Mosby Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

The lateral pterygoid muscle attaches to which of the following?

A. Lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.
B. Medial surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.
C. Lateral surface of the medial pterygoid plate.
D. Medial surface of the medial pterygoid plate.
E. Pyramidal process of palatine bone.

A. Lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following muscles is responsible for the formation of the posterior tonsillar pillar?

A. Stylopharyngeus.
B. Tensor veli palatine.
C. Palatoglossus.
D. Palatopharyngeus.
E. Levator veli palatine.

D. Palatopharyngeus.
ANTERIOR- Palatoglossus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The superior and inferior ophthalmic veins drain into the _______.

A. Internal jugular vein
B. Pterygoid plexus
C. Frontal vein
D. Infraorbital vein
E. Facial vein

E. Facial vein

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The masseter originates from the _______.

A. Condyle of the mandible
B. Infratemporal crest of the sphenoid bone
C. Inferior border of the zygomatic arch
D. Pyramidal process of the palatine bone
E. Mastoid process of temporal bone

C. Inferior border of the zygomatic arch

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following muscles adducts the vocal cords?

A. Lateral cricoarytenoid.
B. Posterior cricoarytenoid.
C. Cricothyroid.
D. Vocalis.
E. Tensor veli palatine.

A. Lateral cricoarytenoid.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following strata of oral epithelium is engaged in mitosis?

A. Basale.
B. Granulosum.
C. Corneum.
D. Spinosum.

A. Basale.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The auriculotemporal nerve encircles which of the following vessels?

A. Maxillary artery.
B. Superficial temporal artery.
C. Deep auricular artery.
D. Middle meningeal artery.
E. Anterior tympanic artery.

D. Middle meningeal artery.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The muscle that is found in the walls of the heart is characterized by _______.

A. A peripherally placed nucleus
B. Multiple nuclei
C. Intercalated discs
D. Fibers with spindle-shaped cells

C. Intercalated discs
SKELETAL- A peripherally placed nucleus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are found in the posterior triangle of the neck except one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?

A. External jugular vein.
B. Subclavian vein.
C. Hypoglossal nerve.
D. Phrenic nerve.
E. Brachial plexus.

C. Hypoglossal nerve.

POSTERIOR TRIANGLE
- External jugular vein
- Subclavian vein and artery
- Cervical plexus
- Accessory nerve
- Phrenic nerve
- Brachial plexus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Deoxygenated blood from the transverse sinus drains into the _______.

A. Inferior sagittal sinus
B. Confluence of sinuses
C. Sigmoid sinus
D. Straight sinus
E. Internal jugular vein

C. Sigmoid sinus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The vestigial cleft of Rathke’s pouch in the hypophysis is located between the _______.

A. Anterior and posterior lobes
B. Anterior lobe and hypothalamus
C. Posterior lobe and hypothalamus
D. Median eminence and the optic chiasm

A. Anterior and posterior lobes- PITUITARY

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Involution of the thymus would occur following which year in a healthy individual?

A. 0 years (at birth).
B. 12th year.
C. 20th year.
D. 60th year.

B. 12th year.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Blood from the internal carotid artery reaches the posterior cerebral artery by the _______.

A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Anterior communicating artery
C. Posterior communicating artery
D. Posterior superior cerebellar artery
E. Basilar artery

C. Posterior communicating artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The infraorbital nerve is a branch of the _______.

A. Optic nerve
B. Oculomotor nerve
C. Ophthalmic nerve
D. Maxillary nerve
E. Mandibular nerve

D. Maxillary nerve

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following cells are capable of mitosis?

A. Smooth muscle.
B. Skeletal muscle.
C. Cardiac muscle.
D. Type I pneumocytes.
E. Neurons.

A. Smooth muscle.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following types of epithelium lines acinar units of salivary glands?

A. Simple squamous.
B. Stratified squamous.
C. Simple cuboidal.
D. Simple columnar.
E. Pseudostratified columnar.

C. Simple cuboidal.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

To which of the following bones is the tensor tympani attached?

A. Incus.
B. Malleus.
C. Stapes.
D. Hyoid.
E. Mandible.

B. Malleus.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In mature dentin, the ratio of inorganic to organic matter is approximately _____.

A. 94:6
B. 50:50
C. 70:30
D. 80:20
E. 60:40

C. 70:30
ENAMEL: 96:4
DENTIN: 70:30
CEMENTUM: 50:50

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following cells forms the myelin sheath around myelinated nerves in the central nervous system?

A. Schwann cells.
B. Astrocytes.
C. Microglia.
D. Oligodendrocytes.
E. Amphicytes.

D. Oligodendrocytes.

CNS- Oligodendrocytes
PNS- Schwann cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following nerves supplies taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

A. Hypoglossal.
B. Glossopharyngeal.
C. Lingual.
D. Facial.
E. Mental.

D. Facial.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A 24-year-old man presents to your office for an emergency visit, after being hit on the left side of his face with a soccer ball. He complains that his “tooth got knocked out” and that his jaw feels “out of place.” He has no other medical conditions.

During intraoral examination, you find that the patient’s lower second premolar is missing. Which type of alveolodental fibers was least involved in resisting the force that pulled this patient’s tooth out of its socket?

A. Apical.
B. Oblique.
C. Alveolar crest.
D. Interradicular.

B. Oblique.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You notice that a cusp of his mandibular second molar has fractured off and that dentin is exposed. If this patient were to drink something cold, what will he sense?

A. Pain.
B. Pressure.
C. Vibration.
D. Temperature.

A. Pain.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You decide to take a radiograph of the fractured tooth. On the first film you miss the apex of the tooth (MANDIBULAR), so you decide to take another radiograph. Relaxation of which of the patient’s muscles would help you in taking the second film?

A. Geniohyoid.
B. Stylohyoid.
C. Mylohyoid.
D. Levator veli palatine.
E. Palatopharyngeus.

C. Mylohyoid.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You determine that the articular disc of the patient’s temporomandibular joint has been displaced. If the patient contracts his lateral pterygoid muscle, the disc will move _______.

A. Posteriorly and medially
B. Anteriorly and medially
C. Posteriorly and laterally
D. Anteriorly and laterally

B. Anteriorly and medially

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During the examination, the patient observes that he cannot feel it when you touch part of his cheek and his upper lip. Which of the following nerves was probably damaged during the accident? A. Lingual. B. Maxillary. C. Long buccal. D. Superior alveolar. E. Inferior alveolar.

B. Maxillary.

You decide to restore the missing cusp on the patient’s molar. During the administration of the inferior alveolar nerve block, which of the following ligaments is most likely damaged? A. Sphenomandibular. B. Stylomandibular. C. Temporomandibular. D. Interdental.

A. Sphenomandibular.

The lateral thoracic wall of the axilla is covered by which of the following muscles? A. Pectoralis major. B. Pectoralis minor. C. Serratus anterior. D. Subscapularis. E. Latissimus dorsi.

C. Serratus anterior. INFERIOR- Latissimus dorsi ANTERIOR- Pectoralis major, Pectoralis minor

The trochlea of the humerus bone articulates with the _______. A. Ulna of the forearm B. Radius of the forearm C. Coronoid process of the ulna of the forearm D. Olecranon of the ulna of the forearm E. Medial epicondyle

A. Ulna of the forearm JOINTS Neck: AA- NO JOINT AO- YES JOINT Upper arm: HUGS- Humerus, Glenoid cavity of Scapula Forearm: CR TayU!- Capitulum, Radius - Trochlea, Ulna OTC- Olecranon process of Ulna, Olecranon fossa of humerus (POSTERIOR) - Trochlear Notch of Ulna, Trochlea of humerus - Coronoid process of Ulna, Coronoid fossa of humerus (ANTERIOR) Hips: FAce- Femur, Acetabulum

Which of the following muscles of the back is supplied by the CN XI? A. Levator scapulae. B. Latissimus dorsi. C. Trapezius. D. Major rhomboid. E. Minor rhomboid.

