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1

To cease all tactical maneuvering and the overall scenario during air intercept training, use the term knock it off (KIO) when:

A. safety of flight is a factor
B. weather below minimums required to safely conduct the scenario
C. when desired learning objectives are met or are unattainable for an entire scenario
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

2

To cease tactical maneuvering during air intercept training, use the term ______ when safety of flight is not a factor.

A. knock it off
B. terminate
C. climb
D. cease

B. terminate

3

In training areas over other than government-owned or controlled property, minimum flare employment altitude is ______ unless specified otherwise in governing regulations.

A. 1,000 feet AGL
B. 1,000 feet MSL
C. 2,000 feet AGL
D. 2,000 feet MSL

C. 2,000 feet AGL

4

In training areas outside the U.S. refer to host nation rules governing the employment of flares. (T/F)

A. True

5

When conducting air intercept training at low altitude (LOWAT), the weather requirements are______.

A. 1500 ft vertical and 3 NM horizontal cloud clearance, 5 NM visibility, and discernable horizon
B. 1500 ft vertical and 5 NM horizontal cloud clearance, 3 NM visibility
C. 2000 ft vertical and 1 NM horizontal cloud clearance, 5 NM visibility, and discernable horizon
D. 2000 ft vertical and 3 NM horizontal cloud clearance, 5 NM visibility

C. 2000 ft vertical and 1 NM horizontal cloud clearance, 5 NM visibility, and discernable horizon

6

AFSOC, units under AFSOC oversight, or AFSOC gained aircraft conducting IMC intercept training above 3000' AGL may maneuver up to the limitations specified for the ______ maneuvering category. When conducting IMC intercept training below 3000' AGL, AFSOC, units under AFSOC oversight, or AFSOC gained aircraft are limited to the ______ maneuvering category.

A. Limited, Restricted
B. Limited, Controlled
C. Non-Maneuvering, Restricted
D. Non-Maneuvering, Controlled

A. Limited, Restricted

7

When an alternate is required, fuel required for an approach and missed approach at the ______ must be included in the total flight plan fuel if visibility-only weather criteria is used at the destination.

A. alternate destination
B. intended destination
C. new destination
D. departure airport

B. intended destination

8

Each crewmember must have an operable flashlight for night flight. (T/F)

A. True

9

Crewmembers must occupy their assigned duty stations from ______to ______, unless absence is normal in the performance of crew duties, or in connection with physiological needs.

A. before starting engines checklist, engine shutdown checklist
B. takeoff, landing
C. crew check-in, chalks in place
D. taxi, landing

B. takeoff, landing

10

USAF aircrews shall consider as mountainous those areas defined in 14 CFR 95.11 for CONUS, Alaska, Hawaii and Puerto Rico. In other areas, use _____ surface elevation change over a _____.
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3
A. 1,000 ft, ½ NM
B. 1,000 ft, 1 NM
C. 500 ft, ½ NM
D. 500 ft, ¼ NM

C. 500 ft, ½ NM

11

Do not practice simulated emergency procedures with passengers on board.
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: 3.32.3.
A. True
B. False

A. True

12

The PIC shall ensure sufficient oxygen for the planned mission (including contingencies) is available to all occupants before takeoff. Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds _______.
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: 3.14.1.
A. 10,000 ft MSL
B. 13,000 ft MSL
C. 15,000 ft MSL
D. 12,000 ft MSL

A. 10,000 ft MSL

13

When jettisoning fuel and circumstances permit, notify the appropriate ATC or flight service facility of ______, ______ , ______ , ______.
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: 3.21.
A. intentions, location, total personnel on board, and final destination.
B. total personnel on board, altitude, airspeed, and location.
C. intentions, altitude, location, and when the operation is complete.
D. intentions, altitude, final destination, and when the operation is complete.

C. intentions, altitude, location, and when the operation is complete.

14

An alternate is required when a compatible instrument approach procedure is not available at the destination airfield or lowest weather minimums are less than or equal to a ceiling of ______ and a visibility of ______.
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: 4.15.3.1.1.
A. 2,000 ft., 3 SMs
B. 2,000 ft., 3 NMs
C. 1,500 ft., 3 NMs
D. 1,000 ft., 3 SMs

A. 2,000 ft., 3 SMs

15

Operate over congested areas (i.e., cities, towns, settlements) or groups of people at an altitude which ensures at least ______above the highest obstacle within a ______ radius of the aircraft.
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: 6.2.3.3.
A. 500 ft; 1/2 NM
B. 1000 ft; 2000 ft
C. 1000 ft; 1000 ft
D. 500 ft; 3 NM

B. 1000 ft; 2000 ft

16

Pilots will takeoff, land, or fly an approach at an airport where thunderstorms or other hazardous conditions are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, windshear, and (or) microbursts.
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: 7.1.4.
A. True
B. False

B. False

17

During unpressurized operations and when flying without supplemental oxygen:
A. If any occupant is not trained IAW AFI 11-403, altitude and flight time are limited to 13,000 ft MSL and 3 hrs
B. Altitude is limited to 14,000 ft MSL
C. Neither A or B
D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

18

VFR cloud clearance and visibility minimums for aircraft operating in FAA Class C and D airspace is_________.
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: Table 6.1
A. clear of clouds and 3 SM
B. 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal and 3 SM
C. 1000 feet below, 1000 feet above, 1 SM horizontal and 5 SM
D. 1500 feet and 3 NM

B. 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal and 3 SM

19

For Multi-Engine Fixed Wing Aircraft, PIC's will ensure the aircraft meets or exceeds the published climb gradient (or ______ if a higher gradient is not published) for the selected IFR departure method, with One Engine Inoperative (OEI), to an appropriate MIA.
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: 5.4.3.1.2.
A. 152 feet per NM
B. 152 feet per minute
C. 200 feet per NM
D. 200 feet per minute

C. 200 feet per NM

20

The crew rest period is normally a minimum ________ non-duty period before the FDP begins.
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3 Para: 2.1.
A. 8-hour
B. 10-hour
C. 12-hour
D. 16-hour

C. 12-hour

21

Maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) is _______ hours.
Ref: AFI 11-202 V3
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 20

C. 16

22

Aircrew members will not fly within ______ hours of compressed gas diving (including SCUBA), surface supplied diving, hyperbaric (compression) chamber exposure or aircraft pressurization checks (to below sea level) that exceed 10 minutes duration (this restriction not applicable to UAS ground control station operations).

A. 8
B. 72
C. 12
D. 24

D. 24

23

Aircrew members will not fly within ______ hours after completion of a hypobaric (altitude) chamber flight above 25,000 ft. MSL.

A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 72

B. 12

24

Aircrew members will not fly within _______ hours after donating blood, plasma or bone marrow. The flying unit commander must approve donations of blood, plasma or bone marrow by aircrew members.

A. 12
B. 10
C. 72
D. 16

C. 72

25

One main tank fuel indicator may be inoperative. Two main tank indicators may be inoperative provided they are not symmetrical tanks or on the same wing. Plan to land with a minimum of _______ pounds calculated main tank fuel.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 4.3.4.2.6.
A. 7,000
B. 9,000
C. 8,000
D. 7,500

C. 8,000

26

One external fuel tank indicator may be inoperative provided both external fuel tanks are checked _______.

A. full or empty
B. prior to takeoff
C. empty
D. full

A. full or empty

27

Weather mode radar must be operative for flights into areas of _______ thunderstorms.

A. known
B. forecast
C. ISO Echo level 3
D. known or forecast

D. known or forecast

28

If the standby Attitude Direction Indicator (ADI) or Standby Vertical Velocity Indicator (VVI) is inoperative, ________.

A. the aircraft may only be flown with 100 NM of a suitable airfield
B. the aircraft may only be flown in day VMC conditions
C. the aircraft may not be flown
D. the aircraft may only be flown in day VMC conditions within 100 NM of a suitable airfield

B. the aircraft may only be flown in day VMC conditions

29

All occupants will be seated with seat belts fastened during .

A. taxi, takeoff, and landing
B. takeoff and landing
C. taxi and takeoff
D. taxi and landing

A. taxi, takeoff, and landing

30

In training, minimum runway length is _______.

A. 2,500
B. 3,000
C. 3,500
D. 4,000

B. 3,000

31

Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ______.

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

D. 25

32

With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _______.

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

A. 10

33

Minimum runway width is ______ ft and minimum taxiway width is _____ft.

A. 65, 35
B. 60, 60
C. 30, 30
D. 60, 30

D. 60, 30

34

Any crew member seeing a deviation of ______ ft altitude or ______ knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the flying pilot. Deviations from prescribed procedures will also be announced.

A. 50, 5
B. 100 , 10
C. 200 , 10
D. 500 , 15

C. 200 , 10

35

Who will monitor the primary radio?

A. Pilot
B. Copilot
C. EWO
D. All crewmembers unless specifically directed to do otherwise by the PIC

D. All crewmembers unless specifically directed to do otherwise by the PIC

36

Crews should use a clear water rinse facility (birdbath) after every flight in which the aircraft is flown over salt water below 1000' AGL, including tactical approaches and landings. Sensors such as the radar/IDS are not required to be turned off prior to entering the birdbath.

A. True
B. False

B. False

37

All aircrew members will have flight gloves readily available during all flights.

A. True
B. False

A. True

38

Carry a headset, helmet and oxygen mask, and operable flashlight on all flights.

A. True
B. False

A. True

39

Oxygen on board for takeoffs will be a minimum of _____ liters.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A. 5

40

While overwater, LPUs will be sized and readily available at the crew member's station, and worn whenever below ______ overwater (except for ______).

