ms2 Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

A nurse is assessing a patient who has been diagnosed with acromegaly. Which of the following is a common physical manifestation of this condition?
A) Diminished facial hair and a small jaw
B) Enlarged hands, feet, and facial features
C) Decreased height and a rounded face
D) Decreased bone density and joint pain

A

b

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2
Q

A 60-year-old female patient with internal hemorrhoids reports feeling a lump in the anal area after having a bowel movement. She is experiencing mild pain and itching. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A) Recommend immediate surgery to remove the hemorrhoids.
8) Instruct the patient to apply a warm sitz bath to the affected area.
C) Advise the patient to avoid all physical activity to prevent worsening of the condition.
D) Suggest using a topical corticosteroid cream to reduce inflammation.

A

b

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3
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with
pheochromocytoma. The nurse should prioritize which of the following actions?
A. Administering antihypertensive medications as prescribed
B. Encouraging high-protein, low-carbohydrate meals
C. Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly
D. Promoting bed rest for the client to reduce stress

A

a

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4
Q

patient with Cushing’s syndrome is being prepared for discharge after treatment with corticosteroids. The nurse should include which of the following instructions in the discharge teaching?
A) “You should avoid using sunscreen due to increased sensitivity to sunlight.”
B) “You will need to gradually decrease your medication dosage to avoid adrenal crisis.”
C) “You should increase your salt intake to prevent fluid retention.”
D) “You may need to monitor your blood glucose levels more closely, as steroids can increase blood sugar.

A

d

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5
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient with ulcerative colitis who is in remission. The nurse should emphasize which of the following points to prevent relapse of the disease?
    A) “Follow a low-fat diet to reduce the risk of flare-ups.”
    B) “Avoid alcohol and caffeine, as they can trigger symptoms.
    C) “You should take high doses of corticosteroids during times of stress.”
    D) “Exercise regularly to maintain bowel health.”
A

b

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6
Q

55-year-old male patient with a history of smoking and excessive alcohol consumption presents with epigastric pain and bloating. He reports that the pain improves after eating but returns several hours later: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute pancreatitis
8) Gastric ulcen
C) Duodenal ulcer
D) Gallstones

A

c

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7
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with hypothyroidism who is being treated with levothyroxine. The patient reports feeling fatigued and cold despite taking the medication. The nurse should first assess for which of the following?
A) Signs of hyperthyroidism
B) Adherence to the prescribed medication regimen
C) Excessive intake of iodine-rich foods
D) Symptoms of an acute thyroid crisis (thyroid storm)

A

b

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8
Q

nurse is caring for a client who has developed a disorder of the hypothalamus. The nurse should expect to monitor the client for which of the following complications?
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Addison’s disease
D. Hyperparathyroidism

A

a

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9
Q

A patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being discharged with a prescription for metformin.
The nurse should teach the patient to monitor for which of the following side effects of metformin?
A) Weight gain
B) Gastrointestinal disturbances
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hair loss

A

b

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10
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Low phosphorus levels
D. Elevated thyroxine levels

A

b

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11
Q

After providing education to a patient with GERD, you ask the patient to list four things they can do to prevent or alleviate signs and symptoms of GERD. Which statement is INCORRECT?
A. “It is best to try to consume small meals throughout the day than eat 3 large ones.”
B. “I’m disappointed that I will have to limit my intake of peppermint and spearmint because I love eating those types of hard candies.”
C. “It is important I avoid eating right before bedtime.”
D. “I will try to lie down after eating a meal to help decrease pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter.”

A

d

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12
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with
pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla.
Which of the following symptoms is most likely to be observed in this patient?
A) Severe hypotension
B) Severe headaches and tachycardia
C) Weight loss and hyperglycemia
D) Cold intolerance and bradycardia

A

b

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13
Q

patient is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should anticipate which of the following as the initial treatment?
A) Administer a dose of insulin intravenously.
B) Start an oral glucose solution to increase blood glucose levels.
C) Administer sodium bicarbonate to correct metabolic acidosis.
D) Provide oral fluids with electrolytes to rehydrate.

A

a

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14
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with acute gastritis.
Which of the following is the most important nursing action?
a) Encourage the patient to consume a high-fat diet
b) Administer prescribed antacids or proton pump inhibitors
c) Provide frequent small meals
d) Restrict fluid intake to prevent gastric distention

A

b

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15
Q

A 28-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease presents with severe abdominal pain, diarrhea, and a fever.
Her laboratory results show an elevated white blood cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP). Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Assess for signs of dehydration.
B) Administer an anti-inflammatory medication as prescribed.
C) Perform a fecal occult blood test.
D) Offer the patient a clear liquid diet.

A

a

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16
Q

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following gastrectomy. Which measure will the nurse instruct the client to follow to assist in preventing dumping syndrome?
A.Eat high carbohydrate foods
B. Limit the fluids taken with meals
C.Ambulate following a meal
D.Sit in a high-Fowler’s position during meals

A

b

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17
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer radioactive iodine
(RAI) therapy to a patient with Graves’ disease. Which of the following is a priority nursing consideration?
A. Ensuring the patient has a negative pregnancy test
B. Monitoring for signs of hypothyroidism post-treatment
C. Instructing the patient to avoid contact with family members for 24 hours
D. Administering a corticosteroid before treatment

A

b

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18
Q

client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this procedure. The nurse tells the client that the procedure
A.Decreases food absorption in the stomach
B. Heals the gastric mucosa
C.Halts stress reactions
D.Reduces the stimulus to acid secretions

A

d

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19
Q

A patient with hyperparathyroidism is scheduled for a parathyroidectomy. The nurse should educate the patient on which of the following potential post-operative complications?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperkalemia

A

a

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20
Q

A client with diabetes insipidus is prescribed desmopressin. Which of the following would be the most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Blood glucose levels
B. Urine output
C. Serum sodium levels
D. Blood pressure

A

c

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21
Q

A patient with ulcerative colitis is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine. Which of the following instructions is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?
A) “Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.”
B) “You may stop the medication when you feel better.”
C) “Drink plenty offluids to prevent dehydration.”
D)
“Expect your stool to appear dark in color.”

A

d

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22
Q

nurse is educating a patient about pituitary hormone replacement therapy following pituitary surgery. The nurse should include which of the following in the teaching plan?
A. Hormone replacement therapy may be lifelong if there is permanent pituitary dysfunction.
B. Hormone therapy should be stopped as soon as symptoms improve.
C. Only one hormone will need to be replaced.
D. Hormone replacement therapy is only necessary

A

a

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23
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with a
paraesophageal (rolling) hiatal hernia. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse monitor for that would indicate a possible complication?
a) Mild heartburn after eating
b) Sudden chest pain and difficulty swallowing
c) Flatulence and bloating after meals
d) Weight gain and increased appetite

A

b

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24
Q

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is being treated with antibiotics for Helicobacter pylori infection.
Which of the following is the most important aspect of nursing care for this patient?
A) Encourage compliance with the prescribed antibiotic regimen.
B) Advise the patient to avoid spicy foods while on antibiotics.
C) Recommend stopping the antibiotics as soon as symptoms improve.
D) Monitor the patient for signs of constipation.

A

a

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25
A nurse is caring for a client with hypothyroidism. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to assess? A. Blood pressure B. Respiratory rate C. Temperature D. Heart rate
c
26
The nurse is caring for a cleint following a Billroth !! procedure. On review of the postoperative orders, which of the following if prescribed, would the nurse question and verify? A.Irrigating the nasogastric tube B.Coughing and deep breathing exercises C.Leg exercises D. Early ambulation
a
27
A nurse is caring for a patient with achalasia who has recently undergone botulinum toxin injection to treat the condition. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for as a potential complication? a) Difficulty breathing b) Increased appetite c) Excessive salivation d) Muscle weakness
a
28
A patient with Crohn's disease is scheduled for bowel surgery due to complications. The nurse is discussing postoperative care. Which of the following should be included in the teaching? A) "You will need to avoid high-fiber foods for several weeks after surgery." B) "You will be able to return to your normal diet within 24 hours after surgery." C) "You will need to drink fluids with every meal to promote digestion." D) "You may experience some increased abdominal pain after surgery, which is normal."
a
29
When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis? a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture. b. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix. c. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client. d. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage.
b
30
A nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate? A. Tachycardia B. Hyperkalemia C. Weight gain D. High blood pressure
b
31
36. A nurse is educating a patient who is undergoing treatment for Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following would the nurse include as a common cause of this condition? A. Overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Excessive secretion of growth hormone (GH) C. Overproduction of cortisol due to a pituitary tumor D. Underproduction of thyroid hormone (T3/T4)
c
32
39.A nurse is caring for a patient with myxedema coma, a severe form of hypothyroidism. Which of the following interventions is most critical for the nurse to implement immediately? A. Administering an antithyroid medication B. Administering high-dose corticosteroids C. Providing warm blankets and increasing environmental temperature D. Initiating a high-calorie intravenous infusion
c
33
A 40-year-old male patient with ulcerative colitis is admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation. His vital signs include a temperature of 101.5°F (38.6°C), a pulse rate of 110 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg. The nurse should be most concerned about which of the following complications? A) Bowel perforation B) Fistula formation C) Rectal bleeding D) Nutritional deficiency
a
34
nurse is assessing a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following should the nurse recommend to reduce symptoms? a) Elevate the head of the bed during sleep b) Eat large meals to prevent hunger c) Avoid consuming antacids d) Lie down immediately after eating
a
35
9. A 60-year-old male is admitted with a gastric ulcer and is placed on a regimen of proton pump inhibitors (PP/s). Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates the need for further teaching regarding PPI therapy? A) "I should take the PPI 30 minutes before meals." B) "I can stop the medication once my symptoms go away? C) "I need to avoid taking the PPI with antacids." D) "I should notify my doctor if l experience any new side effects."
b
36
23. A nurse is caring for a patient with hyperthyroidism who is receiving propytthiouracil (PTU). The patient reports sore throat and fever. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next? A) Administer the next dose of PTU as prescribed. B) Instruct the patient to increase fluid intake. C) Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. D) Tell the patient to rest and monitor for additional symptoms.
c
37
The client has deficiency of all of the following pituitary hormones. Which one should be addressed first? A. Growth hormone C. thyroid-stimulating hormone B. Luteinizing hormone D. follicle-stimulating hormone
c
38
1. A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease who is prescribed an antacid. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize? a) Administer the antacid 30 minutes before meals b) Monitonfor signs of respiratory depression c) Instruct the patient to take the antacid after meals d) Encourage the patient to increase dietary fiben
c
39
A nurse asks a patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance and turn their head side to side. Which cranial nerve is being assessed? A. Cranial Nerve X B. Cranial Nerve XI C. Cranial Nerve VII D. Cranial Nerve V
B
40
2. A patient presents with lass of hearing and imbalance. Which cranial nerve is likely impaired? A. Cranial Nerve V B. Cranial Nerve VII C. Cranial Nerve VIII D. Cranial Nerve IX
C
41
3. During an assessment, the nurse notes that the uvula deviates to the right when the patient says "ah." Which cranial nerve is most likely damaged? A. Cranial Nerve VII B. Cranial Nerve IX C. Cranial Nerve X D. Cranial Nerve
C
42
4. The nurse asks a patient to follow a finger with their eyes in all directions. Which three cranial nerves are primarily tested? A-CN I, N, VI B. CN III, IV, VI C. CN III, V, VII D. CN II, III, V
B
43
5. A nurse assesses the gag reftex by touching the posterior pharynx with a tongue depressar. Absence of the reflex could indicate dysfunction of which cranial nerve(s)? A. Cranial Nerve VII B. Cranial Nerve IX and X C. Cranial Nerve XII D. Cranial Nerve V and
B
44
6. A patient with autonomic dysreflexia is found to have a kinked urinary catheter. What should be your immediate action? A) Replace the catheter. B) Straighten the catheter. C) Increase fluid intake. D) Administer antihypertensive medication.
B
45
7.A patient with altered LOC is at highest immediate risk for which of the following? A. Renal faiture B. Aspiration C. Hypertension D. Hyperthermia
B
46
8. A lumbar puncture is performed an a child suspected of having bacterial meningitis. CSF is abtained for analysis and determines that which of the following results would verify the diagnosis? a.Claudy CSF, decreased protein, and decreased glucase. b.Claudy CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucase. c. Clear CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose. d. Clear CSF, decreased protein, and elevated
B
47
9. The client above post-procedure, should be positioned to which of the following: a.Semi-fowlers b.Flat for 24 hours c.Flat for 6 hours d.Reverse trenderlenburg
c
48
10. The client is scheduled for CAT Scan with contrast to determine the cause of the seizure. Which of the following situation will cause the procedure to be deferred? a. Signed consent form b. Allergy to iodine c. Abnormal creatinine results d. Claustrophobia
c
49
11. The nurse is assigned to care for an 8-year-old child with a diagnosis of a basilar skull fracture. The nurse reviews the pediatrician's prescriptions and should contact the pediatrician to question which prescription? A.Obtain daily weight B. Provide clear liquid intake C.Nasotracheal suction as needed D. Maintain a patent intravenous
c
50
12. The nurse is assessing the motor and sensary function of an unconscious client who sustained a head injury. The nurse should use which technique to test the client's peripheral response to pain? A.Sternal rub B.Nailbed pressure C.Pressure on the orbital rim D. Squeezing of the sternacleidomastaid muscle
b
51
13. A client recovering from a head injury is participating in care. The nurse determines that the client understands measures to prevent elevations in intracranial pressure if the nurse observes the client doing which activity? A.Blowing the nase B.Isometric exercises C.Caughing vigorously D. Exhaling during repositioning
d
52
14. The nurse is caring for a client who had sustained intracerebral hemorrhage and hematoma. As a student nurse, you expect the surgical procedure could be performed to client to evacuate hematama is: A.Surgical clipping B.Craniotamy C.Surgical ligation D.Debridement
b
53
15. When transporting a client with brain injury to the healthcare facility, the nurse should ensure that: A. The patient is transported on a board with the head and neck maintained in alignment with the axis of the bady. B.A cervical collar should not be applied and far as lang as the client did not show absence of cervical Spinal card injury. C.No evident of bload in any part of the brain D.The client is conscious and active
a
54
16. A nurse is assessing a client who was admitted following a head injury sustained in a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following findings shauld be reparted to the provider immediately? A. A Glasgow Coma Scale scare of 14 B. Unequal pupil size C. A mild headache D. Blood pressure of 132/84 mm Hg
b
55
17. The highest cause of traumatic brain injury is A.Falls B.Motor vehicle crashes C.Being struck by abjects D.Assaults
b
56
18. A nurse is admitting a client suspected of bacterial meningitis. What is the priority nursing action? A. Start IV fluids B. Initiate seizure precautions C. Place the client in droplet isolation D. Elevate the head of the
C
57
19. A client with a T6 spinal cord injury suddenly camplains of a pounding headache and nasal congestion. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Check the bladder for distention B. Administer pain medication C. Lower the head of the bed D. Notify the healthcare provider
a
58
20. Upon application of pressure or painful stimuli, the patient seemed to move away from the source of the stimuli. Therefore, given the above change, what is the patient's GCS now? a. GCS 12 (E4 V4 M4) b. GCS 12 (E4 V3 M5) c. GCS 15 (E4 V5 M6) d. GCS 13 (E4 V3 M6)
a
59
21. After another hour, you returned to the patient's bed and observed the following: inappropriate response to questions asked and utter words that don't make sense. In addition, the patient can't obey a motor command. Therefore, when you apply a central stimulus the patient moves to locate and remove the stimulus. What is now the patient's GCS? a. GCS 12 (E3 V4 M5) b. GCS 8 (E2 V4 M2) c. GCS 11 (E3 V3 M5) d. GCS 10 (E3 V3 M4)
c
60
22. Following hour, you observed that the patient's eyes are closed and don't open when spoken to. You then applied a peripheral painful stimulus, and the patient's eyes open. When asked questions the patient groans and moans noises. In addition, the patient can't obey a motor command. Therefore, when you apply a central stimulus the patient flexes to withdraw from the stimulus. What is not the patient's GCS? a. GCS 12 (E3 V4 M5) b. GCS 8 (E2 V4 M2) C. GCS 8 (E2 V2 M4) d. GCS 10 (E3 V3 M4)
c
61
23. You are a nurse assessing a patient's Glasgow Coma Scale at the bedside. Patient had sustained a traumatic brain injury has sustained multiple fractures to the face and eyes. What is the patient's score based on these findings: when you arrive to the patient's bedside the patient is looking around, the patient tells you he is at Rizal Stadium and the year is 1980 (it is 2022) but he stated his correct name, and he successfully opens his mauth and stick aut his tongue as instructed? a.GCS 14 (E4 V4 M6) b. GCS 11 (E3 V3 M5) c. GCS 15 (E4 V5 MG) d.GCS 13 (E4 V3 MG)
a
62
24. You are an emergency roam nurse catering to variaus clients. Most of the admissions today are Neuro cases. The following questions apply to this situation: Which of the following is a common trigger for autanamic dysreftexia? - A) Exposure to cald weather. B) Full bladder or bowel - C) High-fat diet. - D) Excessive exercise.
b
63
25. Which medication is often used to manage severe autonomic dysreflexia? A) Ibuprofen. B) Nifedipine. C) Acetaminophen. D) Metformin.
b
64
26. True or false. Contusion is a temporary loss of neurologic function with no apparent structural damage to the brain. A. True B. False
b
65
27. True or false. Clear rhinorrhea from the nose is a sign of a basilar fracture. A. True B. False
a
66
28. True or false. Never massage the calves or thighs of a patient who is immobile. A. True B. False
a
67
30.A nurse is caring for a client post-lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent complications? A. Encaurage fluid restriction B. Keep the client in a supine position far several haurs C. Monitor the client for fever every 30 minutes D. Ambulate the client immediately
b