Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AKT > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of pain, swelling and impaired function of the tendon of the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles?

A

Achilles tendinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is mid-portion or insertional Achilles tendinopathy more common?

A

Mid-portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where does mid-portion Achilles tendinopathy affect?

A

Area of the Achilles tendon roughly 2-6cm above its insertion on the calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What intrinsic factors can increase risk of Achilles tendinopathy?

A

Biomechanical abnormalities, diabetes, high cholesterol, hyperuricaemia, and inflammatory disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What extrinsic factors increase the risk of Achilles tendinopathy?

A

Previous injury, footwear, training factors (hard surface, interval training etc), and some drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which drugs increase the risk of tendinopathy?

A

Corticosteroids
Quinolones
Statins
Aromatase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the risk factors for Achilles tendon rupture?

A

-Increasing age
-Tendinopathy
-Poor blood supply
-Some medications
-Some sports or change in exercise regime
-Previous Achilles tendon injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How long can Achilles tendinopathy take to improve with conservative management?

A

12 weeks minimum, however can last up to 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What symptoms may a patient report with Achilles tendon rupture?

A

Sudden onset pain
Audible snap
Difficulty weight-bearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A patient who runs and has recently started training for a marathon comes in reporting left sided heel pain and stiffness in heel on waking or sitting for a while.

What signs might indicate the likely diagnosis?

A

Achilles tendinopathy:

-Erythema/oedema/asymmetry
-Tenderness to palpation
-Pain on dorsifelxion
-Poor heel-raise endurance test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A patient who runs and has recently started training for a marathon comes in reporting left sided heel pain and stiffness in heel on waking or sitting for a while.

Is imaging needed to make the diagnosis here?

A

No - ultrasound or MRI is not routinely needed or recommended in primary care, it is a clinical diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is complete Achilles tendon rupture painful?

A

Not always - roughly 1/3 do not complain of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does Simmonds triad help to exclude?

A

Achilles tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Simmonds triad?

A

Angle of Declination
Palpation
Calf Squeeze test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is Simmonds triad assessed?

A

Pt lies prone with feet over edge of couch:
-Angle of declination may be greater (dorsiflexion) in injured limb
-Gap felt in tendon on palpation
-Gentle squeezing of calf will cause foot to remain neutral if acute rupture has occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why can chronic Achilles tendon rupture be difficult to diagnose?

A

Pain and swelling go down with time, any gap will fill with fibrous tissue, calf may be wasted, and other muscles help with plantar flexion of foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A patient who runs and has recently started training for a marathon comes in reporting a sudden snap sound while running, left sided heel pain and stiffness in heel on waking or sitting for a while. Simmonds triad is present.

What is the management in this case?

A

Admission or same-day referral to orthopaedics as per local protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A patient who runs and has recently started training for a marathon comes in reporting left sided heel pain and stiffness in heel on waking or sitting for a while. Simmonds triad is not present.

What is the management in this case?

A

-Manage any underlying conditions
-Ice, rest, simple analgesia
-Weight-bear as tolerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How long might Achilles tendinopathy take to improve with conservative management?

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If Achilles tendinopathy fails to improve after 7-10 days with conservative management, what should be recommended?

A

Physiotherapy referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If chronic Achilles tendinopathy fails to improve after conservative management and physiotherapy, what should be recommended?

A

Referral to sports physician or orthopaedics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What options does secondary care have for managing chronic Achilles tendinopathy?

A

-Exercise programmes
-Shock-wave therapy
-Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What analgesics are used for mild-to-moderate pain?

A

-Paracetamol
-NSAIDs e.g. ibuprofen/naproxen
-Aspirin
-Weak opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If a child does not respond to both paracetamol and ibuprofen for pain management, what should be done?

A

Discussion with specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why is it good for combination analgesics to be avoided first-line?

A

Prescribing single constituent analgesics allows for independent titration of each drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the two types of NSAID?

A

Non-selective COX-1 and COX-2 inhibitors, and Coxibs (highly selective for COX-2 enzymes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do COX enzyme inhibitors work?

A

Reversibly inhibit cox enzyme thereby inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis, which inhibits vasodilation, inflammation, and platelet aggregation and bronchoconstriction/dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which are the non-selective NSAIDs?