A. 1000, within power-off glide distance of land
B. 2,000 ft, takeoff, approach and landing
C. 1000, take-off and landing
D. 2000, within power-off glide distance of land

B. 2,000 ft, takeoff, approach and landing

41

Anti-exposure suits will be available during overwater flights when route of flight is beyond power off gliding distance from ______ and the water temperature is ______ degrees Fahrenheit (F) or below.

A. land, 70
B. a suitable airfield, between 51-60
C. land, 60
D. any airfield, 60

C. land, 60

42

Hold the number of persons on the flight deck to the minimum commensurate with mission requirements. At no time will this exceed ______.

A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11

B. 9

43

What is required fuel over destination/abort base?

A. Alternate and Missed Approach, Holding and Approach and Landing fuels
B. Total of Reserve, Holding and Approach and Landing fuels
C. Approach and Landing fuels
D. Total of Reserve, Alternate and Missed Approach, Holding and Approach and Landing fuels

D. Total of Reserve, Alternate and Missed Approach, Holding and Approach and Landing fuels

44

The EWO/navigator will prepare mission charts IAW this publication (see Chapter 11). In addition, the charts will include the ______.

A. location and lethal threat range rings
B. location and lethal threat range rings (shadow graphing as required) of all threat systems which could affect aircraft survivability or mission completion
C. IMOM shadow graphing of all threat systems which could affect aircraft survivability or mission completion
D. last known SAFIRE locations and location and lethal threat range rings (shadow graphing as required) of all threat systems which could affect aircraft survivability or mission completion

B. location and lethal threat range rings (shadow graphing as required) of all threat systems which could affect aircraft survivability or mission completion

45

The EWO will select and monitor a vertical situation display (VSD) on video display terminal (VDT) during threat penetration operations.

A. True
B. False

A. True

46

During the low-level portion of the mission, immediately following the leg briefing, the EWO/navigator will brief the ______ and ______ prior to a threat leg.

A. anticipated threats
B. aircraft deviations
C. Both A and B
D. status of his/her equipment

C. Both A and B

47

Base NVG altitudes on terrain elevation ______ NM either side of flight planned route, added the planned enroute AGL altitude.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 17.2.2.2.1.
A. .25
B. .05
C. .5
D. 1

C. .5

48

A daylight route survey will be conducted for all unpublished training routes prior to night/IMC operations below ______. Any route or route segment not surveyed within the last ______ months will be considered unsurveyed.

A. 500 ft AGL, 12
B. 250 ft AGL, 6
C. 500 ft AGL, 6
D. 250 ft AGL, 12

A. 500 ft AGL, 12

49

To compute ESA, add ______ ft (______ ft in mountainous terrain) to the highest obstacle, contour line, or terrain feature within 10 NM of route centerline or planned flight path, rounded up to the next 100-ft increment.

A. 500, 1000
B. 1000, SCP plus 1000
C. 1000, 2000
D. 1000, 3000

C. 1000, 2000

50

For NVG low-level, the minimum altitude is ______, and the minimum inflight visibility is _______.

A. 300 ft MSL, 3 nm
B. 300 ft AGL, 3 sm
C. 500 ft MSL, 3 nm
D. 500 ft AGL, 3 sm

B. 300 ft AGL, 3 sm

51

To compute MSA, for each leg or leg segment, add 500 ft (or the planned set clearance for TF operations) to the highest obstacle, contour line, or terrain feature, within ______NM of route centerline or the planned flight path, rounded up to the next 100-ft increment.

A. .5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

D. 3

52

The 250 ft SCP (500 ft SCP for Ku band TF) is authorized for all terrain and meteorological conditions, if aircraft and system limitations are met.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.2.5.1
A. True
B. False

A. True

53

Obtaining an ALT CAL/ALT UPDATE at a significantly higher or lower altitude than the target will not induce substantial altimeter error.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 17.2.3.8.1.
A. True
B. False

B. False

54

To compute MDA for VMC operations, add ______ to the Touchdown Zone Elevation (TDZE). For approved IMC SCA operations, add ______ to the TDZE.

A. 100 ft, 200 ft
B. 200 ft, 200 ft
C. 200 ft, 300 ft
D. 250 ft, 250 ft

A. 100 ft, 200 ft

55

IMC SCA weather minimums will be no lower than ______ feet and ______ SM.

A. 100, one quarter
B. 200, one half
C. 500, three quarter
D. 1000, one quarter

B. 200, one half

56

An obstacle is considered significant if:

A. it is within 100 feet of desired glide slope
B. it is within 300 feet of desired glide slope
C. it is at or above the desired glide slope
D. it falls above the reference line on the Critical Obstacle Chart for the desired glide slope

B. it is within 300 feet of desired glide slope

57

An obstacle is considered critical if:
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 17.3.4.3.
A. it is within 100 feet of planned glide slope
B. it is within 300 feet of planned glide slope
C. it is at or above the planned glide slope
D. it falls above the reference line for the planned glide slope or its extension along the depicted baseline.

D. it falls above the reference line for the planned glide slope or its extension along the depicted baseline.

58

Glide slopes exceeding ______ degrees should be carefully considered due to the high rate of descent required.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 17.3.4.3.1.1.
A. 3.0
B. 4.0
C. 4.5
D. 5.0

B. 4.0

59

When over open water, do not drop expendables below ______ of any surface vessel, platform, or landmass.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 17.8.2.
A. 500 ft AGL or within 3 NM
B. 250 ft AGL or within 3 NM
C. 300 ft AGL or within 3 NM
D. 500 ft AGL or within 2 NM

A. 500 ft AGL or within 3 NM

60

After ______ any crew member observing a condition that would jeopardize a safe drop will transmit "No Drop" on the interphone.

A. the 1-minute warning
B. the 1 (2 for HALO/HAHO)-minute warning
C. the slowdown call
D. the 10-second advisory

B. the 1 (2 for HALO/HAHO)-minute warning

61

Minimum Tanker Air-to-Air Refueling (TAAR) altitude is ______ ft AGL.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 17.19.1.
A. 250
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 1500

B. 500

62

A functional terrain following system is required for TF operations. A TA, GM, or PGM radar display must be available for clearing turns during IMC operations.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: Table 18.1
A. True
B. False

A. True

63

If the radar has not been boresighted, or if the radar self-test cannot be accomplished, TF is restricted to ______.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: Table 18.1
A. Combat & contingency
B. IMC conditions only
C. VMC conditions only
D. 1000 ft SCP

C. VMC conditions only

64

For NVG contour operations, during training, ______ is required without an operating IDS.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: Table 18.2
A. a X-band TF radar
B. a Ku-band GM/PGM radar
C. a X-band TA radar
D. B or C

D. B or C

65

For a night VMC threat penetration over land, an operational RALT TF function, ______ fully functioning radar altimeter(s), and IDS are ______.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: Table 18.2
A. one, required
B. one, not required
C. two, required
D. two, not required

C. two, required

66

The standby altimeters will be set to the ______ altimeter setting for the route or area of operations.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.2.3.
A. local flight service station
B. ATC
C. altitude calibration
D. lowest forecast

D. lowest forecast

67

If TRUE ALT is selected, and the TRUE ALT altimeter setting falls below the lowest forecast altimeter setting, the TRUE ALT value will be set in the standby and used as the lowest altimeter setting for the route or area of operations.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.2.3.
A. True
B. False

A. True

68

Any tower or manmade obstruction within 3 NM of flight path must be positively identified visually or on radar. If not identified by ______NM prior to the tower or obstacle, climb to at least ______ feet above the obstruction until clear.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.2.4.
A. 2, 250
B. 3, 250
C. 3, MSA
D. 5, 500

B. 3, 250

69

When a failure of the selected TF system or other required equipment occurs or is suspected during IMC low-level operations, the pilot will immediately begin a climb to at least ______ for the leg or segment and select another low-level method (if available).
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.3.3.
A. MSA
B. MSA plus 250 ft
C. ESA
D. MSA plus 500 ft

A. MSA

70

Use ______ as the primary altitude reference when flying at MSA/ESA or obstacle warning reactions.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.2.3.
A. the system baro altimeter
B. the pilots' radar altimeter
C. the system baro altimeter with the true alt function active
D. the standby altimeters

D. the standby altimeters

71

The RALT OVRD function on the navigator/EWO E2 will only be used during ______ or during combat/contingency operations.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.2.1.1.
A. IMC
B. day VMC
C. never
D. night threat penetration

B. day VMC

72

For turning SCAs, maintain ______ or approach speed whichever is higher in the turn.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.5.3.2.
A. 130 KCAS/KIAS
B. 140 KCAS/KIAS
C. 150 KCAS/KIAS
D. 160 KCAS/KIAS

B. 140 KCAS/KIAS

73

At glide slope intercept the navigator or EWO will monitor course and glide slope deviation using the VSD or HSD display. Report deviations greater than ______ laterally or ______ vertically, along with an advisory as to whether the aircraft is correcting to, paralleling or diverging from course/glidepath.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.5.6.1.
A. 50 yd /25 ft
B. 25 yd/50 ft
C. 50 yd/50 ft
D. 100 ft/50 ft

C. 50 yd/50 ft

74

The navigator or EWO will advise the pilots upon arriving at the MAP and repeat the terrain clearance altitude (e.g., radar TF SCP, RALT TF, MSL altitude, pattern altitude, etc.), the initial heading, and will call altitudes climbing through from ______ ft to ______ ft AGL if a go-around is executed.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.5.10.1.
A. 25, 100
B. 25, 200
C. 50, 100
D. 50, 200

D. 50, 200

75

Be aware after G/A is selected, radar TF will not be active, nor will lateral steering begin until ______.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.5.10.3.2.
A. the selected SCP is reached
B. the TF radar has completed three full scans
C. terminal consent is placed in override
D. 81% of the selected SCP is reached

