MQF Flashcards
(361 cards)
1
Q
What is the wind limit for operating the upper cargo door?
A
b. 40 Knots
2
Q
- What is the maximum wind speed with the upper cargo door held open in the 85
or 165 degree positions?
A
c. 52 Knots
3
Q
- What is the approximate wingspan on the MD11?
A
a. 169 feet 6 inches (51.6 meters)
4
Q
- On what runway width is a 180 degree turn NOT authorized?
A
c. A 150 foot runway
5
Q
- The Miscellaneous Systems Controller controls all the following except?
A
c. Pressurization Schedule and outflow valve
6
Q
- At what altitude will the level one CREW REST OPEN alert be displayed if the
Crew Rest Module is not properly stowed and latched?
A
b. At or below 17750 Feet
7
Q
- What is the normal source of pneumatics for each of the three air systems?
A
a. Associated engine
8
Q
- What alternate sources of air are available if the normal source is not available?
A
b. APU on the ground only, external air on the ground, any other operating engine.
9
Q
- What is the source of hot air for engine cowl anti-ice?
A
a. Associated engine only
10
Q
- The Environmental System Controller (ESC) directs two Pneumatic System Controllers (PSCs), three Air Conditioning Controllers (ACCs), two Cabin Pressure
Controllers (CPCs), and which other controller?
A
c. Manifold failure controller
11
Q
- The Manifold Failure Detection System (MFDS) can detect leaks in the Center
Accessory Compartment (CAC), horizontal stabilizer anti-ice system, three
pneumatic systems and air conditioning packs, and which other area?
A
b. Tail pylon area
12
Q
- How is the air temperature adjusted when the crew selects a new compartment temperature?
A
b. Pack outlet temperatures are adjusted and trim air is added as needed
13
Q
- Conditioned air is provided to cockpit, courier, and which other compartment?
A
a. Cargo
14
Q
- How are the packs turned off when the crew is ready for engine start?
A
a. Selecting ignition A, B, or OVRD will shut off all operating packs
15
Q
- How is the avionics compartment kept cool?
A
b. A series of cooling fans supplies air to the avionic racks
16
Q
- How is avionics cooling air normally routed for exhaust in flight?
A
a. Air is routed into an exhaust manifold and dumped overboard through the venturi
17
Q
- How is avionics cooling air normally routed for exhaust on the ground?
A
b. Exhaust fans draw the air into the exhaust manifold and discharge some of the air overboard
18
Q
- The AVNCS FAN FLOW switch will illuminate if cabin altitude is >10,000’, cabin inflow is too low for pressurization, and which other condition?
A
a. Low flow through the avionics
19
Q
- How is the Center Accessory Compartment (CAC) ventilated?
A
b. Similar to the avionics compartment, air is supplied by cooling fans
20
Q
- In which regime does the tunnel ventilation system use a fan to pull air from the
cabin and distribute it to the area under the cabin floor?
A
c. On the ground only
21
Q
- Which of the cargo compartments are both heated and ventilated?
A
a. Forward and aft cargo compartments
22
Q
- Pressurized areas on the aircraft include the Center Accessory Compartment (CAC), flight deck, courier, and which other compartment?
A
b. Avionics compartment
23
Q
- What function do the pressure relief valves provide?
A
a. Limit the cabin differential pressure to 9.1 PSI
24
Q
- When does the Cabin Pressure Controller (CPC) pre-pressurize the aircraft with the CPC in AUTO?
A
c. When the slats are extended
25
25. What altitude does the Cabin Pressure Controller (CPC) pre-pressurize the aircraft to with the CPC in AUTO?
a. 100’ below takeoff field elevation
26
26. When does the Cabin Pressure Controller (CPC) begin scheduling the cabin altitude for cruise flight with the CPC in AUTO?
b. Aircraft altitude exceeds 5,000’ above departure field elevation
27
27. When does the Environmental System Controller (ESC) restore pneumatics and air conditioning after takeoff with the ESC is in AUTO?
a. Thrust is reduced to climb power
28
28. What is the normal position of the ISOL valves during flight with the environmental system controller (ESC) in AUTO?
b. Closed
29
29. Sources that provide air to a pneumatic system air conditioning pack include the respective engine, any other engine, APU or which other source?
c. External pneumatics
30
30. How does the environmental systems controller (ESC) prevent engine exhaust from entering the aircraft when the APU is supplying pneumatics to manifold 2 with engines 1 and 3 running?
a. Packs using pneumatics from manifold 2 are commanded off
31
31. What are the FMA indications when the autopilots or autothrottles are OFF but available?
a. “AP OFF” or “ATS OFF” is displayed with a WHITE box surrounding the applicable FMA windows
32
32. What are the FMA indications when the autopilots or autothrottles are OFF and not available?
b. “AP OFF” or “ATS OFF” is displayed with an AMBER box surrounding the applicable FMA windows
33
33. What are the FMA indications when the autopilots or autothrottles are initially disconnected either manually or automatically?
c. “AP OFF” or “ATS OFF” is displayed with a flashing RED box surrounding the applicable FMA windows
34
34. What altitude will the Auto Flight System (AFS) be commanded to during a Level Change climb or descent?
c. The altitude displayed in the Flight Control Panel (FCP) altitude window
35
35. What altitude will the Auto Flight System (AFS) be commanded to during a PROF climb or descent?
a. Altitude constraints displayed in large font of the F-PLN page, final altitude equals FCP selected value
36
36. What altitude constraints will be honored by the Autopilot /Fight Director (AP/FD) system while conducting a Level Change descent or climb (speed on PITCH and CLB THRUST or IDLE CLAMP)?
c. Altitudes in the Flight Control Panel (FCP) altitude window
37
37. What does Speed on PITCH mean?
a. The Autopilot/Flight Director (AP/FD) pitch commands will acquire and/or maintain the selected speed target. Thrust will be fixed
38
38. What does the term Speed on THRUST mean?
a. The Autothrottle system (ATS) commands will acquire and/or maintain the selected speed target.