C. Trapezius.

There are _____ pairs of true ribs. A. Four B. Five C. Seven D. Eleven E. Twelve

C. Seven

______ vertebrae are characterized by a heart shaped body. A. Cervical B. Thoracic C. Lumbar D. Sacral E. Coccygeal

B. Thoracic Cervical- ROUND Thoracic- HEART Lumbar- BEAN Sacral- TRIANGLE Coccygeal- X

The sternal angle between the manubrium and the sternum marks the position of the _____ rib. A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth E. Fifth

B. Second

Which muscle of the anterolateral abdominal wall is described as being belt- or strap-like? A. External oblique muscle. B. Internal oblique muscle. C. Transversus abdominis muscle. D. Rectus abdominis muscle. E. Quadratus lumborum muscle

D. Rectus abdominis muscle.

In addition to the esophagus itself, which of the following structures also passes through the diaphragm through the esophageal opening? A. The aorta. B. The inferior vena cava. C. The azygos vein. D. The posterior and anterior vagal trunks. E. The splanchnic nerves

D. The posterior and anterior vagal trunks.

The inferior aspect of the diaphragm is supplied with blood by which of the following arteries? A. Median sacral artery. B. Lumbar arteries. C. Inferior phrenic arteries. D. Celiac trunk. E. Superior mesenteric artery.

C. Inferior phrenic arteries.

Oral epithelium is composed of ______ epithelium. A. Keratinized simple squamous B. Keratinized stratified squamous C. Nonkeratinized simple squamous D. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous E. Nonkeratinized stratified columnar

D. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous

Which of the following statements is true of the histology of the trachea? A. The mucosa is covered with oral epithelium. B. Elastic cartilage rings lie deep to the submucosa. C. The cartilage is ring-shaped; the open end of the ring faces anterior. D. The cartilage is covered by a perichondrium. E. Skeletal muscle extends across the open end of each cartilage.

D. The cartilage is covered by a perichondrium.

Terminal bronchioles are characterized by _____ cells. A. Goblet B. Ciliated cuboidal C. Nonciliated cuboidal D. Ciliated squamous E. Nonciliated squamous

B. Ciliated cuboidal

The most superficial layer of the epidermis is the stratum _____. A. Spinosum B. Basale C. Granulosum D. Lucidum E. Corneum

E. Corneum

Langerhans cells are located primarily in stratum _____. A. Corneum B. Lucidum C. Granulosum D. Spinosum E. Basale

D. Spinosum

Arteriovenous anastomoses in deeper skin are important in _____. A. Immunity B. Thermoregulation C. Controlling the arrector pili muscle D. Pigmentation E. Pain sensation

B. Thermoregulation

Which of the following bones is formed by intramembranous ossification? A. Humerus. B. Lumbar vertebrae. C. Frontal bone of the skull. D. Ribs. E. Clavicle.

C. Frontal bone of the skull.

Osteocytes are found in _____ in mature bone. A. Trabeculae B. Lacunae C. The central canal D. Canaliculi E. Spicules

B. Lacunae

_____ marks the end of growth in length of long bones. A. Diaphyseal closure B. Epiphyseal closure C. Ossification D. Formation of periosteum E. Cessation of bone remodeling

B. Epiphyseal closure

The branchial arches disappear when the _____ branchial arch grows down to contact the _____. A. second; third branchial arch B. second; fifth branchial arch C. third; fifth branchial arch D. first; first branchial groove E. first; sixth branchial groove

B. second; fifth branchial arch

Facial nerves are derived from the ____ branchial arch. A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth E. Fifth and sixth

B. Second

Cytochrome P450 enzymes may be found in which of the following cellular organelles? A. Mitochondria. B. Golgi apparatus. C. Lysosome. D. Ribosome. E. Endoplasmic reticulum.

E. Endoplasmic reticulum.

What type of collagen is found in cementum? A. Type I collagen. B. Type II collagen. C. Type III collagen. D. Type IV collagen. E. Type V collagen.

A. Type I collagen.

Calcium binds to which of the following for contraction in smooth muscle? A. Troponin C. B. Calmodulin. C. Myosin. D. Actin. E. Desmosomes.

B. Calmodulin. SKELETAL & CARDIAC- Troponin C.

Lymph from the mandibular incisors drain chiefly into _____. A. Submandibular nodes B. Submental nodes C. Superficial parotid nodes D. Deep cervical nodes E. Occipital nodes

B. Submental nodes Submandibular nodes- MandIbular Premolars and Molars

Which of the following muscle attaches to the anterior end of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint? A. Superficial head of the medial pterygoid muscle. B. Deep head of the medial pterygoid muscle. C. Superior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle. D. Inferior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle.