A. the selected SCP is reached

76

If the GO-AROUND button was selected, ________ must be selected prior to descending below the selected SCP to prevent a ________.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.5.10.3.3.
A. TERM CNST, LOW ALT
B. TERM CNST, OW
C. TERM CNST, DH
D. TERM CNST, LOW ALT and DH

A. TERM CNST, LOW ALT

77

When operating in VMC, ______ must clear terrain prior to and during any threat reaction.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC130 V3 Para: 18.6.1
A. pilots
B. navigators
C. EWOs
D. All of the above

A. pilots

78

A planned obstacle warning (OW) must be thoroughly briefed before the flight. The location of the obstacle causing the planned OW must be identified, as well as the distance the aircraft is from the obstacle and at what point during the turn the OW occurs.
Ref: AFTTP 3-3.MC-130 Para: 2.4.3.3.
A. True
B. False

A. True

79

For climbs above ______, increase aircraft gross weight by ______ for every 1000 ft above ______.
Ref: AFTTP 3-3.MC-130 Para: Figure 2.3
A. 4000 ft MSL, 4000 lbs, 6000 ft MSL
B. 5000 ft MSL, 4000 lbs, 6000 ft MSL
C. 10000 ft MSL, 4000 lbs, 4000 ft MSL
D. 5000 ft MSL, 4000 lbs, 5000 ft MSL

D. 5000 ft MSL, 4000 lbs, 5000 ft MSL

80

Damage to antennas and sensors on the underside of the aircraft may result when landing on unprepared surfaces. Consider taping, using ruggedized belly equipment, or removing belly equipment for protection, based on the threat.
Ref: AFTTP 3-3.MC-130 Para: 2.6.7.
A. True
B. False

A. True

81

______ is the primary height reference for threat penetration.
Ref: AFTTP 3-3.MC-130 Para: 4.8.1.1.1.
A. Visual pilotage
B. Pressure and radar altimeters
C. FLIR/IDS
D. PFPS moving map display and TA, as appropriate

A. Visual pilotage

82

The maximum range from which a radar pulse can return before the next pulse is transmitted (based on pulse repetition frequency [PRF]/pulse repetition interval [PRI]):
Ref: AFTTP 3-3.MC-130 Chap: Attachment 1 Para: A1.5
A. DFA
B. Azimuth Resolution
C. MTR
D. None of the above

C. MTR

83

The ability of a radar to determine range between different targets at the same bearing.
Ref: AFTTP 3-3.MC-130 Chap: Attachment 1 Para: A1.5
A. Doppler notch
B. Beam width
C. Pulse repetition frequency (PRF)
D. Range resolution

D. Range resolution

84

The ability of a radar to separate aircraft at similar ranges but different bearings from a reference point. ______ determines azimuth resolution and vertical beam width determines elevation resolution.
Ref: AFTTP 3-3.MC-130 Chap: Attachment 1 Para: A1.5
A. Horizontal beam width
B. Vertical beam width
C. Pulse repetition frequency (PRF)
D. Pulse width

A. Horizontal beam width

85

DFA is the lowest altitude an aircraft can transit a point and remain below the radar's LOS coverage.

A. True
B. False

B. False

86

A WARNING is defined as ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1
A. operating procedures, techniques, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize
B. operating procedures, techniques, etc., which may result in personal injury and/or loss of life if not carefully followed
C. operating procedures, techniques, etc., which may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed
D. an acceptable or suggested means of accomplishment

B. operating procedures, techniques, etc., which may result in personal injury and/or loss of life if not carefully followed

87

A CAUTION is defined as ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1
A. operating procedures, techniques, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize
B. operating procedures, techniques, etc., which may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed
C. operating procedures, techniques, etc., which may result in personal injury and/or loss of life if not carefully followed
D. an acceptable or suggested means of accomplishment

B. operating procedures, techniques, etc., which may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed

88

Use "shall" whenever a manual expresses a provision that is binding.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1
A. True
B. False

A. True

89

Use "should" and "may" whenever it is necessary to express nonmandatory provisions.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1
A. True
B. False

A. True

90

"Will" may be used to express a declaration of purpose. It may be necessary to use "will" in cases where simple futurity is required.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1
A. True
B. False

A. True

91

The OBE system is used to control the amount of cooling air drawn through the ______ and to maintain proper cabin pressurization.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-102
A. cargo air conditioning system
B. RF Jammer LRUs
C. cockpit air conditioning
D. Radar LRUs

B. RF Jammer LRUs

92

WARNING - Do not use leading edge or engine inlet air duct anti-icing during three-engine TF operations.

A. True
B. False

A. True

93

WARNING - Should the crew observe symptoms that oxygen demand flow rate is exceeding system capability, such as large reduction in oxygen gas temperature, reduction of system pressure observed on the regulator gauges, or in the extreme, lack of pressure and flow, immediate action will be taken. Crews should ______.

A. reduce the crew’s need for supplemental oxygen by changing flight environment or regulator settings. As a last resort, selectively remove crew members from the internal airplane system by using portable bottles, EEBD, EPOS, or POKs. This may only provide temporary relief, since these sources are of limited duration and may have to be recharged from the airplane.
B. take no action.
C. notify ATC of an inflight emergency and land immediately.
D. monitor liquid oxygen gauge and descend below 10,000 feet MSL when total oxygen onboard is below 10 liters.

A. reduce the crew’s need for supplemental oxygen by changing flight environment or regulator settings. As a last resort, selectively remove crew members from the internal airplane system by using portable bottles, EEBD, EPOS, or POKs. This may only provide temporary relief, since these sources are of limited duration and may have to be recharged from the airplane.

94

An oxygen shut-off valve is mounted on the ______ of the cargo compartment.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-205
A. aft left side
B. forward right side
C. aft right side
D. forward left side

B. forward right side

95

NOTE - Each crew member will check their oxygen mask communications and regulator with ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-209
A. mask off, fitted, and connected to oxygen supply hose
B. mask on, fitted, and connected to oxygen supply hose
C. mask off, fitted, and disconnected to oxygen supply hose
D. mask on, fitted, and disconnected to oxygen supply hose

B. mask on, fitted, and connected to oxygen supply hose

96

WARNING - Although Halon 1211 and Halon 1301 vapor has a low toxicity, its decomposition products can be hazardous. On decomposition, Halon 1211 and Halon 1301 have a characteristic sharp, acrid odor, even in concentrations of only a few parts per million. The odor provides a built-in warning system for the agent and at the same time creates a noxious, irritating atmosphere for those who are in the hazard area during and following a fire. Leave and/or ventilate the area after fighting a fire.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-225
A. True
B. False

A. True

97

______ hand operated fire extinguishers are provided for fighting interior fires, ______ in the flight station on the flight station aft bulkhead and ______in the cargo compartment.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-225
A. 4, 1, 3
B. 5, 2, 3
C. 4, 2, 2
D. 6, 3, 3

A. 4, 1, 3

98

______ fire fighter's smoke masks are stowed near the portable oxygen bottles on the airplane.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-225
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

D. 4

99

A faulty regulator is indicated by the ability to breathe when:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-209
A. The supply lever is “OFF” and the Diluter lever is in “100% OXYGEN”
B. The supply lever is “OFF” and the Diluter lever is in “NORMAL OXYGEN”
C. The supply lever is “ON” and the Diluter lever is in “100% OXYGEN”
D. The supply lever is “OFF” and the Diluter lever is in “NORMAL OXYGEN”

A. The supply lever is “OFF” and the Diluter lever is in “100% OXYGEN”

100

The rated duration of the EEBD is ______ minutes.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

C. 15

101

Two hand axes are installed in the airplane, one on the ______ and the other ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-227
A. forward side of FS 245, aft of the right paratroop door.
B. aft of the left paratroop door, aft of the right paratroop door
C. forward of right hand equipment rack, forward of right hand paratroop door.
D. aft side of the forward bulkhead of the cargo compartment, aft of the left paratroop door.

D. aft side of the forward bulkhead of the cargo compartment, aft of the left paratroop door.

102

Eight portable, battery-operated emergency exit lights are installed on stationary terminal blocks located near each normal or emergency exit. When installed, they can be activated by ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-227
A. placing the 3 position ON, OFF, ARMED to “ON”.
B. when the airplane is subjected to a decelerating force exceeding 2.5Gs.
C. power on the Essential DC bus fails.
D. placing the 3 position ON, OFF, ARMED to “ON”, when the airplane is subjected to a decelerating force exceeding 2.5Gs, or power on the Essential DC bus fails.

D. placing the 3 position ON, OFF, ARMED to “ON”, when the airplane is subjected to a decelerating force exceeding 2.5Gs, or power on the Essential DC bus fails.

103

There are provisions for ______-man life rafts in the top center wing trailing edge area. There are a total of ______ life raft release handles inside the aircraft and ______ life raft release handles on the upper wing surface inboard of their respective life raft compartments.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-227
A. three, 14, 4, 2
B. three, 20, 2, 1
C. four, 14, 2, 2
D. four, 20, 4, 2

D. four, 20, 4, 2

104

Life raft release handles are located as follows:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-227
A. two on the flight station bulkhead below the escape hatch, two on the fuselage structure aft of the right paratroop door, and two on the wing upper surface inboard of their respective life raft compartments.
B. two on the aft side of flight station 245, two on the fuselage structure aft of the right paratroop door, and two on the wing upper surface inboard of their respective life raft compartment.
C. two on the flight station bulkhead below the escape hatch, two on the fuselage structure aft of the left paratroop door, and two on the wing upper surface inboard of their respective life raft compartment.
D. two on the flight station bulkhead below the escape hatch, two on the fuselage structure aft of the right paratroop door, and two on the outer wing-tip upper surface.