39
39. Which of the following is TRUE concerning FMS SPD mode and PROF mode?
b. FMS SPD mode is independent of PROF mode
40
40. What are the three windows of the FMA called (reading left to right)?
c. SPEED, ROLL (Lateral), ALTITUDE (Vertical)
41
41. What is controlling Aircraft airspeed with THRUST displayed in magenta in the Speed Window?
c. Throttles, FMS generated (Speed on TRUST)
42
42. What is controlling Aircraft airspeed with PITCH displayed in white in the Speed Window?
a. Aircraft pitch (Speed on PITCH)
43
43. What will be displayed in the FMA Altitude (Vertical) window during a Level Change descent?
c. IDLE CLAMP in white
44
44. What will be displayed in the FMA Altitude (Vertical) window during a PROF Climb?
a. CLIMB THRUST in magenta
45
45. What will be displayed in the FMA Altitude (Vertical) window during a Level Change Climb?
b. CLIMB THRUST in white
46
46. Where will the ATS OFF box be located with the aircraft climbing or descending with Speed on Pitch and the ATS OFF?
b. Around the Altitude (Vertical) window
47
47. Where will the ATS OFF box be located with the aircraft climbing or descending with Speed on Thrust?
a. Around the Speed window
48
48. What autopilot is engaged when a cyan AP is displayed below the Roll (Lateral) window?
b. Both autopilots (autopilot LAND mode)
49
49. What is indicated by a magenta V/S in the Altitude (Vertical) FMA while on descent?
b. A “below path” condition
50
50. What is indicated by a white V/S in the Altitude (Vertical) FMA?
b. The crew has commanded a descent in a speed on THRUST mode
51
51. Which of the following FMA annunciations will indicate protection is provided for F-PLN page LARGE FONT FMS altitude constraints?
a. V/S annunciated in magenta
52
52. What is the indication a commanded speed cannot be maintained?
a. The speed and mode in the SPEED FMA will flash alternately
53
53. What does it mean when the FMA speed control window target and control mode alternately flashes?
b. The commanded IAS/MACH cannot be maintained
54
54. What will be shown in the FMA when in NAV and the Altitude Select knob is pulled during decent?
a. PITCH (white) / NAV (magenta) / IDLE CLAMP (white)
55
55. When is the AP/FD GO-AROUND (GA) mode available?
a. Radio altitude (RA) less than 2500’ and flaps or slats extended
56
56. FMS descent mode can be identified by the active PERF mode displaying DES on the MCDU and which additional indication?
b. Display of the Vertical Deviation Indicator (VDI) on the Navigation Display (ND)
57
57. What does the FMA color Magenta indicate?
a. FMS generated or derived data
58
58. What does the FMA color White indicate?
b. Pilot selected data
59
59. How does the FMS correct back to vertical path (PROF) in ECON or POLICY DES mode if above path?
c. FMS reverts to speed on PITCH and IDLE thrust and increases commanded speed to Mmo +.02 or ECON +20
60
60. At what altitude is NAV guidance available in FD Mode?
c. 100’ AGL
61
61. On takeoff, what is the lowest altitude that PROF will engage?
b. 400’ AGL
62
62. Which statement is TRUE regarding descents in POLICY speed mode?
b. FMS will sacrifice SPEED to maintain PATH
63
63. Which statement is TRUE regarding descents in EDIT speed mode?
a. FMS will sacrifice PATH to maintain commanded speed
64
64. How many consecutive start attempts is the APU limited to?
b. 2
65
65. Inflight, what can the APU can provide?
b. Electrical power only
66
66. During a normal APU start; what controls starter operation, fuel scheduling, ignition and surge bleed airflow?
a. Electronic Control Unit (ECU)
67
67. What power source is required to start the APU?
b. Aircraft battery
68
68. What fuel source(s) are available for APU start and operation?
c. Battery powered DC fuel pump prior to AC power being available, then #2 tank left aft AC fuel pump
69
69. What system controller is responsible for APU start/stop operation?
a. Miscellaneous System Controller (MSC)
70
70. When the APU is started by pressing the APU START/STOP switch on the APU panel when does it provide electrical power?
b. When the APU Power switch on the electrical panel is selected ON
71
71. When the APU is started by pressing the APU PWR switch on the Electrical
panel when does it provide electrical power?
a. Automatically after the APU is started
72
72. With the APU running, what is required in order to have APU air available for engine start?
a. Ensure the APU air switch on the Air Panel is selected to ON
73
73. What are the four different sources of electrical power available to the aircraft?
b. IDG (3), APU (1), Ground Power, and ADG
74
74. How do the AC busses operate in parallel?
a. Automatically through the AC tie bus
75
75. How does the APU generator provide power to the AC system?
b. Through is own independent supply network
76
76. Why can’t the APU generator power the AC tie bus?
a. Because the APU cannot be connected to the AC tie bus
77
77. How does the AC ground service bus allow ground servicing of the aircraft without energizing the whole electrical system?
a. By distributing power to those components essential to ground servicing operations
78
78. What is the power source priority for the AC generator busses?
a. Associated IDG, APU generator, AC tie bus
79
79. What is the power source priority for the AC tie bus?
c. External power, Any IDG
80
80. How many TR units are there in the MD11 electrical system?
c. 4
81
81. What is the normal power source for the DC busses?
c. Four 75 amp TR units
82
82. The DC tie bus is normally operated in parallel (RCCBs closed). When isolated (RCCBs open), what is the power source for DC bus 1?
a. TR1 from AC Gen Bus 1
83
83. The DC tie bus is normally operated in parallel (RCCBs closed). When isolated (RCCBs open), what is the power source for DC bus 2?
a. TR 2A from AC Gen Bus 2
84
84. The DC tie bus is normally operated in parallel (RCCBs closed). When isolated (RCCBs open), what is the power source for DC bus 3?
b. TR 3 from Right Emergency AC Bus
85
85. What is the normal power source for the battery bus?
a. TR 2A and TR 2B
86
86. Which of the following can provide power to the battery bus with the loss of normal AC power?
a. Aircraft battery
87
87. The main components of the Emergency Power system include the aircraft battery, static inverter, ADG, and which other component?