A

Diclofenac, ibuprofen, indomethacin, naproxen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which are the coxib NSAIDs?

A

Celecoxib and etoricoxib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does aspirin work?

A

Salicylate NSAID which irreversibly inhibits COX enzymes and blocks thromboxane production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does paracetamol work?

A

Not fully understood but thought to inhibit cox enzymes in CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do weak opioids work?

A

Binding to opioid receptors in CNS, GI tract and other systems, leading to decreased pain perception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Why is tramadol different to other weak opioids?

A

It also directly inhibits noradrenaline and serotonin uptake in CNS to alter how pain is perceived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the most common causes of bites?

A

Dogs, cats, and humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where do most human bites occur?

A

On the hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What might a deliberate human bite indicate?

A

Abuse, child abuse, or sexual crime, or expression of frustration in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why are abscesses and osteomyelitis more common after cat bites than after dog or human bites?

A

Fluids can only drain from small skin puncture wounds, so retention of infectious agents etc more common due to cats long but fine sharp teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the complications of bites?

A

-Bacterial infection
-Tetanus
-Cat scratch disease
-Viral infections including rabies
-Structural damage
-Psychological effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What bacteria are common following human bites?

A

Strep spp
Staph aureus
Haemophilus spp
Anaerobic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What bacteria are common following animal bites?

A

Most are polymicrobial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What causes tetanus?

A

Clostridium tetani which releases tetanus toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the effects of tetanus toxin?

A

Generalised rigidity
Muscle spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

After a bite, what questions should be asked regarding tetanus/BBV risk?

A

-Tetanus status
-Contaminants and mechanism of bite
-BBV vaccination status
-Biter BBV status if known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Should patients with human bites be offered antibiotics?

A

Yes IF skin was broken and blood drawn, or skin broken in high risk area or patient at high risk of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What prophylactic antibiotics should be offered after a human or animal bite when indicated?

A

Co-amoxiclav for 3 days
If pen allergic - metro and doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What antibiotics should be offered for an infected human or animal bite?

A

Co-amox for 5 days

Doxycyline and metronidazole for 5 days if pen allergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How should clinical tetanus be managed?

A

IV antibiotics and IVIG
Tetanus vaccine after recovery
Supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Who needs antibiotics after a cat/animal bite?

A

Anyone who’s skin has been broken and bite drawn blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What can cause a burn?

A

thermal energy, electrical, chemical, or radiation energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What can be burnt?

A

Skin most commonly, but also airways, lungs, muscles, bones, and internal organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a scald?

A

A burn caused by contact with hot liquid or steam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a complex burn?

A

A burn due to electrical or chemical substance, any thermal burn to critical area (face, extremities, genitalia, perineum), or affecting >15% total surface are of an adult (10% in children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a non-complex burn?

A

Partial thickness burns up to 15% adult body surface area, up to 10% of child’s surface area, that does not affect a critical area

Deep partial thickness on up to 1% of BSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Why is the voltage of an electrical burn important to know?

A

It determines the extent of tissue damage - higher voltage causes more extensive tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What can some inhalation cause?

A

respiratory distress via bronchospasm, pulmonary or laryngeal oedema

56
Q

What are the late complications of burns?

A

-Wound infection
-AKI (4-14 days post injury)
-Chronic neuropathic pain/itch
-Contractures
-Scarring
-Psychosocial impact
-Sleep disorders

57
Q

What may cause suspicion of nonaccidental injury?

A

-Unsuitable explanation for injury
-Injured person is not independently mobile
-Area not easily injured by the self (back/buttocks etc)
-Injury has suspicious shape e.g. cigarette shape
-Injury indicating forced immersion

58
Q

How should thermal burns be managed initially?

A

-Stop burning process
-Remove non-adherent clothing/jewellery
-Irrigate with cool/tepid water for 15-30 minutes
-Cover in cling-film
-Elevate
-Analgesia

59
Q

How should electrical burns be managed initially?

A

If low voltage and safe to do so:
-Turn off power supply
-A&E admission

60
Q

How should chemical burns be managed initially?

A

-Determine the causative chemical
-Remove clothing
-Brush off dry powder chemical, wash away liquid chemical for 1 hour
-Arrange A&E admission

61
Q

What can cause knee pain?