A. two on the flight station bulkhead below the escape hatch, two on the fuselage structure aft of the right paratroop door, and two on the wing upper surface inboard of their respective life raft compartments.

105

Three ______ opening overhead escape hatches are provided on the airplane.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-228
A. outward
B. inward
C. sideward
D. counter-clockwise

B. inward

106

The side emergency exit panels are located forward of each wheel well.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-228
A. True
B. False

A. True

107

An emergency escape rope is installed ______ of each overhead escape hatch.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-228
A. aft
B. forward
C. left side
D. right side

A. aft

108

To open the crew entrance door from the inside, turn the inside handle in a ______ direction.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-229
A. up
B. down
C. clockwise
D. counter-clockwise

D. counter-clockwise

109

CAUTION - When opening the crew entrance door from the inside, use the ______ to restrain the door from falling free.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-229
A. door handle
B. door arm brace
C. hand lanyard
D. step indentation

C. hand lanyard

110

The _____ is a yellow handle located on the ceiling of the flight station three feet to the left of the center line of the airplane and slightly aft of the pilot's seat.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-229
A. crew ladder
B. side escape hatch jettison handle
C. crew entrance door jettison handle
D. life raft release handle

C. crew entrance door jettison handle

111

The shoulder harness inertia reel lock control forward (LOCK) position is used only when ______ is anticipated.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-231
A. normal flying operation
B. combat operation
C. taxiing
D. crash landing or ditching

D. crash landing or ditching

112

The navigator's, engineer's, and EWO's inertial reel will not function automatically nor will the shoulder harness provide restraint if the seats are ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-231
A. facing forward
B. facing sideways
C. full down
D. full up

B. facing sideways

113

WARNING - The ______ will not be installed in the locked position with the troop door closed except on the ground to secure the airplane.
Ref: Pg: 1-235
A. door blackout cover
B. pip pin
C. locking latch
D. airplane key

B. pip pin

114

WARNING - If upon entering the airplane for your preflight checks, fumes are present and suspected of being flammable or toxic:

A. the pilot will direct all crew members to don oxygen/smoke masks/quick-don masks and goggles (as appropriate) and to select 100 percent on their oxygen regulators.
B. personnel will be notified using the emergency alarm bells and horns using six short rings as the signal to abandon the airplane.
C. do not proceed with the Preflight Check until fumes are investigated and eliminated.
D. the area on both sides of the wheel wells will be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least 300 feet (600 if pyrotechnics are on board).

C. do not proceed with the Preflight Check until fumes are investigated and eliminated.

115

WARNING - A radiation hazard exists at ______ radio antenna during transmit mode.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 2-27
A. VHF
B. UHF
C. HF
D. SATCOM

C. HF

116

The danger area for the propellers is _______ ft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 2-52
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30

B. 10

117

WARNING - The radar radiation hazard area is around the nose radome. Accidental entry into the hazard area does not result in injury. It is only through prolonged exposure that the possibility of danger exists.
Ref: Pg: 2-52.1
A. True
B. False

A. True

118

The HF radio hazard is approximately ______ ft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 2-52.1
A. 5
B. 10
C. 100
D. 300

A. 5

119

The radar radiation hazard for fuel ignition extends out to ______ ft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 2-52.1
A. 5
B. 10
C. 100
D. 300

D. 300

120

The radar radiation hazard for personnel extends out to ______ ft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 2-52.1
A. 5
B. 10
C. 100
D. 300

C. 100

121

The ALQ-172 radiation hazard area is approximately ______ ft radius from both sides of aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 2-52.1
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

D. 20

122

WARNING - The aircraft will not be moved until the loadmaster states "Clear to Taxi" following offload/onload operations.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 2-106
A. True
B. False

A. True

123

Refueling airspeed is ______, or as requested.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 2-86
A. 215 KIAS
B. 215 KCAS
C. 200 KIAS
D. 200 KCAS

C. 200 KIAS

124

How many manual oxygen shutoff valves are on the MC-130H?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 1-205
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A. 1

125

During infiltration/exfiltration operations when onload/offload operations are complete, the aircraft will not be moved until the loadmaster states:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 2-106
A. “Fastened, cabin secure”
B. “Ramp and door closed and locked”
C. “Clear to taxi”
D. “Load clear”

C. “Clear to taxi”

126

There are ______ emergency escape ropes on the aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-1
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

C. 3

127

There are ______ emergency lights installed on the aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: Figure 3-1
A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

C. 8

128

The closest first aid kit to the EWO is located ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: Figure 3-1
A. just above the galley
B. fwd side of FS 245
C. aft side of FS 245
D. next to the ladder on the flight deck

B. fwd side of FS 245

129

There are ______ hand fire extinguishers on the aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: Figure 3-1
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

D. 4

130

The closest hand fire extinguisher to the EWO is located ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: Figure 3-1
A. just above the galley
B. just left of the FE
C. aft side of FS 245
D. next to the ladder on the flight deck

D. next to the ladder on the flight deck

131

There are ______ portable oxygen bottles on the aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: Figure 3-1
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

D. 4

132

There are ______ smoke masks on the aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: Figure 3-1
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

D. 4

133

The alarm bell signal for Ground Evacuation (abandon the airplane) is ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-2
A. one short ring
B. three short rings
C. one long sustained ring
D. six short rings

C. one long sustained ring

134

The signal to "prepare to abandon airplane" for a Bailout is ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-2
A. one short ring
B. three short rings
C. one long sustained ring
D. six short rings

B. three short rings

135

The signal to "Bailout" for a Bailout is ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-2
A. one short ring
B. three short rings
C. one long sustained ring
D. six short rings

C. one long sustained ring

136

The signal that "Ditching or Crash Landing Imminent" is ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-2
A. one short ring
B. three short rings
C. one long sustained ring
D. six short rings

D. six short rings

137

The signal to "Brace For Impact" in a ditching or crash landing is ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-2
A. one short ring
B. three short rings
C. one long sustained ring
D. six short rings

C. one long sustained ring

138

The primary ground entrance/exit is the ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-13
A. ramp and door
B. paratroop doors
C. overhead escape hatches
D. crew entrance door

D. crew entrance door

139

WARNING - Upon exiting through the crew entrance door or ______, avoid rotating propellers.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-10
A. troop doors
B. overhead escape hatches
C. ramp and door
D. side escape hatches

D. side escape hatches

140

Chopping locations are painted on each side of the fuselage ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-10
A. aft of each paratroop door
B. over each paratroop door
C. forward of each paratroop door
D. aft of each overhead escape hatch

B. over each paratroop door

141

WARNING - If a main wheel well fire exists, all personnel other than those in the fire department should evacuate the immediate area. The area on both sides of the wheel will be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least ______ feet (______ feet if pyrotechnics on board).
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-11
A. 100, 200
B. 200, 400
C. 300, 600
D. 400, 800

C. 300, 600

142

WARNING - If conditions require personnel to be close to an overheated wheel or tire assembly, the approach should be from the ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-11
A. forward only
B. side only
C. aft only
D. forward or aft only

D. forward or aft only

143

Your first action after detecting a fire, smoke, or fumes in the fuselage is to:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-36
A. shut off the oxygen system using the manual oxygen shut-off valve
B. don an oxygen mask
C. notify the crew and passengers
D. make a radio call to ATC and declare an emergency

C. notify the crew and passengers

144

CAUTION - Electrical power should not be reapplied to circuits found to have caused the fire or which received fire damage.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-33
A. True
B. False

A. True

145

WARNING - Prolonged exposure (______ mins or more) to high concentration (pronounced irritation of eye and nose or a sharp acrid odor) of fire extinguisher agent should be avoided.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-36
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 10

C. 5

146

WARNING - If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required for immediate actions should _______ until the fumes are eliminated.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-38
A. be turned off immediately
B. not be turned on or off
C. be turned off
D. recycled if the CB popped

B. not be turned on or off

147

WARNING - Smoke in the cargo compartment will move forward onto the flight deck. Although the avionics cooling fans circulate and dissipate smoke, smoke will not be effectively eliminated until the ______ is opened in conjunction with the paratroop doors or other suitable airplane opening.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-38
A. Copilot's swing window
B. right side escape hatch
C. center escape hatch
D. forward escape hatch

D. forward escape hatch

148

WARNING - Exercise caution when removing/replacing the forward escape hatch during an inflight smoke and fume emergency. With paratroop doors open, a strong negative pressure exists in the vicinity of the forward escape hatch. When replacing the hatch after smoke has been eliminated, it is advisable to first close the ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-39
A. forward escape hatch
B. rear escape hatch
C. paratroop doors
D. ramp and door

C. paratroop doors

149

WARNING - If a door warning light illuminates inflight, personnel shall not go near the ______ until it has been determined that it is safe to do so.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-40
A. ramp and door
B. paratroop doors
C. side emergency escape doors
D. crew entrance door

D. crew entrance door

150

WARNING - Over water bailout avoids the numerous risks associated with ditching. Therefore, ditching must be considered as a ______ and attempted only when conditions are ideal or there is no other alternative.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-65
A. primary method
B. last resort
C. secondary method
D. normal procedure

B. last resort

151

Which of the following statements are true for recovering a mission computer sync loss?

A. If a mission computer is malfunctioning (STAT = FAIL or N/U) immediately turn if off
B. Initializing a mission computer may cause momentary loss of video display on all VDTs.
C. Discontinue TF operations before initializing a mission computer
D. Both b and c

D. Both b and c

152

Mission computer power transients may cause the MC SYNC alert and annunciator. If neither computer indicates a fault:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-71
A. switch to the backup MC
B. initialize the primary MC
C. initialize the backup MC
D. notify MX in the forms

C. initialize the backup MC

153

If a mission computer's PRES STAT W11, bit 4 = 1, the mission computer battery is degraded and may not maintain memory when the mission computer is powered off.
A. True
B. False

A. True

154

If an EWO CDC fails and if power is lost to the #1 VDT circuit breaker or the #1 VDT circuit breaker is pulled due to a malfunction power will also be lost to the #2 VDT screen.
A. True
B. False

B. False

155

If a system status alert shows a failure of equipment and is acknowledged, that equipment must be initialized in order for the alert to activate again during subsequent failure.
A. True
B. False

A. True

156

Prior to gear-up landing, open and secure ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-69
A. side emergency exits and overhead escape hatches
B. paratroop doors and side emergency exits
C. forward, center, and aft escape hatches and paratroop doors
D. overhead escape hatches

C. forward, center, and aft escape hatches and paratroop doors

157

WARNING - In a crash landing situation, ensure controls which cannot be reached are properly positioned before ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-69
A. locking the harness (inertia reel)
B. donning parachute
C. facing seat forward
D. descending through 5000 feet MSL

A. locking the harness (inertia reel)

158

When the guarded MAYDAY switch is set to ON, ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-70
A. #1 UHF radio is set to 243.0
B. #1 HF radio is set to 2.182 USB
C. #1 VHF radio is set to 121.5
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

159

Setting the MAYDAY switch to ON does not initialize any transmissions, it only configures the equipment for emergency use.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-70
A. True
B. False

A. True

160

When the two computers are not achieving the same solutions, but have not failed, a ______ will be displayed on the video displays.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-70
A. MC BATTERY LOW
B. MC SYNC
C. MC FAIL
D. MC INOP

B. MC SYNC

161

The possibility of more than one piece of equipment connected to the 1553B data bus acting as a bus controller could be indicated by ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-71
A. flashing displays at multiple crew positions
B. no response to data entry or command
C. both A and B
D. None of the above

C. both A and B

162

Mission computer power transients and internal computer failures may cause the MC SYNC alert and annunciator. If neither mission computer indicates a fault, the first action is to ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-71
A. initialize the backup mission computer
B. initialize the primary mission computer
C. cycle power to the primary mission computer
D. cycle power to the backup mission computer

A. initialize the backup mission computer

163

WARNING - Discontinue ______ before initializing a mission computer.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-71
A. TF operations
B. all data entry
C. flying
D. radio transmissions

A. TF operations

164

During dual mission computer failure, which of the following NAVIGATION INSTRUMENTS are available for use:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-72
A. C-12 compasses
B. TAS indicator
C. Standby Altimeter
D. IDS in MAN or FWD, MED FOV
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

165

NOTE - The ______ indicates which (avionics) units are in backup (on the Equipment Status Pages).
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-72.1
A. explanation point (!)
B. hat sign (^)
C. hash tag (#)
D. caret (

C. hash tag (#)

166

In the event of other abnormal display behavior, e.g. flashing displays isolated to a single crew station, cycle power to the ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-72.2
A. backup mission computer
B. primary computer
C. DTS
D. #3 generator

A. backup mission computer

167

If the communication switching unit (CSU) fails, all crew members can communicate on the intercom by selecting ______ on their ICS control. The pilot must turn on the ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-73
A. CALL, UHF/VHF OVRD switch
B. HOT MIC, UHF/VHF OVRD switch
C. CALL, backup communications switch
D. HOT MIC, Backup communications switch

C. CALL, backup communications switch

168

WARNING - Do not turn off the INSs or loss of VDT attitude reference will occur.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-76
A. True
B. False

A. True

169

NOTE - When a flight station air conditioning pack failure occurs, ______ and ______ are the avionics equipment most affected.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-76
A. INSs, radar set
B. INSs, ALQ-172
C. SDCs, INSs
D. SDCs, ALQ-172

B. INSs, ALQ-172

170

Normally, crewmembers in the flight station will use the ______ for exit after ditching.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-79
A. flight station hinged windows
B. forward escape hatch
C. crew entrance door
D. center escape hatch

B. forward escape hatch

171

All crewmembers will normally board the ______ life raft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-79
A. right inboard
B. right outboard
C. left inboard
D. left outboard

C. left inboard

172

WARNING - The crew and/or passengers must not leave ditching positions until the airplane has stopped ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-80
A. lateral movement
B. forward movement
C. and the pilot actuates the egress alarm signal
D. and the pilot gives the verbal command in conjunction with the egress alarm signal

B. forward movement

173

WARNING - Ensure that personnel are outside of the airplane and clear of escape hatches prior to ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-80
A. releasing the life rafts
B. throwing the emergency ropes out
C. inflating life preserver
D. grabbing a first aid kit

C. inflating life preserver

174

WARNING - Life raft release handles must be pulled ______, for complete ejection and inflation of the life raft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-81
A. out and down
B. through their full travel
C. at least 50%
D. simultaneously

B. through their full travel

175

WARNING - ______ and ______ are not to be used in heavy seas or nose-down condition.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-82
A. forward escape hatch, flight station hinged windows
B. forward escape hatch, side emergency exits
C. side emergency exit, cargo ramp and door
D. side emergency exit, flight station hinged windows

D. side emergency exit, flight station hinged windows

176

The EWO's FIRST ACTION in a ditching scenario consists of six (6) items. Which of the following is NOT one of those actions?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-87
A. Acknowledge pilot's order to prepare for ditching.
B. Assist in removing and stowing cargo compartment overhead hatches.
C. EWO seat. Face seat forward, full down and full left.
D. Help destroy classified material.

C. EWO seat. Face seat forward, full down and full left.

177

The EWO is required to provide ______ in a ditching situation.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-87
A. flashlight
B. first-aid kit
C. navigation kit
D. all the above

D. all the above

178

One mission computer (MC) serves as the primary data bus controller and the other MC serves as a backup or on-line spare.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-3
A. True
B. False

A. True

179

______ data bus channels provide the interface for the mission computers to communicate with the rest of the avionics system.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-13
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

D. 3

180

When IDS video in flight path vector is selected at the pilot and/or copilot stations and the IDS Pointing Mode is changed to any other mode, video is removed at the pilot and/or copilot stations.

A. True
B. False

A. True

181

IDS cool down will normally finish with ______ minutes. During cool down, the equipment status page will indicate ______ in the STAT column.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-158
A. 10, STBY
B. 15, STBY
C. 10, N/U
D. 15, N/U

D. 15, N/U

182

NOTE - Because the IDS Manual Mode is directly controlled from the track handle without mission computer input, both of these submodes, ______, can be used without the mission computers.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-159
A. Forward and AVT
B. Pointing and Flight Path Vector
C. Forward and Pointing
D. AVT and Flight Path Vector

C. Forward and Pointing

183

(APQ-170) The ______ serves as the central processing unit for the LRUs, and connects the RS to the data bus.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-160
A. line replaceable unit (LRU)
B. power supply (PS)
C. signal data converters (SDC)
D. signal processor computer (SPC)

D. signal processor computer (SPC)

184

The ______ controls the movements of the antennas in response to inputs from the SPC.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-160.1
A. line replaceable unit (LRU)
B. power supply (PS)
C. signal data converters (SDC)
D. signal processor computer (SPC)

B. power supply (PS)

185

The APQ-170 radar uses INS data for ______ stabilization.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-163
A. pitch, roll, and yaw
B. pitch, roll, and drift
C. turn rate, roll, and drift
D. pitch, turn rate, and drift

B. pitch, roll, and drift

186

The ______ contains the program necessary to operate the X- and Ku-band receiver transmitters and controls the antennas through the PS.
Ref: Pg: 4-163
A. line replaceable unit (LRU)
B. power supply (PS)
C. signal data converters (SDC)
D. signal processor computer (SPC)

D. signal processor computer (SPC)

187

The ______ processes the various radar modes and performs the Advanced Low Altitude Technique (ADLAT) computations used In the terrain following modes.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-163
A. line replaceable unit (LRU)
B. power supply (PS)
C. signal data converters (SDC)
D. signal processor computer (SPC)

D. signal processor computer (SPC)

188

The ______ transmits mode status, BIT status, TF cues, warnings, and alerts to the mission computers. All data is transmitted over data bus channel 0.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-163
A. line replaceable unit (LRU)
B. power supply (PS)
C. signal data converters (SDC)
D. signal processor computer (SPC)

D. signal processor computer (SPC)

189

NOTE - Normal radar set waveguide pressure is ______ psia. If the pressure for either radar subsystem falls below ______ psia, and the radar set is powered up, a low pressure alert will be displayed on the VDTs. Below ______ psia, the radar will automatically shut down.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-164
A. 17-19, 17, 15.5
B. 18-22, 17, 15
C. 19, 17, 15.5 +/-.5
D. 21, 17, 15.5

B. 18-22, 17, 15

190

The primary Ku-BAND radar modes are ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-164
A. Ground Map (GM), Pencil Ground Map (PGM), Weather, Ku-Band Beacon, and Ku-Band Beacon/GM
B. Terrain following (TF), terrain avoidance (TA) , and TF/TA
C. Terrain following (TF), Weather, and Ku-Band Beacon
D. Ground Map (GM) and Pencil Ground Map (PGM)

A. Ground Map (GM), Pencil Ground Map (PGM), Weather, Ku-Band Beacon, and Ku-Band Beacon/GM

191

CAUTION - The Radar System must be placed in STBY for at least ______ seconds prior to turning power off to allow antennas to stow. Failure to do so could result in damage to the antennas and receiver/transmitters.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-164
A. 2.5
B. 5
C. 10
D. 30

C. 10

192

When RS SDC is in backup the TA video will take priority over the ground map, weather, and beacon displays, if selected.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-164
A. True
B. False

A. True

193

The APQ-170 radar set has a ______ minute warm-up.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-164
A. two and a half
B. three
C. three and a half
D. four

C. three and a half

194

The APQ-170 radar is fixed to circular polarization in ______ modes and all X-band modes.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-167
A. Ku-band PGM and GM
B. Ku-band GM and TA
C. Ku-band GM and WX
D. Ku-band TF and TA

D. Ku-band TF and TA

195

Polarization is fixed to linear in ______ mode.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-167
A. Ku-band PGM
B. Ku-band GM
C. Ku-band WX
D. Ku-band TF and TA

C. Ku-band WX

196

The TF system detects terrain and most obstacles up to ______ NM using X-band and ______ NM using Ku-band.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-173
A. 18, 12.4
B. 20, 13.4
C. 20.5, 17.2
D. 24.4, 20

C. 20.5, 17.2

197

The TF capability of the radar is affected by terrain reflectance, grazing angle and weather conditions.