a. Battery charger
88
88. Components tested when the EMER PWR selector is placed to ARM during the preflight emergency power test include the ADG circuits, battery charger, static inverter and which other component?
c. Left EMER AC and DC busses
89
89. Once the emergency power system is armed, how is it activated?
b. Automatically when either the left emergency AC or DC bus is de-energized
90
90. Approximately how many minutes of electrical power will the battery provide as the only source of emergency electrical power?
a. 15 Minutes
91
91. When the emergency power system is activated and the Air Driven Generator (ADG) is deployed in Hydraulic Mode, approximately how many minutes of electrical power will the available?
b. 90 Minutes
92
92. When the emergency power system is activated and the Air Driven Generator (ADG) is deployed in Electric Mode, approximately how many minutes of electrical
power will the available?
c. Unlimited through the battery charger
93
93. When operating on emergency battery power only (no IDG, ADG, or APU) which
item is NOT available?
c. ILS 1
94
94. When the emergency power system is activated, what additional items are powered when the Air Driven Generator (ADG) is deployed in Hydraulic Mode?
c. None
95
95. When the emergency power system is activated and the Air Driven Generator (ADG) is deployed in the Hydraulic Mode, what electrical buss(es) is/are powered by the ADG to allow battery life to be extended to 90 minutes?
a. L Emer AC Bus (LEAC), eliminating the requirement for the Static inverter
96
96. If the emergency power system is activated (EMER PWR ON light illuminated) and normal AC power becomes available, how is the emergency power systems reset?
c. Select the EMER PWR selector to OFF and then back to ARM to restore normal battery charging capability
97
97. What is required for normal battery charging?
a. BAT switch must be on with AC power present at the battery charger input
98
98. Which statement is true concerning battery charging?
b. When emergency power is activated and the ADG is deployed in electric mode, the battery will be charged
99
99. What is the power source for the battery bus on battery power only?
c. The battery
100
100. What is the power source for the battery bus with the ADG operating in the ELEC mode?
a. TR3
101
101. If the APU is started with the APU PWR switch on the electrical panel when will it provide electrical power?
c. Automatically after the APU is up to speed
102
102. If the APU is started with the APU START/STOP switch on the APU panel when will it provide electrical power?
a. When the APU PWR switch on the electrical panel is selected after the APU is running
103
103. What is the function of the GEN BUS 1/2/3 Fault Reset switches on the overhead panel?
b. Switches are intended for ground use by maintenance only
104
104. How is the ADG retracted after use?
b. The ADG can only be retracted on the ground by maintenance personnel
105
105. What is a circuit breaker policy regarding the Electrical system on UPS MD11 aircraft?
c. Circuit breakers may be pulled and reset to re-initialize computers or when directed by AOM/QRH procedure
106
106. What is a circuit breaker policy regarding the Electrical system on UPS MD11 aircraft?
b. Do not reset any tripped fuel pump or auxiliary hydraulic pump circuit breakers
107
107. What is a circuit breaker policy regarding the Electrical system on UPS MD11 aircraft?
c. One reset of any tripped (non-fuel pump/aux hyd pump) may be attempted at the Captain’s discretion after a cooling period of approx 2 minutes
108
108. What precaution is required during an IDG disconnect procedure?
b. Do not disconnect an IDG with engine speed less than ground idle
109
109. What can happen if an IDG is disconnected with engine speed less than ground idle?
c. IDG will sustain damage to the input shaft and seal
110
110. How long will a fully charged, self-contained battery provide sufficient power to operate the emergency lights?
a. 10 Minutes
111
111. When will the Emergency Lighting automatically illuminate when the EMER PWER selector is in the ARM position?
b. Primary lighting fails or normal electrical power is interrupted
112
112. Where can the pre-flight oxygen quantity requirements be found?
b. AOM Chapter 5
113
113. How many high pressure oxygen cylinders are carried onboard UPS MD11 aircraft to provide oxygen to the crew, observers and supernumerary stations and positions?
b. 4
114
114. What indicates over-pressurization (thermal discharge) of the high pressure oxygen cylinders?
b. Missing green thermal discharge disc located in two places on the aircraft exterior
115
115. What is indicted by a red illuminated NO MASKS switch accompanied by a Level 3 NO MASKS?
c. Masks in the crew rest facility have not deployed automatically
116
116. After the oxygen mask is re-stowed into the box and doors are shut, what must be done to stop the flow of oxygen to the mask, reset the microphone from mask to boom and retract the OXY ON flag?
b. Push the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET lever
117
117. What is the power source priority to the emergency lighting system?
a. Right Emergency AC Bus, Left Emergency DC Bus, Emergency lighting battery
118
118. What is the emergency power source for cabin door operation?
c. Pneumatic
119
119. What is the normal power source for cabin door operation?
a. Electrical
120
120. Where is the inflatable evacuation slide/life raft combination located?
b. Inside the forward left and right cabin doors.
121
121. The main cargo door is electrically controlled and actuated by what source?
c. Independent hydraulic system
122
122. What are the two functions of the Fire Protection System?
a. Detection and Extinguishing
123
123. What components and compartments have fire extinguishing capability?
c. Engine Nacelles, APU Compartment, Lower Cargo Compartment
124
124. When is engine and APU fire detection and extinguishing available?
b. During battery starts
125
125. What can be detected by engine fire sensing elements?
c. Fire and/or overheat in selected areas
126
126. A rupture of which engine duct can cause an APU fire warning?
b. Engine 2
127
127. How many Fire Detection Control Units (FDCU) units are installed on the MD11?
a. One for each main engine and one for the APU
128
128. What is a primary function of the Fire Detection Control Unit (FDCU)?
a. Differentiate between a fire signal and a fault
129
129. What happens with the ENG FIRE handle pulled and the ENG FUEL switch off?
b. The ENG FUEL switch remains illuminated if the fire warning still existsb. The ENG FUEL switch remains illuminated if the fire warning still exists
130
130. What happens with the ENG FIRE handle pulled and the fire warning terminated?
a. The ENG FUEL switch remains illuminated until the ENG FUEL switch is moved to the OFF position