A

Loads of things - Local causes (within/around knee), regional causes, or systemic causes

62
Q

How common is knee pain?

A

Very - it is second most common MSK complaint after back pain, affecting around 20% of the population

63
Q

What factors increase risk of developing knee pain?

A

-Increasing age
-Obesity/overweight
-Previous injury
-Occupational factors
-Sport
-Mental distress/depression
-Social deprivation

64
Q

A patient presents with acute painful joint swelling. What are the top 3 differentials?

A

Septic arthritis
Inflammatory arthritis’ such as gout or rheumatoid arthritis

65
Q

A patient presents with hx of trauma to the knee, and rapid onset of knee swelling over the subsequent couple of hours. What are the differentials?

A

If large tense effusion present:
-Fracture
-Ligament rupture
-Patellar dislocation

66
Q

A patient reports stiffness in their knee. What is important to ask about this symptom?

A

Pattern of stiffness i.e. does it get better or worse with rest and use

67
Q

What can happen due to a direct blow to anterior knee?

A

-Patellar fracture
-Cruciate ligament injury if knee flexed/hyperextended

68
Q

A patient reports knee pain following sudden deceleration and stopping. What might they have injuired?

A

Anterior cruciate ligament

69
Q

A patient reports knee pain following direct blow to lateral aspect of knee. What is likely to be injured?

A

medial collateral ligament or patellar dislocation

70
Q

A patient reports knee pain following direct blow to medial aspect of knee. What is likely to be injured?

A

lateral collateral ligament (uncommon) or patellar dislocation

71
Q

A patient reports knee pain after a sudden twisting motion. What is likely to be injured?

A

-Menisci
-Anterior cruciate ligament

72
Q

What are the Ottawa knee rules?

A

Knee x-ray may be required following injury if any of the following:

  1. Inability to weight bear immediately after injury and in consultation for more than 4 steps
  2. Inability to flex knee to 90 degrees
  3. Tender fibula head
  4. Isolated patellar tenderness
  5. Age 55 or older
73
Q

A teenager presents with knee pain.

It is gradual onset and felt mostly in the front of the knee.
It is worse with sitting for long periods and running.

There are no red flags present in history.

What examinations can be done for the likely cause?

A

Patellofemoral pain syndrome

Quadriceps contraction test
Patellofemoral glide/tilt/grind test

74
Q

What is the Patellofemoral glide/tilt/grind test?

A

Test for Patellofemoral pain syndrome

Moving the patella in all directions to elicit pain

75
Q

What is the quadriceps contraction test?

A

Test for Patellofemoral pain syndrome

Apply pressure to patella and contract quadriceps to elicit pain

76
Q

How is patellofemoral pain syndrome managed?

A

Adjusting activity, reducing kneeling, not sitting still for too long

Pain treatments if helpful

Physiotherapy

77
Q

What is Osgood-Schlatter’s disease?

A

Apophysitis of tibial tuberosity that causes knee pain during adolescence

78
Q

Is Osgood Schlatter’s usually unilateral or bilateral?

A

Unilateral in 70-80% of cases

79
Q

When does Osgood Schlatter’s usually manifest?

A

During adolescent growth spurt before tibial tuberosity has completed ossification

80
Q

What is thought to be the mechanism of Osgood Schlatter’s disease?

A

Small avulsions and inflammation at the apophysis due to traction of patella tendon on tibial tuberosity during forceful contraction of quadriceps muscle

81
Q

How common is Osgood Schlatter’s disease?

A

Around 1 in 10 adolescents are affected, 1 in 5 if involved in high impact sports

82
Q

A 14 year old boy who loves running is brought in with intermittent pain in anterior knee since he started his pubertal growth spurt.
There are no red flags, and pain is localised most to tibial tuberosity.

How long might this condition take to improve?

A

Osgood Schlatter’s disease

Often settles over weeks to months, but can take until end of growth spurt to completely resolve

83
Q

Where/how does Osgood Schlatter’s disease usually present?

A

Unilateral pain localised to tibial tuberosity

84
Q

Is Osgood Schlatter’s disease usually made better or worse with activity?

A

Worse

85
Q

What are the examination findings associated with Osgood Schlatter’s disease?

