Most attempts

Question 1

Atenolol

Answer 1

a beta blocker; slows AV nodal conduction to decrease the ventricular response rate to afib

Question 2

Procainamide

Answer 2

a class 1a anti-arrhythmic; used in attempts to convert afib to a NSR; but rarely effective

Question 3

Diltiazem

Answer 3

a Ca channel blocker and can be used to slow AV nodal conduction and ventricular response rate

Question 4

Digoxin

Answer 4

increases vagal tone to the AV node to slow conduction and decrease HR

Question 5

Isoproterenol

Answer 5

non-specific beta receptor agonist; increases ventricular rate in response to afib

Question 6

In Afib, what drug should you not reach for and why?

Answer 6

Isoproterenol; itll up your ventricular rate in response to afib- which we dont need!

Question 7

A horse ingests JIMSONWEED which contains SCOPOLAMINE- what is the tx of choice?

Answer 7

Physostigmine

Question 8

What enzyme do you test for to diagnose selenium deficiency?

Answer 8

glutathione peroxidase

Question 9

What is diazepam implicated in causing in cats?

Answer 9

acute fulminant hepatic necrosis; greatest risk when administered repeatedly and orally; this happens because metabolism of the drug happens in the liver and creates toxic metabolites; and if the cat is glutathione deficieny, they are at an increased risk

Question 10

what drug has been implicated in causing acute renal failure in horses?

Answer 10

phenylbutazone; its an NSAID; another big category is aminoglycosides

Question 11

after a tibial plateau leveling ostetomy, what will still be present

Answer 11

cranial drawer because you never have a CCL

Question 12

what is the equation for PPV?

Answer 12

A/(A+B)

Question 13

what is the % that blood constitutes in BW(kg) in a cow?

Answer 13

7-8%

Question 14

how many blood groups do cattle have

Answer 14

11

Question 15

which blood groups in cattle have the greatest clinical relevancy?

Answer 15

B and J

Question 16

What is the causative agent of salmon poisioning (in dogs)?

Answer 16

Neorickettsia helminthoeca; but it is carried by the fluke, Nanophyetus salmincola, which requires the snail, Oxytrema silicula

Question 17

what is a major cause of miliary dermatitis in cats

Answer 17

flea allergy dermatitis

Question 18

how would a cat look with miliairy dermatitis?

Answer 18

crusted papules along the cat’s neck and back, as well as severe pruritis

Question 19

what agent do you use to sedate a fish; withdrawal time?

Answer 19

Tricaine methanesulfonate (MS 222); 21d withdrawal

Question 20

Phenobarbital - most common side effect

Answer 20

sedation

Question 21

In a Macaw- what would one expect clinically with proventricular dilation syndrome

Answer 21

regurgitation, weight loss with a good appetite, polyuria, and passage of undigested seeds

Question 22

What is the most appropriate treatment for transitional cell carcinoma at the trigone of the bladder (dogs)

Answer 22

Piroxicam and carboplatin

Question 23

What is oligozoospermatism

Answer 23

less than the normal number of spermatozoa in semen

Question 24

what pathologies could cause oligozoospermatism in a stallion (3)?

Answer 24

testicular degeneration, testicular hypoplasia, old age

Question 25

what are some tx for hyperkalemia?

Answer 25

calcium gluconate, calcium chloride, insulin and glucose

Question 26

what is the mean circulating life span of a cat RBC

Answer 26

68d

Question 27

what is the mean circulating life span of a dog RBC

Answer 27

110d

Question 28

You see a kid goat (10-12 blocks) that has developed a high fever, swollen and painful joints, and respiratory signs including tachypnea and dyspnea. what are we thinking?

Answer 28

mycoplasma mycoides ssp mycoides

Question 29

what agent causes mycoplasma mastitis in cattle?

Answer 29

mycoplasma bovis

Question 30

what would a cecal displacement or torsion feel like on a rectal exam in a cow?

Answer 30

a loaf of bread just cranial to the pelvis

Question 31

when do we use hyposensitization treatments in dogs?

Answer 31

for atopy (environmental allergies)

Question 32

What is the causative agent of fowl cholera

Answer 32

gram neg Pasteurella multocida

Question 33

On postmortem exam of a chicken with fowl cholera, what could one expect to see in abd organs?

Answer 33

vascular hyperemia

Question 34

Why does "Infectious laryngotracheitis virus" in chickens have a latent phase?

Answer 34

because its a herpesvirus! latent phase in neural tissue

Question 35

What is the optimal treatment and management of Gasterophilus spp in equine?

Answer 35

prompt removal of feces and administer ivermectin 2x annually, once in the early summer and again in the fall

Question 36

What signalment of rabbit do we commonly see a uterine adenocarcinoma in?

Answer 36

80% incidence among intact females--New Zealand White rabbit

Question 37

T or F: Rabbits are induced ovulators

Answer 37

TRUE

Question 38

What are the causative agents of gangrenous mastitis in ewes?

Answer 38

Mannheimia spp and Staph aureus

Question 39

define crichpharyngeal achalasia

Answer 39

the pharyngeoesophageal sphincter fails to relax

Question 40

what is the causative agent (bacterial) for canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?

Answer 40

Ehrlichia canis

Question 41

T or F: Some of the genes can transfer from a bird strain to a human strain, thus producing a much more virulent strain that can affect humans

Answer 41

true

Question 42

what is the tx for deep digital flexor tendon contracture?

Answer 42

distal check desmotomy and corrective shoeing

Question 43

what values would we expect to see on chemistry in a bird with egg yolk peritonitis

Answer 43

heterophilia, increased AST, CK, and fibrinogen

Question 44

what condition is associated with excess dietary calcium and vit D in young horses?

Answer 44

osteochondrosis

Question 45

what is the most common serum elecrtolyte abnormalities in a foal with uroperitoneum

Answer 45

hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypochloremia; the urine is high in potassium and low in sodium and chloride, thus when uroabdomen occurs, the electrolytes equilibrate between the serum and abd fluid

Question 46

Avian fowl pox: what are the two forms

Answer 46

A) nodules and scabs that on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent B) diptheritic membrane in the mouth and pharynx

Question 47

what is the best treatment for a flock with avian fowl pox

Answer 47

control mosquito populations and vaccinate chicks or replacement chickens with a single immunization against avian pox

Question 48

what does activated charcoal effectively bind

Answer 48

nicotine

Question 48

In a cow with LDA, what is expected temp, pulse, and RR

Answer 48

normal

Question 49

what is the expected intraocular pressure in a dog with acute anterior uveitis? why

Answer 49

6 mmHg; in acute case;. in chronic cases, there is glaucoma and high pressures

Question 50

What kind of lesions or pathologies can we expect when cows eat lupine (ie. lukine alkaloids)

Answer 50

fetal teratogenic: "crooked calf" (arthrogryposis) or cleft palate

Question 51

what happens when cows ingest pyrrolizidine alkaloids?

Answer 51

liver shit

Question 52

what happens when cows ingest large amount of brackern fern

Answer 52

bone marrow suppression

Question 53

what is a predisposing factor for prolapse in a bird that only eats seeds?

Answer 53

calcium deficiency

Question 54

number the dog's toes and explicity say how the counting starts (medial or lateral

Answer 54

numbered from 1 to 5 starting medially with small 1st metacarpal that is associated with the dewclaw

Question 55

what ab is contraindicated for use in guinea pigs

Answer 55

streptomycin

Question 56

what does Amphotericin B (an antifungal) act on?

Answer 56

fungal cell membrane

Question 57

what is amphotericin B (an antifungal) toxic to (organ)

Answer 57

kidneys

Question 58

on radiographs of a SA, what would be depicted, or associated with, for a pleural effusion?

Answer 58

severe loss of detail to the thorax and retraction of the lung lobes

Question 59

what is a clinical sign of horner's in a horse

Answer 59

sweating on the ipsilateral head and neck; and then also, enopthalmos, ptosis, and miosis, prolapsed 3rd eyelid

Question 60

a turtle's eyelids are markedly swollen due to palpebral edema and nasal discharge. what would be really helpful to know to help determine the etiology of these clinical signs

Answer 60

the turtle's diet; the signs are associated with Vit a deficiency; this vit is an antioxidant and is super important for proper function of the eyes, skin, and mm.

Question 61

Number and distribution of lung lobes in the D and C

Answer 61

6- L (cr, cau), R(cra, middle, cau, and acc)

Question 62

what are soft ticks associated with in horses?

Answer 62

uncommonly associated with muscle tremors; as compared to hard ticks which carry bacterial infections

Question 63

what is monitored when a dog is being treated with mitotane (op-DDD)?

Answer 63

inappetance

Question 64

Diabetes insipidus refers to lack of production or response to...

Answer 64

vasopressin; central refers to lack of RELEASE of vasopressin by the posterior pit gland, while nephrogenic refers to inappropriate response to vasopressin

Question 65

Goats: first started on pregnant does, now most of the herd is affected to varying degress; papules and nodules along the face, neck, and/or udder, non-pruritic; feed consumption and milk production remains normal. what are we thinking?

Answer 65

Demodex caprae

Question 66

what is the most common source of campylobacter infection in humans

Answer 66

undercooked chicken

Question 67

explain hyposensitization therapy for atopy

Answer 67

injecting progressively increasing amounts of known allergens into the patient in order to gradually increase their tolerance of the allergens without developing clinical signs

Question 68

What finding in blood or tissues would diagnose fowl cholera?

Answer 68

gram negative bacteria in blood or tissues; coupled with vascular hyperemia of the abdominal organs

Question 69

what do we sedate fish with?

Answer 69

MS 222 (Tricaine methanesulfonate)

Question 70

what is the underlying virus assc with psittacine beak and feather disease?

Answer 70

circovirus; PCR probe of whole blood for this

Question 71

what is hydrops allantois (hydroallantois)

Answer 71

its a disorder of the placenta; rapid accumulation of 100-200 liters of watery, clear fluid during the last trimester; prognosis for the fetus is guarded and the cow will as a result be infertile

Question 72

a 2d old jack russell terrier presents on emergency basis for lethargy and decreased suckling. what is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 72

hypoglycemia

Question 73

what drugs can we use for a strongyle infestation in a horse?

Answer 73

ivermectin, fenbendazole, oxibendazole

Question 74

if an dog is clinically okay, but on cardiac auscultation presents with a 2/6 left systolic mumur over the heart (everything else wnl): (1) what is the likely cardiac condition and (2) does it need meds

Answer 74

myxomatous mitral valve degeneration and no, not currently

Question 75

T or F: Cats can be asymptomatic carries of ringwom

Answer 75

true

Question 76

what ratio should you asses on chemistry when suspicious of hypoadrenocorticism

Answer 76

Na:K ratio; below 27:1

Question 77

what virus causes hairy shaker lambs

Answer 77

border disease virus; a pestivirus

Question 78

if an anesthesized patient enters an acidotic state, how can one intervene?

Answer 78

increase the rate of mechanical ventilation

Question 79

How can we distinguish infectious laryngotracheitis from the diptheric form of fowl pox?

Answer 79

intranuclear inclusion bodies in the tracheal epithelium

Question 80

in what commercial species is it standard practice to use AI in?

Answer 80

turkies

Question 81

which fatty acid is really good at decreasing inflammation?

Answer 81

Omega-3s! (omega 6 is good for coat quality)

Question 82

what are the two common types of ureteroliths and uroliths in the horse?

Answer 82

calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate

Question 83

what is the tx for tuberculosis in cattle

Answer 83

cull/slaughter

Question 84

what are the typical clinical signs associated with infectious bovine rhinotracheitis?

Answer 84

upper resp tract signs (loud hacking cough, sneezing, fever, anorexia, open mouth breathing, and mucopurulent nasal discharge) and white plaques on the conjunctiva and nasal epithelium

Question 85

What drug is approved for treating acute respiratory disease in food animals?

Answer 85

Ceftofur

Question 86

what is so scary about staph food poisoning?

Answer 86

the strains of bacteria that cause it make a heat-stable enterotoxin

Question 87

How do you rid a dairy herd of Leptospira interrogans serovar Hardjo?

Answer 87

treat all animals with tetracycline to eliminate carriers and regularly vaccinate all cattle against the serovar

Question 88

if we are suspicious of swine influenza virus, what samples should we collect ?

Answer 88

nasal swabs from aborted sows; it is not found in blood or the aborted fetuses

Question 89

what is a potential side effect of L-asparaginase?

Answer 89

anaphylaxis (vomit intractably, dx, weak, unable to get up)

Question 90

What is a potential side effect of vincristine

Answer 90

vx, dx, but takes a few days to start (as compated to l-asparaginase)