131
131. What happens to the APU when an APU fire is detected?
c. The APU will automatically shut down when a fire is detected
132
132. What is the electrical power source for engine and APU fire extinguishing?
b. Battery Direct Bus
133
133. What is the electrical power source for engine and APU fire detection?
c. Battery Bus
134
134. How many fire extinguishing agent bottles are assigned to each engine and APU (2 Bottle System)?
b. Each engine has 2 bottles available for use, the APU shares engine 2 fire bottles
135
135. The lower cargo compartment is a Class C compartment. What provisions are provided in this compartment?
a. Detection and extinguishing
136
136. What happens when heat or smoke is detected in a lower cargo compartment?
c. Heating and ventilation are automatically shut off
137
137. How is fire agent discharged into the lower cargo compartment?
b. Discharge is initiated manually by the flight crew
138
138. The main deck cargo compartment is a Class E compartment. What provisions are provided in this compartment?
b. Detection is available, protection is not required
139
139. The crew will be notified of smoke detected on the main cargo deck by Master warning lights, aural tone, and EAD alerts. What additional notification will be displayed?
b. A red CABIN AIR SMOKE light on the air control panel
140
140. How is the cargo fire detection and extinguishing system tested?
a. System is automatically tested when the first IRU is turned on
141
141. Why does the Level 3 CRG FIRE LWR ____ checklist direct you to turn the associated cargo flow switch to OFF?
b. To prevent automatic restoration of ventilation to the compartment when the smoke or overheat condition is no longer detected
142
142. Why does the Level 3 CRG FIRE LWR ____ checklist directs you to turn the associated cargo temp selector to OFF?
b. To prevent automatic restoration of heat to the compartment when the smoke or overheat condition is no longer detected
143
143. What does the flow DISAG light on the Cargo Fire panel indicate?
a. Ventilation has been automatically shut off, but the flow switch has not been selected to the OFF position
144
144. When smoke is detected on the main cargo deck, the Cabin Air switch will illuminate red SMOKE. With the Air system in AUTO, what does pushing the Cabin Air Switch to OFF accomplish?
a. Closes the main cargo deck conditioned air shutoff valve and reduces to single pack operation
145
145. If the Engine 1 Fire Detection Control Unit simultaneously receives a Fire signal from Loop A and a Fault signal from Loop B what alert will be displayed?
b. ENGINE 1 FIRE
146
146. If the Engine 1 Fire Detection Control Unit Receives a Fault signal from Loop A and a Fault signal from Loop B within 5 seconds what alert will be displayed?
b. ENGINE 1 FIRE
147
147. If the Engine 1 Fire Detection Control Unit Receives a Fault signal from Loop A and a Fault signal from Loop B outside of 5 seconds from each other what alert will be displayed?
c. FIRE 1 DET FAIL
148
148. If the Engine 1 Fire Detection Control Unit Receives a Fire signal from Loop A and a Normal signal from Loop B what alert will be displayed?
a. FIRE DET 1 FAULT
149
149. During the Engine/APU fire system test, what action silences the fire bell and extinguishes the flashing MASTER WARNING lights?
c. Pushing either of the MASTER WARNING lights
150
150. All primary and secondary flight controls are hydraulically powered by which system?
b. At least two and, in some cases, all three hydraulic systems
151
151. To avoid wing twist, when are the outboard ailerons locked out?
a. When the flaps, slats, and landing gear are retracted
152
152. Command sources to the elevators include the flight crew (control wheel), Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS), and which other source?
c. Autopilot
153
153. Which computer(s) is responsible for Elevator Load Feel (ELF) function?
b. Flight Control Computers (FCCs)
154
154. What component is required for the Elevator Load Feel (ELF) system to regulate control column force?
a. Airspeed supplied by the CADC
155
155. What flight control surface is utilized by the yaw damper to provide turn coordination and Dutch roll damping?
c. Upper and lower rudder
156
156. When is parallel rudder available?
b. When the autopilot is engaged in takeoff, go-around, and single and dual land modes
157
157. During parallel rudder operation, which of the following is true?
b. The autopilot has command of full rudder travel and the rudder pedals will follow control movement
158
158. Conditions required for spoilers to automatically deploy upon landing include spoiler handle armed and which other condition?
a. Flaps extended 31.5o or more
159
159. When will the spoilers deploy during a normal landing?
b. Spoiler handle moves to FULL (one-half deployment) upon main wheel spin-up, then to GROUND SPOILER position (full deployment) after nose gear touchdown
160
160. When will the ground spoilers deploy during a rejected takeoff below 80 knots with the spoilers armed?
c. Any two throttles moved to reverse thrust
161
161. When will the ground spoilers deploy during a rejected takeoff above 80 knots with the spoilers armed?
a. Any two throttles moved to idle
162
162. Which flap segment is the cockpit flap handle directly connected to?
b. Inboard flap control valve
163
163. When does the Flap Limiting system operate?
c. Speeds above 175 knots and flaps between 22o and 50o
164
164. What is the purpose of the Flap Limiting system?
a. Prevent flap extension or automatically retract flaps at certain speeds and flap settings
165
165. How is the slat system controlled and actuated?
b. Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated
166
166. When does the Automatic Slat Extension (ASE) system extend the slats?
c. Just after stick shaker activation when within airspeed parameters
167
167. When is the automatic slat extension (ASE) system inhibited?
b. Above .55 mach/280 knots
168
168. How many longitudinal trim motors are installed on the aircraft?
a. 2
169
169. What is the trim rate of the stabilizer?
a. The stabilizer automatically operates at two different rates as a function of airspeed and/or altitude to provide optimum performance
170
170. What is the purpose of the Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS)?
c. Enhance longitudinal stability with the autopilot disengaged
171
171. Which control surface(s) does the Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS) have authority over?
a. Elevators
172
172. The Longitudinal Stability Augmentation System (LSAS) provides pitch rate damping, pitch attitude hold, pitch attitude limiting, and which other function?
c. Pitch attitude protection
173
173. What source(s) does the stall warning system use to provide stall warning?
b. Angle of attack (alpha based) and speed
174
174. Which source is most reliable for stall warning?
a. Angle of attack
175
175. What is the neutral (baseline) position of the outboard ailerons during all phases of flight except takeoff?
a. 4o droop trailing edge down
176
176. What are the two fuel controllers installed on UPS MD11 aircraft?
a. Fuel System Controller (FSC) and Ancillary Fuel System Controller (AFSC)
177
177. Where are fuel system indications displayed?
b. On the Engine and Alert Display (EAD), System Display (SD), and fuel control panel
178
178. Which of the following is NOT a Fuel System Controller (FSC) function?
c. Maintains a fuel efficient CG by transferring fuel to and from the Upper Aux tank
179
179. Which of the following is NOT a Fuel System Controller (FSC) function?
b. Keeps fuel from freezing by increasing fuel flow through heat exchangers
180
180. Which of the following is NOT a Fuel System Controller (FSC) function?
b. Allows for tank overfill to balance fuel if required
181
181. Which of the following is NOT a Fuel System Controller (FSC) function?
c. Performs preflight test when selected by flight crew
182
182. What is the power source for the main fuel tank boost pumps?
b. In each tank, the main tank boost pumps are powered from different electrical busses
183
183. What is the fuel source to the APU during start up?
b. Without AC power available, fuel is supplied by a DC pump located in tank 2
184
184. What is the fuel source to the APU during start up?
a. With AC power available, fuel is supplied by a AC pump in tank 2
185
185. What automatic fuel management schedule is available to relieve wing bending stresses?
c. Tank 1 and 3 outboard compartments are maintained full until the inboard fuel level decreases to approximately 5000 lbs
186
186. What system is installed on UPS MD11 aircraft to prevent water accumulations in the fuel tanks?
b. A continuous scavenge system
187
187. How does the continuous scavenge system prevent water accumulation within the fuel tanks?
c. The scavenge system pumps fuel/water from the low points to the fuel pump inlets
188
188. Which aircraft system provides fuel quantity information?
a. Fuel Quantity Gauging System (FQGS)
189
189. The Fuel Quantity Gauging System (FQGS) sends data to the Fuel System Controller (FSC), air data computers (ADCs), MCDU through the FMC, CRTs for display, and which other component?
b. FUEL control panel in the cockpit
190
190. When is the Fuel Quantity Gauging System (FQGS) tested?
c. Self-tests before each flight and after refueling
191
191. What are two methods of inputting a desired fuel quantity prior to refueling?
a. Input quantity on right wing control panel or FUEL INIT PAGE of the FMC
192
192. What is required to completely fill the tail tank with fuel?
b. The horizontal stabilizer must be set to 3o aircraft nose up (ANU)
193
193. Externally, how can you verify the horizontal stabilizer is set to 3o aircraft nose up (ANU)?
b. Stab leading edge and a white line on the right side of the fuselage will align
194
194. After refueling is complete, which controller is responsible for managing the fuel?
a. Fuel System Controller (FSC)
195
195. Which controller is responsible for managing the fuel ratio of 7.5 to 1 when required?
a. Fuel System Controller (FSC)
196
196. When is the 7.5 to 1 ground fuel ratio required?
c. When there is a minimum of 140,000 lbs of fuel with at least 9000 lbs of fuel in the aux and tail tanks
197
197. Is it possible to defuel the MD11 aircraft?
a. Yes, individual tanks may be selectively defueled
198
198. How is fuel dumping controlled?
c. Dedicated dump control network
199
199. What is the function of the Fuel System Controller (FSC) during fuel dumping?
a. The FSC monitors the state of the fuel dump valves
200
200. How many dump valves are installed on UPS MD11 aircraft?
b. 2 total
201
201. What is the power source for the fuel dump valves?
c. Dump valves are DC motor operated valves
202
202. What is the approximate fuel dump rate?
b. 5000 lbs per minute
203
203. What happens when the FMS DUMP TO GW is disabled?
b. The fuel dump will continue to the low level dump shutoff (approx 11,500 lbs per tank)
204
204. How is fuel dumping terminated if dumping continues after the DUMP switch is selected off?
a. Select FUEL DUMP EMER STOP switch to close the valves with different electrical circuits
205
205. What is the “virtual stand-pipe” quantity per tank?
b. Approximately 11,500 lbs
206
206. Pushing the fuel DUMP switch ON one time commands the system to dump to what value/quantity?
c. Pilot entered FMS DUMP TO GW
207
207. What is the function of the Fuel System Controller (FSC) during fuel dumping?
a. The FSC monitors the state of the fuel dump valves
208
208. What is the function of the wing fuel vent system?
b. Prevents tank pressure from exceeding structural limits
209
209. Where is the wing fuel vent located?
c. On the bottom of the wing, remote from the wing edge and tip
210
210. What is the function of the tail fuel vent system?
b. Prevents tank pressure from exceeding structural limits
211
211. Where is the tail fuel vent located?
c. On the bottom left side of the stabilizer, remote from the trailing/leading edge and tip
212
212. Which fuel pumps are turned ON from engine start until engine shutdown?
a. Tanks 1, 2 and 3 aft pumps
213
213. What is the purpose of Tail Fuel Management?
b. Improves cruise performance by maintaining an aft CG
214
214. What fuel quantity is required for tail fuel management occur?
a. 60,000 lbs at the termination of refueling
215
215. When does tail fuel management begin?
b. When the climb phase begins (flaps and slats retracted)
216
216. Descending through what altitude will cause remaining tail fuel to be transferred forward?
a. 26,750’
217
217. Transfer of tail fuel forward will terminate when below 17,750’ under what conditions?
b. Slats or gear are extended
218
218. How is water purged from the tail tank fuel?
b. Fuel is transferred and replaced every 30 minutes if fuel temperature is greater than 36F (2C)
219
219. What quantity is the tail tank fuel limited to if the tail tank engine 2 alternate pump is inoperative?
a. 5,000 lbs
220
220. Which of the following conditions will limit the tail fuel quantity?
b. Auxiliary fill/isolation valve inoperative closed
221
221. Which controller is required for cold fuel recirculation?
a. Fuel System Controller (FSC)