A

-Tender over tibial tuberosity +/- swelling
-Pain on resisted knee extension
-Tightness of quads and hamstrings
-Normal passive ROM
-Absence of effusion

86
Q

A 14 year old boy who loves running is brought in with intermittent pain in anterior knee since he started his pubertal growth spurt.
There are no red flags, and pain is localised most to tibial tuberosity.

How should this condition be managed?

A

Osgood Schlatter’s disease

-Education
-Analgesia
-Intermittent application of ice packs
-Protective knee pads
-Reduce/stop aggravating sporting activities
-Stretches

87
Q

Is hypermobility more common in boys or girls?

A

Girls

88
Q

A patient with more flexible than usual joints is suffering from joint pain. What is this called?

A

Joint hypermobility Syndrome

89
Q

In joint hypermobility syndrome, when do patients feel the worst joint pain/aching?

A

In the evening after an active day

90
Q

What developmental sign might have been apparent around age one in a patient with joint hypermobility syndrome?

A

Late walking with bottom shuffling instead of walking

91
Q

What might joint hypermobility syndrome be a feature of?

A

An underlying connective tissue/genetic/skeletal dysplastic disorder

92
Q

What connective tissue disorders might be underlying in joint hypermobility syndrome?

A

Marfan syndrome
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

93
Q

How can growing pains in children be distinguished from more concerning underlying pathology?

A

From history, distribution, and entirely normal physical examination

94
Q

How do most patella dislocations occur?

A

Twisting or direct blow to knee in slight flexion

95
Q

In roughly how many people do patella dislocations occur recurrently?

A

20%

96
Q

When does patellar instability occur?

A

When the patella fails to engage securely in the trochlea at the start of flexion

97
Q

When can surgical management of chronic patellar dislocation take place?

A

Only after conservative measures have failed and the recurrence has lead to functional impairment

98
Q

What is the condition called in which a piece of bone or cartilage inside a joint loses blood supply and dies?

A

Osteochondritis dissecans

99
Q

In which joint is osteochondritis dissecans most common?

A

The knee

100
Q

A sporty 18 year old attends GP surgery with recurrent left knee pain. It is intermittent, vague in location, and the patient reports feeling the joint locking and catching.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Osteochondritis dissecans

101
Q

A sporty 18 year old attends GP surgery with recurrent left knee pain. It is intermittent, vague in location, and the patient reports feeling the joint locking and catching.

In this case, what investigation would be appropriate?

A

x-ray of both knees

102
Q

What is septic arthritis?

A

Suppurative inflammation within joint space

103
Q

Who does septic arthritis most commonly affect?

A

Children
Premature neonates
The elderly
The immune suppressed

104
Q

What are the most common ways a patient can develop septic arthritis?

A

-Haematogenous spread
-Direct spread e.g. from penetrating wound or neighbouring infection

105
Q

An 86 year old is brought in with an acutely swollen right knee which is red and hot, reporting fevers and recent cellulitis around a diabetic foot ulcer.

What is your main concerning differential?

A

Septic arthritis

106
Q

An 86 year old is brought in with an acutely swollen right knee which is red and hot, reporting fevers and recent cellulitis around a diabetic foot ulcer.

What other predisposing factors would be concerning here?

A

-Immune compromise
-Recent joint surgery
-Joint prosthesis
-Penetrating injury

107
Q

What is the most common causative agent for septic arthritis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

108
Q

What features in a child with a painful joint might indicate septic arthritis?

A

Refusal to weight-bear
Fever
Systemically unwell

109
Q

A patient with possible septic arthritis presents to the GP.

What should the management plan be?

A

Referral to orthopaedics immediately as per local policy

110
Q

A 75yo diabetic patient presents with an acutely swollen as red left knee. They are apyrexic and feel generally well.

What are the top 2 differentials?

A

Gout/pseudogout
Septic arthritis

111
Q

A 67yo with known OA attends the GP surgery with pain in posterior of their right knee with new swelling in the popliteal fossa. This has been ongoing for some weeks and gradually getting worse.

What is the top differential?

A

Baker’s cyst

112
Q

How should a potential Baker’s cyst be examined?

A

Both standing and supine

113
Q

In what position is Baker’s cyst most visible?

A

Standing

114
Q

How does a Baker’s cyst feel to palpation?