A. True
B. False

A. True

198

WARNING - When the RALT OVRD key is active, no ______ will be provided.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-174
A. obstacle warning (OW)
B. Ku-band TF
C. X-band TF
D. LOW ALT warning

D. LOW ALT warning

199

WARNING - The crew must carefully monitor radar altitude, vertical velocity, and other altitude sources during RALT TF operations (automatic or operator selected). Invalid RALT data could cause a descent into the terrain without a failure or LOW ALT warning.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-174
A. True
B. False

A. True

200

Update rates for TF measurements and TA video are dependent upon scan-type and whether TA video is selected.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-175
A. True
B. False

A. True

201

ADLAT is updated every ______ seconds from current corridor information.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-178
A. 0.43 seconds
B. 0.4 seconds
C. 1 second
D. 1.4 seconds

B. 0.4 seconds

202

Three types of TF Corridors are provided: a straight flight corridor, a course correction corridor, and a turning flight corridor.

A. True
B. False

A. True

203

Climb limit angle is derived by predicting the aircraft's maximum climb capability, climbing at ______, at ______ at current aircraft ______, through the thin air above the highest terrain in the corridor.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-178
A. 1.3 power-off stall speed
B. 1049 deg TIT (mil power)
C. weight and configuration
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

204

WARNING - Entry of less ______ or ______ than exists will cause the mission computers to assume better performance than is actually available.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-179
A. Fuel
B. gross weight
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

C. Both A and B

205

WARNING - Avoid X and Ku TF Operations in icing conditions. Icing conditions may be defined by visible accumulation of ice on leading edges, the windscreen or activation of the ice detection indicator lights.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-179
A. True
B. False, you only have to avoid X band TF
C. False, you only have to avoid Ku band TF
D. False, there are no restrictions on TF in icing conditions as long as you have a fully functioning nose radome anti-icing system

C. False, you only have to avoid Ku band TF

206

During TF operations using the backup Ku-band radar, the maximum turning capability is ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-178
A. 0.5 degrees / second
B. provided for turn rates up to 2.77 degrees / second
C. limited to 10 degrees of bank or less
D. not effective

A. 0.5 degrees / second

207

WARNING - The airplane has less lift capability with gear down. The airplane may not be able to sustain the ______ commanded in the TF mode if the landing gear is ______ following a GEAR INPUT FAIL.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-179
A. climb angles, extended
B. turn rates, extended
C. climb angle, retracted
D. turn rates, retracted

A. climb angles, extended

208

Any condition which causes the master door open light to illuminate will cause the mission computer to automatically calculate a reduced airplane climb limit capability by taking into account the drag associated with the ramp and door being open (______).
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-179
A. about 0.25 deg climb limit capability
B. about 0.95 deg climb limit capability
C. about 1 deg climb limit capability
D. about 1.5 deg climb limit capability

C. about 1 deg climb limit capability

209

WARNING - TF Mode effectiveness is radically reduced during moderate to severe weather and over areas of reduced reflectance (sand, snow, towers).
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-180
A. True
B. False

A. True

210

The low altitude warning is designed to alert the crew when the aircraft descends below ______ of the RS-TF set clearance plane or RALT-TF clearance altitude according to the lower-reading radar altimeter.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-184
A. 65%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 81%

C. 80%

211

During an obstacle warning ______, are active until the aircraft is again above 80% of the SCP.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-184
A. LOW ALT and TF WARN annunciators
B. whooping audio warning (except by the EWO)
C. cue will command a full fly-up
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

212

All TF INPUT NV situations are accompanied by a ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-185
A. TF WARN alert
B. beeping audio warning
C. full fly up
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

213

TURN APPR is activated by which of the following conditions?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-185
A. Turn rate exceeds 2.42 deg/sec (X-band TF) and 0.5 deg/sec (Ku-band TF)
B. less than 13 seconds until a part of the corridor lies outside of the measured region
C. Rapid roll rates
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

214

TURN EXCD is activated by which of the following conditions?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-185
A. Turn rate exceeds 4 deg/sec (X-band TF) and 0.5 deg/sec (Ku-band TF)
B. less than 10seconds until a part of the corridor lies outside of the measured region
C. roll rates which produce a TURN APPR for greater then 2 seconds
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

215

WARNING - The TF system will not compensate for the increased drag associated with a windmilling propeller.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-186
A. True
B. False

A. True

216

WARNING - Do not attempt Ku-TF with a suspected Ku pointing error.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-186
A. True
B. False

A. True

217

WARNING - Do not use leading edge or engine inlet air duct anti-icing during three-engine TF operations.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-186
A. True
B. False

A. True

218

WARNING - A RAD HAZARD alert indicates a failure in the ______ switch logic and that the radar may be radiating on the ground even though the WOW OVERRIDE switch is at NORMAL.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-197
A. radar power
B. WOW
C. Power Panel #1
D. Power Panel #2

B. WOW

219

Normal operating pressure for the APQ-170 waveguide system is ______ psia.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-198
A. 15.5
B. 17-19
C. 18-22
D. 19

C. 18-22

220

Normal pressure for the ALQ-172 is ______ psia.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-198
A. 15.5
B. 17
C. 18-22
D. 19

D. 19

221

WARNING - The HARP function will change the ______ and could cause an off DZ drop.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-293
A. leg type
B. drop altitude
C. GPS time hack
D. PI NRP coordinates
E. none of the above

D. PI NRP coordinates

222

WARNING - Upon selecting ______, TF commands are no longer provided and the airplane may descend below TF Set Clearance Plane (SCP).
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-351
A. a terminal leg
B. TERM CNST
C. RALT OVRD
D. Back Up

B. TERM CNST

223

SDC failure does not affect the IBU operation.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-353
A. True
B. False

A. True

224

CAUTION - Airdrops in ______ are not recommended because of the possibility of exceeding structural limits.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 5-29
A. high crosswinds
B. light turbulence
C. moderate turbulence
D. severe turbulence

D. severe turbulence

225

NOTE - Frequent running of the compressor with the radar pressure switch in NORMAL ON while on the ground, may indicate leaky waveguides. To verify, set the radar pressure switch to OFF. System pressure drop should not exceed ______ in ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-6
A. 1 psia, 60 seconds
B. 1 psia, 10 minutes
C. 2.5 psia, 10 minutes
D. 3.5 psia, 10 seconds

C. 2.5 psia, 10 minutes

226

WARNING - Ensure FLARE/CHAFF WOW switch is in NORMAL prior to applying power to the airplane. Failure to do so could result in inadvertent firing of flares and/or chaff.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-19
A. True
B. False

A. True

227

WARNING - Ensure that aircraft power to AN/AAQ-24 is set to OFF prior to performing a visual check of the LRU's.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-19
A. True
B. False

A. True

228

NOTE - The ALE-47 Jettison mode when engaged overrides ______ except when external safety systems (e.g. WOW switch, Arming Panel, or circuit breakers) are applied. Once initiated, jettison switch ______ be stopped.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-20
A. power on modes, cannot
B. power on modes, can
C. OFF mode, cannot
D. OFF mode, can

C. OFF mode, cannot

229

WARNING - Avoid area directly in front of or under chaff and flare dispensers.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-20.1
A. True
B. False

A. True

230

When visually checking the AAR-44B sensor, check that the window is clean, brake engaged with window facing aft +/- ______ degrees, and desiccant is blue in the 40% region.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-21
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90

B. 45

231

WARNING - Ensure personnel remain at ___ least feet from AAQ-24 transmitter during operation.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-26
a. 100
b. 300
c. 171
d. 201

C. 171

232

NOTE - ______ must be powered up and ______ must be aligned prior to AN/AAQ-24 system turn-on or NO COMM failure may result.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-26
A. AAR-44B, INS
B. ALE-47, GPS
C. EWO VDT, DIRCM Turrets
D. Flight Engineer, Navigator

A. AAR-44B, INS

233

NOTE - CIU will display ______ once cool down is complete. Cool down for the AAQ-24 may take up to 15 minutes. Nominal cool down is _______ to ______minutes.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-26
A. READY, 3, 7
B. STBY V, 5, 10
C. READY, 5, 10
D. STBY V, 3, 7

B. STBY V, 5, 10

234

WARNING - Ensure personnel remain at least 20 feet from ALQ-172 TX antennas during BIT or ground transmissions.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-28
A. True
B. False

A. True

235

CAUTION - Damage may occur to the AAR-44B sensor window if not stowed during ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-28
A. taxi
B. takeoff
C. landing roll
D. all the above

D. all the above

236

WARNING - The possibility of inadvertent discharge of cartridges exists if ALE-47 arming panel switches are not in the SAFE position.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-29
A. True
B. False

A. True

237

Before leaving the aircraft EWOs will ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-30.1
A. complete form 781 entries
B. inspect AAR-44B stowed aft
C. check for misfired expendables
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

238

WARNING - ALQ-172 will be deactivated upon touch down if WOW switch is not lifted. Warm-up time may delay takeoff or require a takeoff without the ALQ-172 in operate.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 8-30.4
A. True
B. False

A. True

239

NOTE - Each AAQ-24 Aircraft Characterization Module (ACM) must match aircraft tail number or incorrect operation for platform will result.
Ref: DIRCM Handbook
A. True
B. False

A. True

240

Which of the following are not components of the LAIRCM system?

A. IRMWS sensors
B. Guardian Laser Transmitter Assemblies
C. AAR-44B sensor
D. AC Power Supply

C. AAR-44B sensor

241

A SYSTEM FAIL indication on the AAQ-24 indicates ______.
Ref: DIRCM Handbook
A. CIU successfully run power-on BIT
B. no CIU to 1553 bus communications
C. signal processor failed to initialize at power up
D. CIU failed PBIT

B. no CIU to 1553 bus communications

242

INS INVLD displayed on the AAQ-24 CIU indicates ______.
A. CIU failed to establish, or lost, 1553B bus communication
B. the Co-pilot missed the crew bus
C. 1553B bus communication to the AAR-44B has failed
D. loss of aircraft INS data for the EGI

D. loss of aircraft INS data for the EGI

243

______ on the AAQ-24 CIU indicates 1553B bus communication to the AAR-44B has failed.
Ref: DIRCM Handbook
A. NO IR COMM
B. NO INS COMM
C. Both A and B
D. NO CARD

A. NO IR COMM

244

(ALR-69). If PRIORITY mode is selected, only the top ______ threat display priorities enter the display file.
Ref: ALR-69 Handbook
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 16

B. 5

245

(ALR-69) In OPEN mode, up to ______ emitters are displayed.
Ref: ALR-69 Handbook
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 16

D. 16

246

(ALR-69) The FSRS components require a ______ minute warm-up before providing video inputs to the signal processor.
Ref: ALR-69 Handbook
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

B. 2

247

(ALR-69) The extended BIT self-test provides a more descriptive response and is interruptive of normal warning function. It can take up to ______ minutes to complete the 13 screens.
Ref: ALR-69 Handbook
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

B. 2

248

(ALR-69) If the FSRS system test fails, the system will initiate another test to confirm the failure. If three failures occur, the symbol F is displayed in the center of the Azimuth Indicator.

A. True
B. False

B. False

249

(ALR-69) The FSRS is automatically tested approximately every _____ while the ALR-69 is operating, except during reception times of a _____ or a declared missile activity (MA) and/or a missile launch emitter.
Ref: ALR-69 Handbook Pg: 24
A. 5 minutes, PD
B. 15 minutes, CW
C. 8 minutes, PD
D. 10 minutes, CW

D. 10 minutes, CW

250

(ALR-69) NOTE - During the maintenance level self-test, measured data screens may be held by a short depression of the ______ switch and released to next screen in the series by pressing the ______ switch.
Ref: ALR-69 Handbook
A. HANDOFF / HANDOFF
B. HANDOFF / SEARCH
C. SEARCH / SEARCH
D. SEARCH / HANDOFF

C. SEARCH / SEARCH

251

(ALR-69). When detected, the (U) on the UNKNOWN switch indicator cycles on and off at a 10 Hz rate to alert the operator. Pressing the UNKNOWN switch will display ______ on the azimuth indicator in a relative position and range from the airplane.
Ref: ALR-69 Handbook
A. a flashing circle
B. a (U)
C. a band coded symbol (U)
D. a dashed diamond

C. a band coded symbol (U)

252

NOTE - Search (S) emitters have a very low priority; therefore, it is possible, particularly in the ______ mode of the ALR-69, that no (S) symbols will appear even though they exist in the environment and are illuminating the airplane.
Ref: ALR-69 Handbook
A. NORMAL
B. SEARCH
C. LONG SCAN
D. PRIORITY

D. PRIORITY

253

(ALQ-172) NOTE - Since (a forced autonomous self-test using the PR STANDBY/OPERATE switches) may result in an inadvertent transmission of real ECM for approximately the first 250 milliseconds of self-test if a signal is present, it is suggested that autonomous self-test should be performed using the PD STBY/OPER switch.
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. True
B. False

A. True

254

(ALQ-172) NOTE - Ignore self-test failures indicated at turn-on. As a minimum, allow system to time in to STBY (approximately 180 seconds). Allow approximately ten minutes at high altitude or cold temperature before declaring a fault valid.
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. True
B. False

A. True

255

NOTE - If an ALQ-172 fault is detected during the self-test, the appropriate TEST STATUS indicator illuminates for approximately 10 seconds at the end of test (indicating a ______ failure) or illuminates continuously at the end of test (indicating a ______ failure).
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. soft, hard
B. hard, soft
C. overvoltage, under voltage
D. TWT failure, power supply failure

A. soft, hard

256

If the HOT indicator lights white on ALQ-172 LRU-5, the temperature is over 203 degrees F (95 degrees C) in one or more of the subsystem LRUs. If in a tactical situation where the total set is needed, press the HOT/OVRD switch. NOTE - The system only operates for ______ seconds until HOT shutdown reoccurs.
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120

B. 60

257

(ALQ-172) CAUTION - Forcing the system into the operate status with an over-temperature indication may damage the system. Normally, this procedure will be confined to ______.
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. emergency situations
B. checkrides only
C. ECM ranges
D. only when no one is looking

A. emergency situations

258

(AAR-44B) During initial cool-down the CRYO indicator will illuminate steady. Then, if cooling is not achieved after ______ minutes, it will blink. The CRYO indicator will extinguish when the IR detector is properly cooled. After initial cool-down, if cooling is lost, the CRYO indicator will illuminate ______.
Ref: AN/AAR-44 Handbook
A. ten, and blink
B. ten, steadily
C. seven, and blink
D. seven, steadily

B. ten, steadily

259

(AAR-44B) A blinking ______ indicator indicates that the system is in Special Test Mode and normal missile declaration criteria are ______.
Ref: AN/AAR-44 Handbook
A. STBY, unaffected
B. STBY, disabled
C. BIT, unaffected
D. BIT, disabled

D. BIT, disabled

260

(AAR-44B) NOTE - When a blinking legend has been changed to a steady illumination, it will return to a blinking legend in the following instances:
Ref: AN/AAR-44 Handbook
A. If commanded BIT is initiated and a failure is still present
B. If continuous BIT detects another or different critical failure within the same unit
C. If the same detected failure disappears and then returns
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

261

The complete FOV for the AAR-44B is covered with ______ azimuth rotation.
Ref: AN/AAR-44 Handbook
A. each
B. every other
C. 4
D. 16

A. each

262

(AAR-44B) The elevation scanning is produced by a continuously rotating ______. The azimuth scan is produced by continuous rotation of the ______.
Ref: AN/AAR-44 Handbook
A. SU, six-sided mirror
B. SU, eight-sided mirror
C. six-sided mirror, SU
D. eight-sided mirror, SU

C. six-sided mirror, SU

263

If radar altimeter, roll, pitch or heading data is not made available to the AAR-44B, it will operate in a ______ which lead to degraded ______ performance.
Ref: AN/AAR-44 Handbook
A. degraded mode, false alarm
B. stand-alone mode, false alarm
C. degraded mode, communication
D. stand-alone mode, false alarm

A. degraded mode, false alarm

264

The AAR-44B will send ______, and system health message(s) to the aircraft via the navigation bus.
Ref: AN/AAR-44 Handbook
A. threat reports
B. missile warning audio
C. dispense commands
D. all the above

D. all the above

265

The AAR-44B processor uses ______ from the aircraft's navigation bus.
Ref: AN/AAR-44 Handbook
A. attitude (pitch, roll, and heading)
B. ground speed and ground track
C. radar altimeter
D. all the above

D. all the above

266

(AAR-44B) Once the processor determines that an object it is tracking is a threat, it will send a threat message to the aircraft and DIRCM via the MIL-STD-1553B data busses, produce a left or right side CMDS pulse for the flare dispenser (depending on which side of the aircraft the threat is detected), and produce an audio tone for the crew.
Ref: AN/AAR-44 Handbook
A. True
B. False

A. True

267

(AAR-44B) CAUTION - A ______ increases the probability of damage to the SU window during landing.
Ref: AN/AAR-44 Handbook
A. loss of cooling
B. sensor discrimination electronics failures
C. azimuth motor failure condition
D. loss of RAM BITs

C. azimuth motor failure condition

268

(ALE-47) During initialization, the version of current Programmer ______ are displayed. When ______ is complete, a green "GO" or a yellow "NO GO" message appears in the CDU status line.
Ref: AN/ALE-47 Handbook
A. OFP, initialization
B. MDF, initialization
C. OFP and MDF, BIT test
D. OFP and MDF, initialization

D. OFP and MDF, initialization

269

WARNING - If the ALE-47 WOW override switch is placed in the OVERRIDE position in flight, the aircrew MUST return the switch to the NORMAL position prior to landing to prevent inadvertent dispensing of expendables on the ground.
Ref: AN/ALE-47 Handbook
A. True
B. False

A. True

270

(ALE-47) WARNING - When jettison is selected, all expendables programmed for jettison will be dispensed within 10 seconds. Jettison will function with the system power switch in the OFF position. Once jettison is initiated, it cannot be stopped.
Ref: AN/ALE-47 Handbook
A. True
B. False

A. True

271

A "PROG FAIL GO BYPASS" on the ALE-47 CDU message display can be caused by:
Ref: AN/ALE-47 Handbook
A. loss of communication with programmer
B. loss of WOW logic
C. loss of sequencer data link
D. both A and B