222
222. What is the minimum fuel quantity in each main tank for cold fuel recirculation to operate?
c. 13,500 lbs
223
223. When will cold fuel recirculation begin for main tanks 1 and 3?
b. Fuel temperature falls to within 6o of fuel freeze point
224
224. When will cold fuel recirculation begin for the tail tank?
c. Fuel temperature falls to within 8oC of fuel freeze point
225
225. What happens when the fuel temperature in the tail tank drops to within 5oC of the fuel freeze point?
c. About one third of the tail fuel is transferred forward and replaced with warmer fuel
226
226. What happens when the fuel temperature in the tail tank drops to within 3oC of the fuel freeze point?
a. Tail fuel management is terminated and all remaining fuel is transferred forward
227
227. When will the fuel in the fuel manifold automatically drain into tank 2?
b. When the quantity in tank 2 drops to less than about 1800lbs
228
228. According to current UPS policy, where is ballast fuel stored when required?
b. Upper Aux
229
229. What happens when the Fuel System Controller detects an overfill condition in the tail tank?
a. Fuel is transferred out of the tail and the tail quantity is limited to below 12000 lbs or until the overfill condition stops
230
230. What happens when the Fuel System Controller detects an overfill condition in the tail tank twice in the same flight?
b. Fuel is transferred out of the tail tank until the total tail tank quantity is below 10000 lbs
231
231. What happens when the Fuel System Controller detects an overfill condition in the tail tank three times in the same flight?
c. The tail tank is emptied and tail fuel management is terminated
232
232. What happens to main tank 1, 2 and 3, L and R aux tank transfer and tail tank transfer pumps when fuel system is selected to MANUAL?
b. The pumps are commanded on
233
233. What happens to the crossfeed valves when the fuel system is selected to MANUAL?
a. The valves close
234
234. What happens to the Tank 1 and Tank 3 transfer pumps when the fuel system is selected to MANUAL?
a. The pumps are commanded off
235
235. What happens to the Tank 2 transfer pump when the fuel system is selected to MANUAL?
c. The pump remains in its previous condition
236
236. What is the approximate maximum fuel quantity in Lower Aux tank?
a. 11,000 lbs
237
237. What is the approximate maximum fuel quantity in the tail tank?
b. 13,118 lbs
238
238. What is the approximate maximum fuel quantity in Tank 1 or Tank 3?
b. 40,916 lbs
239
239. What is the approximate maximum fuel quantity in Tank 2?
c. 64,466 lbs
240
240. What is the approximate maximum fuel quantity in Upper Aux tank?
c. 87,663 lbs
241
241. Which of the following is true when the fuel DUMP switch is activated?
b. Dump switch illuminates amber ON, all transfer pumps turn on, all boost pumps turn on, all crossfeed valves open, and dump valves open
242
242. What does the level 1 FMS DUMP DISABLED alert indicate?
c. The fuel dump was not stopped at the FMS DUMP TO GW entry
243
243. The level 2 FUEL DUMP LEVEL alert indicates what?
b. The fuel dump function did not shut off at the low level shutoff.
244
244. Situations that require fuel crossfeed in order to maintain proper fuel system operation include fill valve(s) failed closed, certain boost pump failures, and which other situation?
b. Main tank transfer pump failures
245
245. How many engine driven hydraulic pumps are there for each engine?
b. 2
246
246. What backup hydraulic power source is located only in system 3?
c. Electrically driven auxiliary pumps
247
247. What components provide backup hydraulic pressure across the three hydraulic systems?
a. Reversible Motor Pumps (RMPs)
248
248. What components provide backup hydraulic pressure to the rudders and stabilizer trim?
b. Non-Reversible Motor Pumps (NRMPs)
249
249. How many channels are available in the Hydraulic System Controller (HSC)?
b. 2
250
250. What is the minimum quantity for hydraulic systems 1 and 2 during preflight (LEVEL 1 HYD 1/2 QTY LO alert)?
b. 4.75 gallons
251
251. What is the minimum quantity for hydraulic system 3 during preflight (LEVEL 1 HYD 3 QTY LO alert)?
c. 6.0 gallons
252
252. What quantity will generate a LEVEL 1 HYD_QTY LO alert in the respective hydraulic system after engine start?
a. 2.5 gallons
253
253. What is the status of the engine driven hydraulic pumps during normal operations with the hydraulic system in auto?
b. The left pump powers the system, right pump is armed
254
254. What is the function of the electric auxiliary hydraulic pumps?
c. Provide pressure to system 3 on the ground or in flight
255
255. When will the HSC automatically turn off auxiliary pump 1 during engine start?
c. When the first fuel switch is moved to on
256
256. How many Reversible Motor Pumps (RMPs) are installed?
a. 2
257
257. In auto, when are the Reversible Motor Pumps (RMPs) commanded OFF with the HSC in auto?
c. The condition that caused them to be commanded on no longer exists
258
258. When are the reversible motor pumps (RMPs) commanded ON with the HSC in auto?
c. The engine driven pumps are unable to maintain pressure during taxi, takeoff or landing
259
259. How many Non-Reversible Motor Pumps (NRMPs) are installed on the aircraft?
a. 2
260
260. Which flight controls are powered by the 2-1 non-reversible motor pumps (NRMP) in the event of normal system pressure loss?
b. Upper rudder and horizontal stabilizer
261
261. How are the non-reversible motor pumps (NRMPs) turned on in flight?
a. The pumps are always armed and turn on when the primary system pressure falls below a certain level
262
262. What is the purpose of the hydraulic system enhancement system?
b. Automatically shuts off hydraulic system 3 elevators and 3-2 NRMP to retain enough fluid for pitch and roll control
263
263. Which hydraulic system components are tested during the hydraulic preflight pressure test (HYD PUMP TEST)?
c. Auxiliary and Reversible Motor Pumps (RMPs)
264
264. Which hydraulic system components are tested during the hydraulic engine driven pump test?
b. Left and right Engine Driven Pumps (EDPs)
265
265. What is the resulting hydraulic system configuration when the Hydraulic System Controller (HSC) reverts to manual mode?
a. The hydraulic system is configured to its normal configuration except that both reversible motor pumps turn on
266
266. An engine driven hydraulic pump will be commanded OFF for loss of fluid, engine fire, inflight engine start, engine N2 less than 45%, system or EDP case drain temperature high, EDP pressure low, EDP electrical power loss and which other condition?
b. System pressure low or high
267
267. Which slats have anti-ice protection?
b. Outboard
268
268. When is wing anti-ice available?
a. May be selected to “ON” on the ground but the valves will not open until airborne
269
269. Which pneumatic system provides air for the tail anti-ice system?
b. 2
270
270. What source(s) of hot air are available for engine cowl anti-ice?
a. Respective engine only
271
271. Heated air data systems include all pitot tubes, AOA sensors, static pressure ports, and which other component?
c. TAT probe
272
272. When are the air data system heaters (except TAT) turned on?
b. When any fuel switch is moved to on
273
273. Which of the cockpit windows have anti-ice systems?
a. Windshield
274
274. What is the primary means of ice detection when both left and right systems are operative?
c. ICE DETECTED alert displayed by the ice detection system
275
275. Where are the ice detection system sensors located?
a. One in each wing engine cowl
276
276. What action is required when the automatic anti-ice system turns the anti-ice ON?
b. Turn on windshield heat
277
277. What is the maximum tire speed?
204 knots
278
278. Which hydraulic system retracts and extends the landing gear?
System 3
279
279. What happens when hydraulic system 3 is pressurized and the main gear door handle is in the horizontal position with the door open?
The door will close
280
280. To prevent serious structural loads on the center gear during refueling, loading, and unloading, the parking brake should be released and which other condition?
c. Center gear is NOT chocked
281
281. How does the ground sensing system operate?
Mechanically when nose strut is compressed/extended
282
282. The brakes are powered by which hydraulic systems?
1 and 3
283
283. How many brake accumulators are in each brake system?
3
284
284. How many brake applications are available from a fully charged brake accumulator system?
10
285
285. What brake pressure indication is required for adequate brake pressure during parked operation?
Pressure must be in the white band
286
286. Unless selected off, when does the anti-skid system prevent tire skidding by reducing individual brake pressure?
During automatic or manual braking
287
287. Which phase(s) of flight is the Automatic Brake System (ABS) available?
Landing and rejected takeoff
288
288. Conditions required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) landing mode to arm include ABS operative (no system failures), flaps > 280 , anti-skid armed and operational, deceleration level selected, and which other condition?
IRU 1 and 2 operational
289
289. Conditions required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) landing mode to activate include brake pedals released, spoilers deployed, and which other condition?
Throttles retarded to idle
290
290. Conditions required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) takeoff mode to arm include flaps in takeoff range, auto brake selector selected to TO, and which other condition?
Spoilers armed
291
291. What condition(s) are required for the Automatic Brake System (ABS) to activate?
Automatic or manual ground spoiler deployment
292
292. During a rejected takeoff with the Automatic Brake System (ABS) armed what type of braking will be applied?
Below 100 knots min braking, above 100 knots max braking
293
293. During a rejected takeoff at speeds below 100 knots and the Automatic Brake System (ABS) armed, what type of braking will be applied?
Min braking
294
294. During a rejected takeoff at speeds above 100 knots and the Automatic Brake System (ABS) armed, what type of braking will be applied?
Max braking
295
295. How can you rearm the Automatic Brake System (ABS) after it automatically disarms?
Cycle the AUTOBRAKE selector to OFF and then back to desired setting
296
296. What does a blanked out portion on an individual tire/brake display indicate?
Data for that tire or brake is not available
297
297. In which configuration can the gear warning horn be silenced with the GEAR HORN OFF button?
Landing gear up, speed less than 210 knots, throttles at idle, and radio altitude 1200’ or less
298
298. How does a failure of hydraulic systems 1or 3 effect nose wheel tiller steering?
Nose wheel steering is limited to 25o in the direction of the inoperative system
299
299. Which of the following occurs with the failure of the ground sensing mechanism to shift to the flight mode?
Airborne engine 2 reverse thrust is possible
300
300. Components installed on the engine accessory drive section include the Starter, Electrical N2 sensor, Fuel pump, Lube and Scavenge pump, Integrated drive Generator (IDG), Alternator and what other component?
Hydraulic pumps
301
301. The FADEC system controls which of the following functions?
Engine acceleration to idle speed during start
302
302. What happens if one channel of the FADEC controller fails?
Normal engine control and operation is maintained
303
303. What happens if both channels of the FADEC controller fails?
The engine will revert to an automatically controlled shutdown
304
304. What is the normal FADEC system power source?
Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)
305
305. What is the result of the failure of both windings of the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)?
Nothing, if the aircraft has a FADEC backup power system installed
306
306. Inputs to the FADECs from the CADCs include Total Air Temperature (TAT), Total Pressure (TP), and which other input?
Pressure altitude
307
307. What pilot action will automatically engage the ALTN mode of the FADEC on both engine types?
Pushing the throttles through the overboost bar
308
308. Are autothrottles available with the FADEC system in ALTN?
GE engines yes, PW engines no
309
309. Pushing the throttles past the overboost stop bar results in Autothrottle disconnect, Level 1 ENG 1/2/3 FADEC ALTN EAD alert displayed, and which other condition?
FMS thrust is overridden
310
310. How does the FADEC system control the timing of reverse thrust for engines 1 and 3?
The FADEC controls an interlock within the thrust control module until the reverser is a certain percentage deployed
311
311. How does the FADEC system control the timing of reverse thrust for engine 2?
The FADEC prevents reverse thrust above idle until the nose wheel ground sensing switch is closed and the reverser is more than 90% deployed
312
312. How many ignitors are installed on each engine?
2
313
313. Selecting either ignition A or B for engine start will supply DC power to start switch, arm selected ignition, command APU to 100%, and which other response?
Configure air and fuel systems for engine start
314
314. With the ignition system armed, when is ignition automatically provided?
During takeoff and landing and for 60 seconds after one of the engine cowl anti-ice systems is commanded on
315
315. During takeoff, when are the ignitors automatically shut off?
When the flaps/slats are retracted
316
316. Which controller is responsible for automatic ignition control?
The Miscellaneous Systems Controller (MSC)
317
317. Auto-ignition failure will be indicated by the illumination of a blue MANUAL light on the selected ignition system switch. What is the condition of the selected ignition system?