C. Superior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle.

All of the following arteries are branches of the mandibular division of the maxillary artery except one. Which one is the exception? A. Incisive artery. B. Submental artery. C. Middle meningeal artery. D. Mylohyoid artery. E. Deep auricular artery.

B. Submental artery.

The maxillary nerve passes through which of the following? A. Superior orbital fissure. B. Internal acoustic meatus. C. Foramen ovale. D. Foramen rotundum. E. Foramen spinosum.

D. Foramen rotundum.

Injury to which of the following nerves would affect abduction of the eyeball? A. Optic nerve. B. Oculomotor. C. Trochlear. D. Trigeminal. E. Abducens.

E. Abducens. LR6 SO4 CN II- MEDIAL RECTUS, INFERIOR OBLIQUE, SUPERIOR RECTUS, INFERIOR RECTUS CN IV- SUPERIOR OBLIQUE CN VI- LATERAL RECTUS

Nucleus ambiguus contains the cell bodies of which of the following cranial nerves? A. III, IV, and V. B. VII, IX ,and X. C. VII, IX, and XI. D. IX, X, and XI. E. IX, X, and XII.

D. IX, X, and XI. VII, IX, and XI- nucleus of the solitary tract

The articulating surfaces of the temporomandibular joint are covered with _____. A. Fibrocartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. Articular cartilage D. Elastic cartilage E. Perichondrium

A. Fibrocartilage

The primary sensory neurons’ nucleus of termination involved in the jaw jerk reflex is the _____. A. Facial nucleus B. Trochlear nucleus C. Mesencephalic nucleus D. Spinal trigeminal nucleus E. Nucleus of solitary tract

C. Mesencephalic nucleus

Red pulp in the spleen consists of _____. A. Fibroblasts B. T lymphocytes C. B lymphocytes D. Macrophages E. Chromaffin cells

D. Macrophages WHITE PULP- T & B lymphocytes

The vertebral artery meets with the basilar artery at the lower border of the _____. A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Medulla D. Temporal lobe E. C1

B. Pons

Where are the cells that produce calcitonin located? A. Red marrow. B. Adrenal gland. C. Parathyroid gland. D. Thyroid gland. E. Spleen.

D. Thyroid gland.

Chromosomes line up at a cell’s equator during which phase of mitosis? A. Telophase. B. Metaphase. C. Interphase. D. Anaphase. E. Prophase.

B. Metaphase. PMAT Prophase- PRO (Projection of microtubules, Removal of N. Envelope, Opposite Pole movement) Metaphase- MetALIGN Anaphase- AnAWAY (Cytokinesis, Cleavage) Telophase- The End

Which of the following types of epithelium lines the oropharynx? A. Simple squamous. B. Stratified squamous. C. Simple cuboidal. D. Simple columnar. E. Pseudostratified columnar.

B. Stratified squamous.

Which of the following organelles is surrounded by a double membrane? A. Ribosome. B. Golgi apparatus. C. Lysosome. D. Cytoplasmic inclusion. E. Mitochondria.

E. Mitochondria. DOUBLE MEMBRANE- Mitochondria, Nucleus

Hassall’s corpuscles are found in the medulla of which of the following glands? A. Thymus. B. Thyroid. C. Parathyroid. D. Pineal. E. Suprarenal.

A. Thymus.

Which of the following are the most abundant in the fovea centralis of the eyeball? A. Rod cells. B. Cone cells. C. Rod and cone cells. D. Amacrine cells. E. Ganglion cells.

B. Cone cells.

Which of the following bones is part of the superior wall (roof) of the orbit? A. Zygomatic. B. Lacrimal. C. Sphenoid. D. Maxilla. E. Ethmoid.

C. Sphenoid. (and Frontal)

A 30-year-old woman comes to your office for a dental examination. She has not been to the dentist in 2 years. The patient has type I diabetes, which requires her to take insulin. She is other wise in good health. On intraoral examination, you notice that the dorsum of her tongue has a thick, matted appearance and diagnose her with hairy tongue. You also find that the patient has deep caries in her upper second maxillary molar. Which type of papillae is affected that causes the hair-like appearance of her tongue? A. Foliate. B. Circumvallate. C. Fungiform. D. Filiform.

