet
49
how much do you have to increase mcp speed to remove the low speed alert (A)
15kts
50
reduced GA thrust gives how many FPM climb
1,000-2,000 fpm
51
FSEU gives 3 protections
30/40 flap releif assymetry/skew protection uncommanded motion of TE flaps, or 2 LE flaps/slats