Ignition will be on
318
318. Selecting ENG IGN OVRD bypasses the MSC and provides which other function?
Provides power to both A and B ignition as long as override is selected
319
319. What is the function of the IGN TRANSFER switches?
Allows ignition B to be powered by the LEAC bus
320
320. What is the normal power source for A ignition?
LEAC bus
321
321. What system controls fuel flow?
Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC)
322
322. A clogged fuel filter will result in a Level 1 ENG 1/2/3 FUEL FILTER alert and which other consequence?
Fuel will bypass the filter to maintain flow to the engine
323
323. What are the consequences of a clogged oil filter on a GE engine?
Oil will bypass the filter and go directly to the engine
324
324. What are the consequences of a clogged oil filter on a PW engine?
Oil will flow through the bypass filter
325
325. When will an ENGINE FAIL light illuminate?
During takeoff between 80 knots and V1 when an engine N1 rpm differs by 11% or more with any other engine N1
326
326. How are engine thrust reversers powered on GE aircraft?
Regulated pneumatic pressure from the respective engine
327
327. How are engine thrust reversers powered on PW aircraft?
Hydraulic pressure from the respective hydraulic system
328
328. What conditions are required by the FCC to arm the thrust reversers for operation?
Either radio altitude seven feet or wheel spin up greater than 80 knots
329
329. What condition must be met before the reverser physical interlock will release for engines 1 and 3?
The reverser must be safely deployed
330
330. Alerts are categorized into how many different levels?
4
331
331. How are Level 0 alerts presented?
Cyan colored text
332
332. How are Level 1 alerts presented?
Amber colored text
333
333. How are Level 2 alerts presented?
Boxed amber colored text
334
334. How are Level 3 alerts presented?
Boxed red colored text with triangle
335
335. What does pushing the illuminated system cue switch on the Systems Display Control Panel accomplish?
Displays the associated system on the synoptic display and resets the Master Caution/Warning light
336
336. After an alert has been reset by pushing the associated cue switch, a reminder message is displayed on two dedicated lines of the right column of the EAD. What is the purpose of a Reminder Message?
The alert is removed and a reminder message is shown (FUEL, HYD, etc) indicating a system is not in a normal configuration
337
337. A list of Level 1 alerts and the required pilot action can be found where?
AOM or QRH
338
338. During takeoff, when are Level 3 alerts and associated Master Warning lights normally inhibited?
From V1 to 400’ RA, but no longer than 25 seconds in the air
339
339. During landing, when are Level 3 alerts and associated Master Warning lights normally inhibited?
Level 3 alerts are not inhibited during landing.
340
340. During takeoff, when are level 2 or level 1 alerts are inhibited?
At throttle advance, 80 knots, or V1-20 knots, depending on significance
341
341. During landing, when are level 1 or level 2 alerts and associated Master Caution lights inhibited?
1000’ AGL to 80 knots ground speed (but no longer than 120 seconds)
342
342. The Takeoff Essential Items consists of stab trim, slat, flap, parking brake and which other condition?
Spoilers
343
343. Which item on the Takeoff Essential Items checklist does not produce an aural warning if it is NOT in the proper configuration?
Spoilers
344
344. What will be displayed when Takeoff or Landing Essential Items configuration conditions have been satisfied?
Green Box
345
345. The Landing Essential Items consists of landing gear, flaps, and which other condition?
Spoilers
346
346. The CAWS function provides aural warning for landing gear, altitude advisory, takeoff, cabin low pressure, overspeed, SELCAL, cockpit timer, tire failure, windshear, radio altitude, horizontal stab, autopilot and which other condition?
Engine fire
347
347. The CAWS provides an aural warning, tone and voice, if any gear is not down and locked with the flaps in the landing configuration. How do you silence the warning?
Extend the landing gear
348
348. The CAWS provides an aural warning, tone and voice, if any gear is not down and locked, any throttle(s) retarded to idle, airspeed less than 210 knots and flaps not in the landing configuration below 1200’ AGL. How do you silence the warning?
Push the Gear Horn Off button
349
349. The Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS) combines basic GPWS with terrain awareness, optional peaks and obstacles display mode and which other function?
Terrain clearance floor,
350
350. How do the enhanced features of the EGPWS affect the other modes of the GPWS?
Enhanced features are independent of, and have no effect upon the other modes of the GPWS
351
351. What does the Terrain Clearance Floor feature of the EGPWS provide alerts based on?
Current aircraft location, nearest runway center point and radio altitude
352
352. When is the Terrain Clearance Floor feature of the EGPWS active?
Takeoff, cruise, and final approach
353
353. When do the red Master Warning lights illuminate?
A level 3 alert has appeared on the EAD
354
354. When do the amber Master Caution lights illuminate?
A level 1 or 2 alert has appeared on the EAD
355
355. What is the primary method of resetting the Master Caution light?
Push the associated cue switch on the System Display Control Panel
356
356. During an engine or APU fire what must be done to reset the Master Warning light?
Push either Master Warning light
357
357. When will selecting the ND switch on the System Display Control Panel will cause the existing system display to become a Nav display?
When 1 or more DUs are inoperative
358
358. How is DU brightness controlled?
Each DU has a dedicated knob to individually control brightness
359
359. When does the amber BELOW G/S switch on the left and right glare shield illuminate?
When the aircraft is more than 1.3 dots below glideslope
360
360. Pushing the GPWS TERRAIN OVRD switch inhibits the GPWS enhanced features of Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF), and Terrain Awareness and Alerting Display (TAAD). This switch should be selected to OVRD when operating at airports where insufficient data exists for correct operation of EGPWS, the longest runway is less than 3500’, there is no instrument approach procedure, or which other condition?
FMS NAV mode is IRS ONLY NAVIGATION
361
361. When is the FLAP OVRD position of the GPWS switch on the overhead panel used?
To prevent the GPWS from actuating during a landing with flaps not in the landing configuration