D. Filiform.

On the patient’s radiograph, you notice that the pulp chamber in the carious molar appears smaller than the surrounding teeth. This is most likely due to the deposition of which type of dentin? A. Secondary. B. Tertiary. C. Mantle. D. Sclerotic.

B. Tertiary.

You decide to remove the caries on tooth #2 and prepare the patient for anesthesia. Which nerve must you anesthetize to ensure adequate anesthesia for the patient? A. Nasopalatine nerve. B. Greater palatine nerve. C. Anterior superior alveolar nerve. D. Middle superior alveolar nerve. E. Posterior superior alveolar nerve.

E. Posterior superior alveolar nerve.

After administering the anesthetic, the patient complains that her “heart feels like it’s racing.” You explain to her that it may be from the epinephrine in the anesthesia. Which of the following glands could most likely cause the same symptoms in the patient? A. Hypophysis. B. Thyroid. C. Pineal. D. Suprarenal.

D. Suprarenal.

All of the following are rotator cuff muscles except: A. Supraspinatous muscle B. Infraspinatous muscle C. Teres minor muscle D. Teres major muscle E. Subscapularis muscle

D. Teres major muscle

The brachial plexus of nerves arises from which of the following roots of the anterior primary rami of spinal nerves? A. All cervical roots (C1–C8). B. All thoracic roots (T1–T12). C. C8 and T1. D. C5 through C8 and T1. E. C5 through C8 and T1 through T4.

D. C5 through C8 and T1.

The right subclavian artery arises from the _____ and the left subclavian artery arises from the _____. A. Axillary artery; aortic arch B. Brachiocephalic artery; aortic arch C. Aortic arch; brachiocephalic artery D. Brachiocephalic artery; axillary artery E. Axillary artery; brachial artery

B. Brachiocephalic artery; aortic arch

The pulmonary vein of the lung carries: A. Unoxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart B. Oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart C. Unoxygenated blood to the lungs from the heart D. Oxygenated blood to the lungs from the heart E. Oxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs

B. Oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart VEIN- Back to the heart, Unoxygenated ARTERY- Away from the heart, Oxygenated Exception: -Pulmonary Veins and Arteries -Umbilical Veins and Arteries

The _____ of the heart is also known as the mitral valve. A. Right atrioventricular valve B. Left atrioventricular valve C. Pulmonary valve D. Aortic valve E. Tricuspid valve

B. Left atrioventricular valve MitraL- Left TRicuspid- Right

The cricopharyngeus muscle of the esophagus _____. A. Is a parasympathetic stimulator of peristalsis B. Is a sympathetic inhibitor of peristalsis C. Prevents swallowing air at the pharyngeal end D. Prevents regurgitation of stomach contents at the abdominal end E. Controls the gag reflex

C. Prevents swallowing air at the pharyngeal end (Upper Esophageal Sphincter)

The pancreas is enveloped at its head by the _____. A. First part of the duodenum B. Second part of the duodenum C. Third part of the duodenum D. Fourth part of the duodenum E. First part of the jejunum

A. First part of the duodenum

The gallbladder arises from the _____. A. Common hepatic duct B. Common bile duct C. Left hepatic duct D. Cystic duct E. Bile canaliculi

A. Common hepatic duct

The apex of a medullary pyramid in the kidney is called the _____. A. Cortex B. Medulla C. Renal papilla D. Major calyx E. Minor calyx

C. Renal papilla

Ureters travel inferiorly just _____ the parietal peritoneum of the posterior body wall. They pass _____ to the common iliac arteries as they enter the pelvis. A. Above; posterior B. Above; anterior C. Below; posterior D. Below; anterior E. Above; superior

D. Below; anterior

The lumen of the gastrointestinal tract is lined with _____. A. Mucosa B. Submucosa C. Muscularis externa D. Fibrosa E. Adventitia

A. Mucosa

Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) produces secretory _____. A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG E. IgM

A. IgA

The muscularis externa has a third layer in the _____. A. Esophagus B. Stomach C. Liver D. Small intestine E. Large intestine

B. Stomach

Which portion of uriniferous tubules contains squamous epithelial cells? A. Proximal convoluted tubule. B. Thick descending limb of Henle’s loop. C. Thin segment of Henle’s loop. D. Thick ascending segment of Henle’s loop. E. Distal convoluted tubule.

