MQF Flashcards
(186 cards)
0
Q
What system is used to open the forward cargo baggage door?
A
Manual mechanical
1
Q
The designation of the engine on the 737 – NG is CFM international CFM 56–7B26
A
True
2
Q
With the emergency light switch in the armed position under normal power, what condition will cause the lights to illuminate automatically?
A
Loss of #1 DC bus or AC power is turned off
3
Q
In-flight, when the gear horn sounds, under what conditions can it be silenced?
A
Flaps 1 – 10, thrust levers at any position
4
Q
What warning inhibits are available in the GPWS system?
A
Flaps config, gear config and terrain
5
Q
How are the bleed valves operated?
A
Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
6
Q
A reactive windshear alert inhibits all others
A
True
7
Q
Can the engines be started with the engine bleed valve switches in the off position?
A
Yes
8
Q
With the loss of system A hydraulic pressure, nose wheel steering:
A
Is manually selectable to system B hydraulics
9
Q
What causes a bleed trip?
A
Both A and B
Excessive bleed pressure and temp
10
Q
How many fuel measuring sticks are used to check the center tank quantity?
A
4
11
Q
What does a duct overheat light indicate?
A
Bleed air temperature in related duct exceeds limits
12
Q
What is the function of the EEC?
A
Both A and B
- N1 is used by the EEC to set thrust in three control modes: normal and two alternates
- EEC uses thrust Lever inputs to automatically control forward and reverse thrust
13
Q
Where is the engine oil pressure measured?
A
On the outlet side of the engine driven oil pump, prior to engine lubrication
14
Q
What is the purpose of the isolation valve?
A
Allows separation or connection of the left and right pneumatic systems when required
15
Q
What are the in Flight operating limits of the APU?
A
All of the above
16
Q
When should the starter automatically cut out?
A
56% N2
17
Q
What are the power sources of igniters?
A
Left, respective AC transfer bus and Right, standby AC bus
18
Q
Will the APU fire detection system automatically discharge the fire bottle?
A
No, it only shuts the APU down
19
Q
What requirements must be met before reverse is available?
A
All of the above and reverse selected
- Fire switch down
- Either radio altimeter sensing less than 10 feet, or the air\ground sensor in the ground mode
- Hydraulic pressure and battery power available
20
Q
What is the purpose of the landing gear transfer unit?
A
Allows landing gear retraction in the event of a number one engine failure
21
Q
What are the temperature limits of the APU?
A
Maximum limits are not displayed but are set by the ECU
22
Q
What are the electrical sources for the 737?
A
All of the above
- Two engine driven generators
- APU
- Ground Powerr
- battery for standby bus
23
Q
How are the primary flight controls normally powered?
A
By hydraulic systems A & B
24
How could the standby rudder be activated manually?
Placing either or both system A and B flight control switches to standby rudder
25
Under what conditions would an IDG disconnect (either manually or automatically) be necessary when low oil is sensed by a DRIVE amber caution light?
Both A and B
- High oil temperature
- IDG failure
26
Can the standby hydraulic pump be activated by any additional method?
Yes, by selecting the alternate flap master switch to on
27
Which buses supply the essential loads?
The standby buses
28
What is the minimum fuel to operate the electric hydraulic pumps on the ground?
1675 pounds in each wing tank
29
Why is there a minimum fuel requirement to operate the electric hydraulic pumps?
The A and B system heat exchangers are located in the main tanks
30
What are the primary and the backup sources of power for the transfer buses ?
Primary: respective IDG
Backup: opposite XFER bus
31
At what degree of control wheel displacement does Flight spoiler deployment begin to assist the ailerons in roll control?
10°
32
Does aileron trim physically effect control wheel position?
Yes. The control wheel position directly indicates the amount of aileron trim applied.
33
What is the function of a TR?
Convert 115 V AC power to 28 V DC power
34
What is the voltage output of the TR's?
28 volts
35
If the trailing edge flaps are extended by the alternate method, what flap protections are available
None
36
What powers the trailing edge flaps down with the alternate flaps system selected?
An electric motor
37
When is the automatic standby power feature available?
Always. It functions the same on the ground as in the air.
38
Which of the following is not on the hot battery bus?
Standby Runner shut off valve
39
If the system B electric pump or lines developed a leak what would the indications be?
The quantity indication would go to zero. But sufficient fluid would be available to operate the power transfer unit.
40
If you lost all standby system hydraulic fluid, would there be a cockpit indication?
Yes. The standby low quantity light would be illuminated and system B reservoir would read one half and RFL
41
What activates the standby hydraulic pump?
All of the above and activation of the FFM
42
What is the power source for APU start?
A and B
- AC power if available
- Main battery only if AC not available
43
Will the autobrake disarm light normally illuminate after take off with RTO selected?
No
44
When selected, at what speed is RTO available?
Above 90 knots
45
What is the maximum airspeed for retracting the landing gear?
235 knots
46
When is the fuel heated?
The fuel is constantly heated by a fuel\oil heat exchanger
47
When retracting the highlift devices using the alternate method will the LED's return to the retracted position?
No
48
What are the two sources of power for the ground service bus?
Both A and C
- Transfer bus one
- Ground power via the ground service switch on the F\A panel
49
When are the ground service buses powered?
When external power is available and the ground service switch is on, or both transfer buses are powered
50
When is the latest you should wait for oil pressure to be indicated?
By idle RPM
51
The APU has an overheat warning system
False
52
Must the battery switch be on to operate the APU?
Yes, on the ground and in Flight
53
Can the APU be started without the battery?
No, the battery is required
54
What actuates the thrust reversers?
Hydraulic pressure
55
What do the start levers control?
Both A and C
- fuel
- ignition
56
How long should you operate the APU before using it as a bleed air source?
1 minute
57
The EGPWS gets position information from:
GPS position
58
When are the aux and main batteries tied together?
When the batteries are the only source of power (except during APU start)
59
What is the primary source for DC power?
Three transformer rectifiers (TRs) and a ground service TR
60
What is the maximum EGT allowed during engine start?
Not given, but the APU start will automatically terminate in an exceedance
61
What would indicate an APU hung start?
The start is automatically terminated
62
How high may the APU be started?
Up to the service ceiling of the aircraft
63
What is a good test indication of the TCAS?
A and B
- Four traffic symbols on the NDs
- An aural message that the test is okay
64
Where did the air conditioning packs get their air?
All of the above
65
How is the APU compartment and exhaust system cold?
Air enters the cooling inlet above the exhaust opening
66
If the APU EGT rises above acceptable limits during engine start:
It will reduce the electrical output to maintain bleed air pressure
67
What is the primary source of cockpit air?
The left pack, upstream of the mix manifold
68
What would be your indication with a TR3 failure?
0 V & amps. TR 3 output is read at the TR.
69
What is the power source for TR3?
XFER BUS #2
70
How could you verify that TR1 had failed?
TR1 amps 0 and volts normal
71
If the DC meter switch is placed to the standby power position, what would you be able to read?
DC standby bus voltage only
72
Normally, what would you expect to happen if the DC bus number 1 or Transfer bus number 1 failed?
The battery bus would power the standby DC bus and the standby AC bus through the static inverter
73
What are the normal and backup power sources for the standby AC and DC buses?
All of the above
74
What malfunctions does the reset button effect?
Bleed trip, pack trip, duct overheat
75
What would be a reason to switch the standby power switch to battery on the ground?
None as the standby buses are powered with the battery switch in the on position on the ground
76
What are the power sources for the battery bus?
Both A and C
- with normal AC power and the battery switch on-TR3
- with loss of AC power in Flight-the battery
77
With the battery switch off and ground power supplying ground services in the cabin, are the batteries being charged?
Yes, because the ground service buses supply the battery chargers
78
How long will the battery provide standby power?
60 minutes with the two battery option
79
What is the function of the recirculation fan?
Both A and B
- reduces fuel consumption
- reduces the amount of bleed air demanded from the packs
80
When are the deflector doors extended?
On the ground
81
What is the power source for the recirculation fan?
Driven by an AC motor
82
When will be EQUIP COOLING OFF light illuminate?
When airflow is insufficient to cool the airflow sensor
83
What is the maximum lateral fuel imbalance?
1000 pounds for all phases of flight
84
Describe the normal fuel loading sequence
Fill the main tanks to full, then center tank.
85
With fuel in all tanks and all boost pumps on, how is feel feed scheduled to the engines?
Center tank to both engines until the tank is empty, then main tank to respective engine
86
When is the air conditioning ram air deflector door open?
When on the ground
87
What is the power source for the pack valves?
The battery bus
88
A pack valve can automatically regulate to high flow:
A and B
- except on the ground, or in the air with flaps extended
- The other pack is not operating
89
The forward outflow valve will open automatically:
It's a trick! There's no forward outflow valve
90
The overboard exhaust valve closes:
At high cabin differential cabin pressures
91
When is the overboard exhaust valve open?
On the ground
92
When does the aircraft start pressurizing?
It starts pressurizing the cabin at higher power settings on the ground
93
What causes illumination of the equipment cooling off light?
A loss of airflow
94
What action is required when the equipment cooling off light illuminates
Place the switch to alternate
95
What is the source of equipment cooling air?
Conditioned air from the cockpit is drawn across the circuit breaker panels, then routed through the E & E compartment racks.
96
Where does the fuel temperature indicator get it's reading?
#1 main tank
97
With all fuel pump switches on and the forward pump in the number one tank not working, when will the master caution and fuel cap lights illuminate?
Both A and C
- when the CAP Panel is pressed for recall
- when the second pump in that tank quits
98
With total loss of normal AC power, can the engines still be provided with fuel?
Yes, through section feed from the main tanks only
99
At what cabin altitude will the cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy?
At approximately 14,000 feet cabin altitude
100
The fuel pumps for the main and center tanks are powered by which electrical system?
AC
101
What is another purpose of the defueling valve?
Ground transfer of fuel
102
A center tank fuel pump low-pressure light will illuminate when the pump switch is off
False
103
Each tank supplies pressurized fuel by using ___ boost pumps
2
104
With the crossfeed valve closed, the left center tank boost pump will feed the left engine and the right-center tank boost pump will feed the right engine, until the center tank is dry.
True
105
With a complete loss of electrical power, only fuel from which tanks will be available?
Main tanks
106
The Fuel quantity indicators are found on the upper MFD panel and require standby AC power to operate
True
107
In Flight, when when the crossfeed valve is open, fuel may be fed from any tank to:
Either engine
108
The engine fuel shut off valves may be closed by:
Both A and B
- pulling the engine fire warning switch
- placing the engine start lever to cut off
109
Which valve interconnects the engine feed system to the fueling station?
Manual defueling valve
110
The power transfer unit provides an alternate source of hydraulic power for autatic extension of the autos lays if the system B engine driven pump pressure falls below limits.
True
111
Can the standby hydraulic pump operate the thrust reversers?
Yes, but more slowly than normal operation
112
When both the crossfeed switch and the crossfeed valve are open, the crossfeed valve open light will:
Iluminate dim blue
113
For a fuel annunciator and master caution light to illuminate, two fuel low-pressure lights must be illuminated in the same wing tank(except on Recall)
True
114
When the landing gear is up and locked, all landing gear indicator lights will be extinguished when the landing gear lever is placed in what position?
Either A or B
Up or off
115
The maximum fuel imbalance for landing is?
1000 pounds
116
What does the illumination of the fuel filter bypass light indicate?
Impending filter bypass
117
Wing tanks number one and number two must be full if the center tank contains more than what about?
1000 pounds
118
The warning horn will sound when landing gear is not down and locked, flaps greater than 15 and the thrust levers are at idle; it cannot be silenced
True
119
Air/ground safety sensors are located on what gear?
All of the above
120
The engine fuel shut off valve is:
DC powered (hot battery bus) and controlled by the engine start lever and/or the engine fire switch
121
What ensures proper fuel flow direction and prevents transfer of fuel between tanks?
Check valves
122
If the trailing edge flaps were extended and retracted by the alternate method, according to procedure; how long would it be before you could extend the trailing edge flaps again?
Five minutes
123
Which outflow valve motor does the auto mode use?
A DC motor
124
If the cowl valve fails to agree with the position of the engine anti-ice switch, what will the indication be?
The COWL VALVE OPEN LIGHT will be bright blue
125
In auto mode, where does the controller derive its altitude information?
From the ADIRUs
126
If unable to close the engine anti-ice valve in flight, what should the crew do?
Limit the thrust in the affected engine to 80% N1 if TAT exceeds 10C
127
What does an illuminated COWL ANTI-ICE light mean?
An over pressure condition exists in the cowl anti ice duct
128
The engine anti ice should be turned on at what time?
When icing conditions exist or are anticipated
129
What is the maximum airspeed for extending the landing gear?
270 kts
130
The purpose of the single point fueling system is to allow:
All of the above
Rapid fueling, gnd transfer and defueling
131
Is it possible to service the center tank without single point fueling?
Yes, by the use of ground transfer
132
If both A and B hydraulic systems failed could any of the primary flight controls be hydraulically powered?
Yes, the rudder thru the standby rudder power control unit powered by the standby hydraulic system
133
With the loss of all generators, both center tank boost pumps are inoperative and the fuel in the tank is no longer usablea
True. Suction feed is available from main tanks only
134
Where does the Auto mode of the pressure controller receive its barometric reference?
From the BARO selectors through the ADIRUs
135
Yaw damper operations occur only when what hydraulic system is operational?
B system
136
Where does the ALTN mode get its barometric reference?
From the BARO selectors through the ADIRUs
137
If an OVERHEAT light cannot be extinguished by using the recommended overheat procedures, which engine procedures should be followed?
Engine failure,fire,severe damage, or separation
138
How many minutes prior to takeoff should the window heat be turned in?
10 min
139
With the overheat detector switch in normal, which loops must sense an overheat or fire condition before an overheat or fire warning is activated?
Both A and B loops
140
A green window heat on light illuminates:
Whenever the window heat controller is applying heat to the associated window
141
Pulling and rotating a fire warning handle will discharge the fire extinguisher selected even when the battery switch is OFF
True
142
The results of pulling the APU fire warning handle are:
Both of the above
APU shutoff valves closes. Bleed air valve closes. Inlet door closes.
Trips the generator control relay. Arms the extinguisher.
143
When the FLT/GRD switch is placed in the FLT position, what does the system do?
It's a trick! There's no FLT/GRD SWITCH
144
APU fire detection loop failure is indicated by the illumination of which light?
APU DET INOP light
145
The FAULT light monitors which detector loops?
Engine #1 and Engine #2
146
How are the fire warning switches unlocked manually?
Both A and B
By pressing he override release
By conducting a FIRE test, then pulling the switch
147
If a flight attendant turns on the a Emergency exit lights on the aft panel, is there a cockpit indication and can the cockpit crew override the F/A switch?
No indication in the cockpit, the pilots switch will not override the F/A switch
148
What does the green disk on the right side of the fuselage indicate?
Crew oxygen thermal pressure relief disk
149
If ground power is being supplied to the aircraft and APU power is put on one bus, does the ground power trip off the line?
No, ground power will continue to power the other side until it is removed, or another power source powers that bus.
150
What is the minimum fuel to operate the electric hydraulic pumps on the ground?
1675 pounds in each wing tank
151
Why is there a minimum fuel requirement to operate the electric hydraulic pumps?
The A and B system heat exchangers are located in the main tanks
152
What are the primary and the backup sources of power for the transfer buses ?
Primary: respective IDG
Backup: opposite XFER bus
153
At what degree of control wheel displacement does Flight spoiler deployment begin to assist the ailerons in roll control?
10°
154
Does aileron trim physically effect control wheel position?
Yes. The control wheel position directly indicates the amount of aileron trim applied.
155
What is the function of a TR?
Convert 115 V AC power to 28 V DC power
156
What is the voltage output of the TR's?
28 volts
157
If the trailing edge flaps are extended by the alternate method, what flap protections are available
None
158
What powers the trailing edge flaps down with the alternate flaps system selected?
An electric motor
159
When is the automatic standby power feature available?
Always. It functions the same on the ground as in the air.
160
Which of the following is not on the hot battery bus?
Standby Runner shut off valve
161
If the system B electric pump or lines developed a leak what would the indications be?
The quantity indication would go to zero. But sufficient fluid would be available to operate the power transfer unit.
162
If you lost all standby system hydraulic fluid, would there be a cockpit indication?
Yes. The standby low quantity light would be illuminated and system B reservoir would read one half and RFL
163
What activates the standby hydraulic pump?
All of the above and activation of the FFM
164
What is the power source for APU start?
A and B
- AC power if available
- Main battery only if AC not available
165
Will the autobrake disarm light normally illuminate after take off with RTO selected?
No
166
When selected, at what speed is RTO available?
Above 90 knots
167
What is the maximum airspeed for retracting the landing gear?
235 knots
168
When is the fuel heated?
The fuel is constantly heated by a fuel\oil heat exchanger
169
When retracting the highlift devices using the alternate method will the LED's return to the retracted position?
No
170
What are the two sources of power for the ground service bus?
Both A and C
- Transfer bus one
- Ground power via the ground service switch on the F\A panel
171
When are the ground service buses powered?
When external power is available and the ground service switch is on, or both transfer buses are powered
172
When is the latest you should wait for oil pressure to be indicated?
By idle RPM
173
The APU has an overheat warning system
False
174
Must the battery switch be on to operate the APU?
Yes, on the ground and in Flight
175
Can the APU be started without the battery?
No, the battery is required
176
What actuates the thrust reversers?
Hydraulic pressure
177
What do the start levers control?
Both A and C
- fuel
- ignition
178
How long should you operate the APU before using it as a bleed air source?
1 minute
179
The EGPWS gets position information from:
GPS position
180
When are the aux and main batteries tied together?
When the batteries are the only source of power (except during APU start)
181
What is the primary source for DC power?
Three transformer rectifiers (TRs) and a ground service TR
182
What is the maximum EGT allowed during engine start?
Not given, but the APU start will automatically terminate in an exceedance
183
What would indicate an APU hung start?
The start is automatically terminated
184
How high may the APU be started?
Up to the service ceiling of the aircraft
185
What is a good test indication of the TCAS?
A and B
- Four traffic symbols on the NDs
- An aural message that the test is okay