D. both A and B

272

(ALE-47) Upon power-up, the programmer sends ______ dispense program data to the sequencer that stores these programs in memory. In the event of programmer failure, the crew can operate the CMDS in BYP and operate JETT directly from the ______.
Ref: AN/ALE-47 Handbook
A. JETT, CDU
B. BYP, CDU
C. BYP and JETT, CDU
D. BYP and JETT, programmer

C. BYP and JETT, CDU

273

The EWIR process is made up of four different steps. These steps are:
Ref: AFI 10-703 Para: 1.3
A. determine issue; identify solutions; program change; release solution
B. detect change; determine impact; reprogram; field change
C. identify issue; determine solutions; submit changes; release solution
D. None of the above

B. detect change; determine impact; reprogram; field change

274

This process is referred to by the unclassified code name PACER WARE.
Ref: AFI 10-703 Para: 1.3
A. Electronic Combat Support Flight Programming
B. Missile and Space Intelligence Center Gathering
C. Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming
D. National Air and Space Intelligence Center Gathering

C. Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming

275

PACER WARE includes mission data (MD) changes, operational flight program (OFP) changes, and all major hardware changes that comply with the guidance in AFI 63-131 concerning modifications.
Ref: AFI 10-703 Para: 1.3
A. True
B. False

B. False

276

(EWIR) In response to a threat change, AFSOC Electronic Combat Support Flight (ECSF), as an operational reprogramming center (RC), investigates potential EW system solutions, then coordinates with HQ AFSOC/A3TW, AFSOC EWO, or designated representative on possible courses of action.
Ref: AFI 10-703 Para: 1.3.2.2.
A. True
B. False

A. True

277

If a mission computer's PRES STAT W11, bit 4 = 1, the mission computer battery is degraded and may not maintain memory when the mission computer is powered off.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-72.1
A. True
B. False

A. True

278

When the MMR is operated in the Terrain following (TF) mode, and intermittent X or Ku antenna pointing fail (X-R/T or Ku-R/T, word 2 bits 4 or 5) are observed, it is recommended that ______.

A. A short power cycle be conducted
B. TF operations be discontinued
C. The backup INS be selected
D. All of the above

C. The backup INS be selected

279

In the event of a suspected X-band antenna drive band failure, indicated by smearing of the TA video and X-RT status word 2, Bit 5, flight crews are advised to:

A. deselect all X-band modes by selecting M-Ku on radar control layer 2
B. deselect all Ku-band modes by selecting M-Ku on radar control layer 2
C. immediately place the radar power switch to OFF
D. accomplish a short power cycle

A. deselect all X-band modes by selecting M-Ku on radar control layer 2

280

The order of preference for bailout exits are ______, ______, and ______. Ref:

A. cargo door and ramp, paratroop doors, forward crew door
B. forward crew door, paratroop doors, cargo door and ramp
C. paratroop doors, cargo door and ramp, forward crew door
D. cargo door and ramp, forward crew door, paratroop doors

A. cargo door and ramp, paratroop doors, forward crew door

281

WARNING - Do not attempt to ______ prior to bailing out as it may be damaged in egress from the airplane as well as hinder the wearer in their exit.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-65
A. wear a survival vest
B. don a parachute
C. inflate the life jacket
D. wear a helmet

C. inflate the life jacket

282

WARNING - Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended at airspeeds above ______ knots, with the ______, or without a helmet.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 3-65
A. 120, side escape hatch open
B. 150, landing gear extended
C. 175, landing gear extended
D. 230, air deflector doors closed

B. 150, landing gear extended

283

NOTE - DTS: if the ambient temperature goes below +46.4 F the disc drive heater will come on and stay on until the drive temperature exceeds +46.4 F. The READY light will blink until the temperature exceeds +46.4 F. ______ with any loading procedures after the READY light ______.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-14
A. Discontinue, stops blinking
B. Discontinue, starts blinking
C. Continue, stops blinking
D. Continue, starts blinking

C. Continue, stops blinking

284

There are ______ signal data converters (SDCs) in the airplane. Each SDC provides a path to allow ______ data bus compatible equipment to communicate with the mission computers.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-15
A. 5, 1553B
B. 6, non1553B
C. 6, 1553B
D. 5, non1553B

B. 6, non1553B

285

SDCs ______ are not interchangeable with each other or with any other SDC.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-15
A. SDCs 1 and 2
B. SDCs 3 and 4
C. SDCs 5 and 6
D. None of the above

B. SDCs 3 and 4

286

______ provide the interface between the keyboards, VDT keys, and mission computers.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-17
A. SDCs
B. CDCs
C. SPCs
D. DTSs

B. CDCs

287

WARNING - Do not use the ______ display as a source of flight cues.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-26
A. E2
B. GM
C. PGM
D. IDS

A. E2

288

_______ audio has ______ audio available if the AMU fails and/or the EWO deselects the five select/volume switches.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-57
A. proportional, degraded
B. diamond, limited
C. composite, new guy
D. EGI, full

B. diamond, limited

289

For backup operation when the CSU has failed or when operating on the battery, the pilot can switch to backup using the ______ switch on the center console.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-65
A. MAYDAY
B. BACKUP COMM
C. OVERRIDE
D. BATTERY RESET

B. BACKUP COMM

290

Low pressure for the ALQ-172 is ______ psia.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-198
A. 15.5
B. 17
C. 18-22
D. 19

A. 15.5

291

Fail pressure for the APQ-170 is ______ psia.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-198
A. 15
B. 15.5
C. 17
D. 19

A. 15

292

Which of the following are low-pressure fail indications, which are displayed as systems alerts on the VDT:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-199
A. LOW PRESSURE KU (appears at 17 psia)
B. LOW PRESSURE X (appears at 17 psia)
C. LOW PRESSURE ALQ-172 (appears at 15 psia)
D. a and b only
E. a, b, and c

D. a and b only

293

If radar waveguide system pressurization drops below ______ psia, the pressure has reached a sufficiently low level to result in arcing of the magnetrons, and the radar will place the respective equipment in ______ to keep it from further damaging itself.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-199
A. 15, Standby Mode
B. 15, Off
C. 17, Standby Mode
D. 19, Off

A. 15, Standby Mode

294

WARNING - Careful evaluation of RALT selection is mandatory since selection of the wrong RALT will cause an invalid radar altitude to be sent to the radar set for terrain following use.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)H-1 Pg: 4-273
A. True
B. False

A. True

295

A bad FSRS indication, on the ALR-69, indicates an error in communication between ______.
Ref: ALR-69 Handbook
A. FSRS
B. receiver controller
C. signal processor
D. all the above

D. all the above

296

(ALQ-172) A FAIL light with the STBY/OPER light out indicates ______.
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. High voltage power circuit failure in LRU 2 and/or 4
B. High voltage power circuit failure in LRU 1 and/or 10
C. Low voltage power circuit failure in LRU 2 and/or 4
D. Low voltage power circuit failure in LRU 1 and/or 10

A. High voltage power circuit failure in LRU 2 and/or 4

297

(ALQ-172) A HOT light illuminated with the STBY/OPER light in standby indicates ______.
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. a LRU overtemp overheat in LRU 2 and/or 4
B. a LRU overtemp overheat in LRU 2 and/or 4
C. a traveling wave tube (TWT) overheat in LRU 2 and/or 4
D. a traveling wave tube (TWT) overheat in LRU 1 and/or 10

C. a traveling wave tube (TWT) overheat in LRU 2 and/or 4

298

(ALQ-172) The forward and aft subsystem EACH contain ______ receiver and ______ transmit/receive antennas.
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. 1, 6
B. 2, 7
C. 2, 12
D. 6, 14

A. 1, 6

299

The FAIL indicator on ALQ-172 LRU 5 will light when ______.
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. LRU 10 and/or the microwave amplifier has failed for either the forward or aft subset
B. the temperature in any LRU is below 40 degrees C
C. a malfunction is detected in the PR transmitter or PD transmitter high voltage power circuits
D. the associated unit has failed autonomous or operator initiated self-test

C. a malfunction is detected in the PR transmitter or PD transmitter high voltage power circuits

300

A Test Status Indicator Lamp on ALQ-172 LRU 5 that lights and goes off after self-test has been completed indicates ______.
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. a soft failure
B. a hard failure
C. a successful BIT
D. a potentially critical failure

A. a soft failure

301

The ALQ-172 JAM lights on LRU 6 light green when ______.
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. that particular quadrant is transmitting
B. the subsystem transmitter is transmitting
C. the subsystem has accurate DF of the signal
D. PR transmitters are transmitting

B. the subsystem transmitter is transmitting

302

The PD lamp (top center) on ALQ-172 LRU 6 lights red when a ______ threat is identified by the forward PD Transmitter and no _____ threat is detected.
Ref: ALQ-172 Handbook
A. PD, PR
B. CW, PR
C. PD, CW
D. CW, PD

C. PD, CW

303

Do not depart____ unless the weather conditions at the destination, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival (ETA), is forecast to be at or above the lowest compatible published approach minimums.
A. IFR
B. VFR
C. Special VFR
D. Talon VFR

A. IFR

304

Airports do not qualify as alternates if:
AFMAN 11-202 V3 Para: 4.16.5.
A. All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID
B. Airfield does not report weather observations
C. “Treble A” NA (Alternate Not Authorized) is displayed on all compatible approaches
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

305

NOTE - Bailout of the crew entrance door from a _____ at the rear.
A. tumbling forward standing position
B. feet first position
C. spread position
D. squatting position

D. squatting position

306

WARNING - Prior to crash landing, ditching the airplane, or in the event of a fire in the vicinity of the flare ejector case, the pilot shall, time and conditions permitting, direct jettison of remaining _ aboard the airplane.
A. chaff
B. Rangers
C. classified
D. flares

D. flares