C. Thin segment of Henle’s loop.

The _____ is a component of the juxtaglomerular apparatus which functions in regulation of blood pressure. A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Bowman’s capsule D. Glomerulus E. Macula densa

E. Macula densa

Urinary filtrate is most hypotonic in the _____. A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Descending limb of Henle’s loop C. Thin segment of Henle’s loop D. Thick ascending segment of Henle’s loop E. Distal convoluted tubule

E. Distal convoluted tubule ISOTONIC- PCT HYPERTONIC- THIN LOH HYPOTONIC- THICK LOH, DCT

The _____ differentiates into ameloblasts. A. Stellate reticulum B. Inner enamel epithelium in the cap stage C. Inner enamel epithelium in the bell stage D. Outer enamel epithelium in the cap stage E. Outer enamel epithelium in the bell stage

C. Inner enamel epithelium in the bell stage

The dental lamina arises from _____. A. Somites B. Neural crest cells C. The first branchial arch D. The second branchial arch E. The buccopharyngeal membrane

B. Neural crest cells

The correct order of tooth formation is _____. A. Ameloblasts form, odontoblasts form, ameloblasts start to form enamel, odontoblasts start to form dentin B. Ameloblasts form, odontoblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts start to form enamel C. Odontoblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts form, ameloblasts start to form enamel D. Ameloblasts form, ameloblasts start to form enamel, odontoblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin E. Odontoblasts form, ameloblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts start to form enamel

B. Ameloblasts form, odontoblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts start to form enamel

The auricular hillocks are derived from the _____. A. First branchial arch B. Second branchial arch C. First and second branchial arch D. Lateral nasal process E. Medial nasal process

C. First and second branchial arch

Reduction division occurs during the _____. A. First stage of mitosis B. Second stage of mitosis C. First stage of meiosis D. Second stage of meiosis E. Third stage of meiosis

C. First stage of meiosis MEIOSIS I- Reduction MEIOSIS II- Equatorial

The embryo develops specifically from the _____. A. The entire blastocyst B. The entire trophoblast C. The embryonic disc D. The extraembryonic coelem E. The morula

C. The embryonic disc

Tooth enamel is derived from _____. A. Endoderm B. Mesoderm C. Ectoderm D. Endoderm and mesoderm

C. Ectoderm

The olecranon fossa is located on the _____ surface of the _____. A. Superior; radius B. Anterior; humerus C. Posterior; humerus D. Anterior; radius

C. Posterior; humerus

The latissimus dorsi muscle is supplied by the _____ nerve. A. Medial pectoral B. Cranial nerve XI C. Dorsal scapular D. Thoracodorsal

D. Thoracodorsal

The middle trunk of the brachial plexus of nerves arises from: A. C5 B. C6 C. C7 D. C8

C. C7

Which of the following ribs cannot be palpated? A. First B. Second C. Third D. A and B

A. First

An infection in a mandibular incisor with an apex below the mylohyoid muscle drains into which of the following spaces? A. Sublingual space B. Submental space C. Submandibular space D. Parapharyngeal space

B. Submental space

The spread of an odontogenic infection to which of the following spaces would MOST likely be considered life-threatening? A. Submandibular space B. Sublingual space C. Parapharyngeal space D. Retropharyngeal space E. Pterygomandibular space

D. Retropharyngeal space

The median pharyngeal raphe serves as the attachment site for which of the following muscles? A. Lateral pterygoid muscle B. Palatopharyngeus muscle C. Levator veli palatine muscle D. Salpingopharyngeus E. Superior constrictor muscle

E. Superior constrictor muscle (Middle and Inferior Constrictor)

The right subclavian artery arises: A. Directly from the arch of the aorta. B. From the brachiocephalic trunk. C. From the common carotid artery. D. From the external carotid artery. E. From the internal carotid artery.

B. From the brachiocephalic trunk.

CSF is drained by reabsorption into which of the following vessels? A. Cisterna chyli. B. Thoracic duct. C. Superior sagittal sinus. D. Inferior sagittal sinus. E. Falx cerebri.

C. Superior sagittal sinus.

Which of the following lymph nodes is located most inferiorly? A. Mastoid node. B. Jugulodigastric node. C. Jugulomohyoid node. D. Parotid node. E. Deep cervical node.

C. Jugulomohyoid node.

The ____ nerve joins the lingual nerve before it meets the submandibular gland. A. Greater Petrosal. B. Inferior Alveolar. C. Tensor Veli Palatini. D. Chorda Tympani. E. Auriculotemporal.

D. Chorda Tympani.

Which of the following spaces is the site for the IAN block? A. Sublingual space. B. Pterygomandibular space. C. Infratemporal space. D. Submasseteric space. E. Temporal space.

B. Pterygomandibular space.

Which of the following sutures joins the parietal and temporal bones? A. Coronal suture. B. Squamosal suture. C. Temporozygomatic suture. D. Lambdoidal suture. E. Sagittal suture.

B. Squamosal suture.

Which of the following structures from the posterior border of the posterior triangle of the neck? A. Posterior border of SCM muscle. B. Clavicle. C. Levator Scapulae muscle. D. Anterior border of trapezius muscle. E. Posterior border of trapezius muscle.

D. Anterior border of trapezius muscle.

Which of the following cranial nerves supplies the motor innervation for all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue? A. CN V. B. CN VII. C. CN IX. D. CN XI. E. CN XII.

E. CN XII.

Which of the following nerves of the brachial plexus is sensory to the shoulder joint? A. Suprascpaular nerve. B. Medial Pectoral Nerve. C. Lateral Pectoral Nerve. D. Dorsal Pectoral Nerve. E. Long Thoracic Nerve.

A. Suprascpaular nerve.

Which of the following veins of the arm is the preferred site for venipuncture? A. Cephalic vein. B. Median antebrachial vein. C. Median cubital vein. D. Basilic vein. E. Dorsal venous arch.

C. Median cubital vein.

Occlusion of which of the following arteries would result in "heart block"? A. Right Coronary artery. B. Left Coronary artery. C. Anterior interventricular artery. D. Posterior interventricular artery. E. Circumflex artery.

C. Anterior interventricular artery.

At which of the following vertebral levels does the descending aorta become the abdominal aorta? A. T4. B. T8. C. T12. D. L2. E. S1.

C. T12.

Which of the following nerves provides motor and sensory supply to the diaphragm? A. Vagus nerve. B. Intercostal nerve. C. Greater splanchnic nerve. D. Least splanchnic nerve. E. Phrenic nerve.

E. Phrenic nerve.

Which lobe of the liver lies between the gallbladder, ligamentum teres and the porta hepatis? A. Right lobe. B. Left lobe. C. Quadrate lobe. D. Cuadate lobe.

C. Quadrate lobe.

Type II collagen is found in which of the following tissues? A. Teeth. B. Hyaline cartilage. C. Basement membrane. D. Tendons and ligaments. E. Reticula fibers.

B. Hyaline cartilage.

Osteocytes are found in spaces in bone known as ___. A. Lamallae. B. Lacunae. C. Osteons. D. Central canals. E. GAGs.

B. Lacunae.

Which is the most common type of granular leukocyte? A. Plasma cell. B. Monocyte. C. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte. D. Lymphocyte. E. Basophil.

C. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte.

Which of the following are extensions of dentinal tubules that pass through the DEJ into enamel? A. Enamel lamellae. B. Enamel tufts. C. Enamel spindles. D. Perikymata. E. Incremental lines.

C. Enamel spindles.

Which of the following is a gingival rather than alveolodental fiber of the PDL? A. Oblique fibers. B. Interradicular fibers. C. Transseptal fibers. D. Alveolar crest fibers. E. Horizontal fibers.

C. Transseptal fibers.

Which of the following muscles attaches to the anterior end of the articular disc of the TMJ? A. Superior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle. B. Inferior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle. C. Medial Pterygoid muscle. D. Masseter muscle. E. Stylopharyngeus muscle.

A. Superior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle.

Mosby Flashcards

(120 cards)