A

Round, smooth, and fluctuant

Tense in full extension then softer/disappear in flexion

115
Q

What can a ruptured bakers cyst mimic?

A

DVT - if a Baker’s cyst pops it can cause calf tenderness and swelling of sudden onset

116
Q

What underlying pathology can cause a Baker’s cyst?

A

-Arthritis
-Joint instability
-Ligament/meniscal damage

117
Q

What is the role of imaging in a diagnosis of Baker’s cyst in a child?

A

Any child with ?Baker’s cyst should have USS to rule out other serious conditions

118
Q

What is the role of imaging in a diagnosis of Baker’s cyst in an adult?

A

Clinical assessment is usually enough

USS/MRI can be used to rule out other significant pathology or underlying cause

119
Q

A 67yo with known OA attends the GP surgery with pain in posterior of their right knee with new swelling in the popliteal fossa. This has been ongoing for some weeks and gradually getting worse.

In the absence of any red flags or serious underlying pathology, how should this condition be managed?

A

Baker’s cyst

-Optimise any underlying pathology (OA in this case)
-Simple analgesia if painful
-Referral if the cyst is very large or troublesome

120
Q

What is the common name for lateral epicondylitis?

A

Tennis elbow

121
Q

Which tendons are affecting in tennis elbow?

A

Extensor tendons of forearm

122
Q

In tennis elbow, where do the affected tendons attach proximally?

A

Lateral epicondyle of the humerus

123
Q

Which side do most people get tennis elbow in?

A

Their dominant side arm

124
Q

A patient who rows competitively presents to their GP with left sided lateral pain around elbow, especially when extending the wrist.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Tennis elbow i.e. lateral epicondylitis

125
Q

A patient who rows competitively presents to their GP with left sided lateral pain around elbow, especially when extending the wrist.

Why does this pathology occur?

A

Tennis elbow

Repetitive overuse causes micro-tears in extensor tendon near their origin

126
Q

How common is it for racquet sports to cause tennis elbow?

A

Causes less than 10% of cases of tennis elbow

127
Q

What proportion of elbow pain presenting to GP is caused by tennis elbow?

A

two-thirds

128
Q

A patient who rows competitively presents to their GP with left sided lateral pain around elbow, especially when extending the wrist.

Given the likely diagnosis, how long might this take to get better?

A

Tennis elbow

80-90% get better within 1-2 years

129
Q

For tennis elbow, is it better or worse if it affects your non-dominant arm?

A

Better - more likely to have better pain outcomes at 1 year

130
Q

A patient who rows competitively presents to their GP with left sided lateral pain around elbow, especially when extending the wrist.

What is the onset of the most likely pathology?

A

Tennis elbow

Insidious onset without any clear precipitating event

131
Q

A patient who rows competitively presents to their GP with left sided lateral pain around elbow, especially when extending the wrist.

Given the likely diagnosis, how would you expect the patient’s grip to be?

A

Tennis elbow

Weakened

132
Q

A patient who rows competitively presents to their GP with left sided lateral pain around elbow, especially when extending the wrist.

Given the likely diagnosis, what would you expect to find on examination?

A

Tennis elbow

-Weak grip
-Localised tenderness around lateral epicondyle of humerus
-Pain to resisted middle finger extension
-Pain to wrist dorsiflexion with elbow at 90 degrees

133
Q

A patient who rows competitively presents to their GP with left sided lateral pain around elbow, especially when extending the wrist.

Given the likely diagnosis, what investigations are warranted in primary care?

A

Tennis elbow

None are usually needed unless another diagnosis is suspected

134
Q

What simple management advice can be given for tennis elbow?

A

-Apply ice/heat
-Rest and avoid aggravating activities for 6 weeks
-Orthosis for support
-Analgesia

135
Q

A patient who was diagnosed with tennis elbow 3 months ago comes back with persisting symptoms despite following all the advice given originally.

What are the next steps?

A

-Reassess - is this definitely tennis elbow
-Referral to physiotherapy

136
Q

When should a patient with tennis elbow be referred to secondary care?

A

-Refractory pain or severely impaired function
-Persistent symptoms for 6-12 months despite optimal management in primary care
-Uncertain diagnosis

137
Q
A

AKT (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions