Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Finals: Speciality Blocks > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

(100 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

How is a diagnosis of medial meniscus confirmed

A

Hyperintense medial meniscus seen on MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A positive McMurray test suggests what kind of MSK injury

A

Meniscus injury

McMurray tests - manoeuvre of passive external rotation of the patient’s tibia with valgus stress (for medial meniscus) or passive internal rotation of the patient’s tibia with varus stress (for lateral meniscus) while extending the knee. Positive if pain or audible pop/click sound is elicited on performing the manoeuvre.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does meniscal tears present typically

A

Pain and swelling of the knee, and patients may complain of ‘locking’ or ‘buckling’ of the knee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most likely Dx

“dashboard” injury after RTA
Leg internally rotated, slightly flexed and adducted and the patient is not be able to bear weight due to severe pain.

A

Posterior hip dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most likely Dx

Leg is externally rotated leg, slightly flexed and abducted

A

Anterior hip dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A positive Lachman test is suggestive of which MSK injury

A

Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury

Lachman test is the passive forward jerking of the proximal lower leg while the knee is flexed around 45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A positive anterior drawer test indicates the presence of which kind of injury?

A

Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which two examination tests can be performed to test for the presence of an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury?

A
  1. Lachman test
  2. Anterior drawer test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A positive posterior drawer test indicates the presence of which kind of injury?

A

Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pseudogout typically affects which joints?

A

Larger joints such as the knee joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Risk factors for Pseudogout

A

Increasing age
Haemochromatosis
Wilson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chondrocalcinosis is an XR feature of which MSK condition

A

Psuedogout
Chondrocalcinosis refers to calcification of the cartilage of the affected joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lightbulb sign on XR of the shoulder is pathognomonic of which kind of injury?

A

Posterior shoulder dislocation

The lightbulb sign occurs when the head of the humerus is in the same axis as a shaft, producing a shape of a lightbulb on x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In posterior shoulder dislocation, typically the arm is held in which kind of position?

A

Internal rotation and adduction position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the typical presentation of a patient with rotator cuff tear

A

Shoulder pain
Functional weakness
Night pain
Pain is aggravated by overhead activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the definitive management a Bimalleolar fracture

A

Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)

Because it is an unstable fracture that requires strong fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a Bimalleolar fracture

A

Fracture of the lateral and medial malleoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 4 characteristic features of osteoarthritis on an XR

A

Mnemonic LOSS:

Loss of joint space
Osteophytes
Subchondral cysts
Subarticular sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the first-line analgesic therapy for knee osteoarthritis

A

Topical NSAID treatment.

Paracetamol is not routinely offered unlike in other osteoarthritis in which it is first line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the first line pharmacological treatment of Raynaud’s phenomenon

A

Calcium channel blockers usually Nifedipine

They act as vasodilators, improving blood flow to the digits
Can reduce both frequency and severity of attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which blood test is positive in around 90% of ankylosing spondylitis cases

A

Human Leukocyte Antigen B27 (HLA-B27)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Likely Dx

Inflammatory nature of the back pain (worse in the morning, better with exercise, prolonged morning stiffness) in a young male

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 5 key diseases in the group of spondyloarthropathies

A

1) Ankylosing spondylitis
2) Reactive arthritis
3) Enteropathic arthritis
4) Psoriatic arthritis
5) Behcet’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Likely Dx:

Back pain with associated leg or buttock pain, often relieved with flexion e.g. leaning forward to sit, and worsened with extension e.g. climbing stairs

A

Spinal stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
CREST (Calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia). Are features of which rheumatoid condition?
Systemic sclerosis
26
Which antibody is specific for limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
Anti-centromere antibodies
27
Which antibody is specific for diffuse systemic sclerosis
Anti-Scl-70 antibodies
28
What are the three extra-articular features associated with ankylosing spondylitis
Anterior uveitis (most common) Aortitis (which can lead to aortic regurgitation) Apical pulmonary fibrosis
29
X-Ray features of ankylosing spondylitis
Squaring of vertebral bodies Syndesmophytes (bony bridges between adjacent vertebrae) Sacroiliitis Bamboo spine (late stage- complete fusion of the vertebral column)
30
What is the most sensitive investigation for sacroiliitis
MRI
31
What is the first line medication to manage ankylosing spondylitis
NSAIDs + PPI (proton pump inhibitor)
32
What is the investigation of choice to assess the size and location of the uterine fibroids
Trans-vaginal ultrasound
33
What are the 5 Ps for the classic signs of compartment syndrome
Pain Pallor Paresthesia Paralysis Pulseness
34
Headache and unilateral visual loss in those over 55 years old is what condition until proven otherwise
Giant cell arteritis
35
Falls onto his outstretched hand with pain in the anatomical snuffbox is pathognomonic of what condition
Scaphoid fracture
36
What antibodies are associated with anti-phospholipid syndrome
Anti-cardiolipin Anti-beta2-GPI antibodies Lupus anticoagulant assay
37
Damage to what nerve causes a foot drop
Common peroneal nerve
38
Name the classification system used to grade intra-capsular fractures of the femoral neck
Garden classification - rated based on if complete or uncomplete fracture and how displaced it is Grade 1 (best) -> 4 (worst) Grade 1 and 2 fractures are often treated using a dynamic hip screw Grade 3 and 4 fractures are treated using open reduction and internal fixation or a hip arthroplasty
39
Distal radial fracture with volar displacement of the distal bones is pathognomonic of what type of fracture
Smith fracture
40
Distal radial fracture with dorsal displacement of the distal bones is pathognomonic of what type of fracture
Colles fracture
41
Likely Dx: Pain bilateral hips No Hx of falls or trauma Chronic steroid use Tenderness and stiffness of the hips
Avascular necrosis of the femoral heads Strongly associated with chronic steroid use
42
What are the 3 characteristic features of Felty's syndrome
Rheumatoid arthritis Splenomegaly Neutropenia
43
What is the gold standard investigation to confirm giant cell arteritis
Temporal artery biopsy A negative temporal artery biopsy does not exclude GCA due to the presence of skip lesions
44
cANCA is an antibody specific to what condition
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (formerly known as Wegner's granulomatosis) Type of small vessel vasculitis
45
What drug should be co-prescribed with methotrexate
Folic acid
46
pANCA is an antibody specific to what condition
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome)
47
What are the two rheumatological conditions that are ANCA positive
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (formerly known as Wegner's granulomatosis) Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome)
48
Achilles tendonitis is strongly associated with which rheumatoid condition
Ankylosing spondylitis
49
Likely Dx: Malar rash Photosensitivity Mucosal ulcers Alopecia
SLE
50
Before starting biologics, what condition do patients have to be screened for
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
51
Pain during resisted flexion of the wrist and digits is characteristic of which type of epicondylitis
Medial epicondylitis
52
Pain during resisted extension of the wrist and digits is characteristic of which type of epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis
53
What serum enzymes are raised in polymyositis and dermatomyositis
DM and PM turn your muscles into CLAAA (clay) Creatine kinase Lactate Aldolase ALT AST
54
What is the classical triad of Sjogren syndrome
Dry mucosa (especially eye and mouth) Fatigue Joint pain Schirmer's test confirms the extent of the patient's dry eyes
55
What XR finding is characteristic of psoriatic arthropathy
Pencil in cup deformity
56
What is the classical triad of Behcet's disease
Recurrent ulcerations (oral and genital) Uveitis Erythema nodosum
57
De Quervain's tenosynovitis refers to inflammation of which two tendons?
Abductor pollcis longus tendon Extensor pollcis brevis tendon Inflammation at their distal insertion points at the wrist. Patients experience pain at the base of the thumb which is exacerbated on abduction
58
Pain at night and on both active and passive movement of the shoulder are highly suggestive of what condition?
Frozen shoulder
59
What two antibodies are raised in Rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatoid factor Anti-CCP
60
What does Schirmer’s test test for?
Used to test tear production Useful to determine dry eyes, particularly in Sjogren syndrome
61
Rheumatoid arthritis spares which joints in the fingers?
Distal interphalangeal joints (DIP) RADS - RA DIP sparing
62
What tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the ulnar nerve and can present with tingling/numbness of the 4th and 5th finger
Cubital tunnel syndrome
63
What is most common organism for Septic arthritis
Staphylococcus aureus Septic Arthritis (SA) = Staph Aureus (SA)
64
What is the most common reason total hip replacements need to be revised
Aseptic loosening
65
What is the first line pharmacological agent for polymyalgia rheumatica
Oral prednisolone
66
Anti-Jo-1 antibody is raised in what condition
Polymyositis jO1 = pOIymyositis
67
Proximal muscle weakness + raised CK + no rash is pathognomonic of what condition
Polymyositis
68
What is the inheritance pattern for Marfan's syndrome
Autosomal Dominant Caused by mutation of Fibrillin-1 mutation on chromosome 15q21 Characterised by loss of elastic tissue, affecting the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, neurological, respiratory systems, and the skin and eyes.
69
Aspiration results of septic arthritis
Yellow in appearance Raised white cell count ( >10,000/mm3) High neutrophil count (> 90%)
70
Management of supracondylar fracture of the humerus
Admit for neurovascular observation and closed reduction The neurovascular integrity (particularly the ulner nerve and brachial artery) are at risk so needs to be carefully monitored. Cast fixation is an option in partially displaced fracture, closed reduction reduces the risk of complications such as ischaemic contracture and malunion. Open reduction with internal fixation is used if the fracture is fully displaced
71
What medication should be given in addition to high dose steroids in giant cell arteritis
Bisphosphonate Usually, bone protection with Calcium, Vitamin D and bisphosphonate are required to prevent glucocorticoid associated bone loss
72
What is the microscopic features of Staph aureus
Gram positive cocci in grape-like clusters
73
What lung disorder is very common in
Pulmonary fibrosis Occur in up to 80% of cases
74
Anti-centromere antibodies are associated with what condition?
Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
75
Anti Mi-2 antibodies are associated with what condition?
Dermatomyositis
76
X-ray findings of the hip x-ray: Inferior and medial translation of the left femoral epiphysis and Klein lines that do not intersect the epiphysis This describes which condition?
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE). Seen commonly in obese adolescent boys Due to weakening and widening of the physis due to factors like obesity and puberty
77
X-ray findings of the hip x-ray: Femoral head collapse and fragmentation suggestive of osteonecrosis This describes which condition?
Perthes' disease Self-limiting disease of the femoral head comprising of necrosis, collapse, repair and re-modelling
78
HLA-DR4 is strongly associated with which rheumatoid condition?
Felty syndrome (variety of RA)
79
Colles fracture of the wrist is described as a fracture of the distal radius with what kind of angulation of the distal fracture fragments?
Dorsal
80
dinner fork deformity is a pathognomonic XR feature of what kind of fracture
Colles Fracture
81
Smiths fracture of the wrist is described as a fracture of the distal radius with what kind of angulation of the distal fracture fragments?
Volar angulation
82
Fall onto a outstretch hand is a common mechanism for which of these fractures: A) Colles B) Smiths
A) Colles
83
Fall onto a flexed wrist is a common mechanism for which of these fractures: A) Colles B) Smiths
B) Smiths
84
What is the scoring classification tool used to classify lateral malleolar fractures related to the level of the fracture in relation to the ankle joint, specifically the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis
Weber A->C Weber A: fracture is below the level of the joint Weber B: fracture is going through the joint level Weber C: fracture is above i.e. proximal, to the joint
85
What is the first choice of treatment for eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss)
High dose corticosteroids See vasculitis choose steroids
86
What is the gold standard investigation for the definitive diagnosis of Osteomyelitis
Bone biopsy for pathology and culture Osteomyelitis refers to infection of the bone (acute or chronic)
87
What is the mainstay of treatment for chronic osteomyelitis
Surgical debridement
88
What is the mainstay of treatment for acute osteomyelitis
Antibiotics + Surgical debridement Most commonly IV flucloxacillin (as Staph aureus is most common causative agent)
89
What type of embolism can develop after trauma presenting as shortness of breath, neurological symptoms (e.g. confusion, fatigue) and petechial rash
Fat embolism
90
How is fat embolism (a complication of trauma surgery) managed
Conservatively with supportive measures
91
The Ottawa ankle rules are a decision aid for use in the assessment of acute ankle injuries and the need for radiological imaging. What are the 3 requirements for x-ray if there is malleolar pain
Ankle x-ray is required if any of the following are present: - Bone tenderness at the posterior edge or tip of the lateral malleolus - Bone tenderness at the posterior edge or tip of the medial malleolus - Inability to bear weight both immediately and in emergency department for four steps.
92
The Ottawa ankle rules are a decision aid for use in the assessment of acute ankle injuries and the need for radiological imaging. What are the 3 requirements for x-ray if there is midfoot pain
Foot x-ray is required if any of the following are present: - Bone tenderness at base of the fifth metatarsal - Bone tenderness at navicular bone. - Inability to bear weight both immediately and in emergency department for four steps.
93
What are the XR features of gout
Normal joint space Soft tissue swelling Periarticular erosions
94
First-line treatment for mild to moderate osteoarthritis
Paracetamol +/- topical NSAIDS (not oral, which is second line)
95
What is the gold standard investigation for diagnosing calcaneal fractures
CT
96
Likely Dx: Hx of childhood fractures Blue sclera Dental abnormalities Hearing defects
Osteogenesis imperfecta Defect of type 1 collagen synthesis (Type I collagen is for bONE)
97
What is a clay-shoveller fracture
Fracture of the spinous process and not the vertebral body XR Feature: An oblique lucency through the level of the spinous process seen on the lateral view Associated with trauma such as injury from a road-traffic accident or a direct blow to the spine
98
CREST syndrome is for what type of cutaneous systemic sclerosis: A) Limited B) Diffuse
A) Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
99
Anti-double stranded DNA (dsDNA) autoantibodies are associated with what condition
SLE dsDNA are a subgroup of anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)
100
What joint is most likely the joint first affected by gout
Great toe metatarsalphalangeal joint

Finals: Speciality Blocks (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions