MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta

A

a group of genetic disorders of collagen metabolism causing bone fragility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common inheritance pattern in osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What classification is used categorise osteogenesis imperfecta based on phenotypic severity

A

Sillence classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the 4 types of osteogenesis imperfecta based on phenotypic severity

A
  • Type I: mild, non-deforming (fewer fractures, blue sclera)
  • Type II: severe perinatal (lethal in infantile period, blue sclera)
  • Type III: progressively deforming (multiple fractures, blue sclera)
  • Type IV: moderately deforming (multiple fractures, grey or white sclera)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most cases of osteogenesis imperfecta are caused by mutation in which 2 genes

A

COL1A1 or COL1A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give 5 clinical features of osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • recurrent fragility fractures following minor trauma
  • blue-grey sclera
  • hearing loss
  • dental abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give 3 abnormal facial features that may be seen in osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • triangle face
  • frontal bossing
  • broad forehead
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is osteogenesis imperfecta diagnosed

A
  • skeletal survey - reveal fractures and bone deformities
  • DXA scan - bone density
  • genetic testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is osteogenesis imperfecta managed

A
  • MDT: orthopaedics, physio, OT, dentistry etc
  • Vit D/ calcium supplements
  • bisphosphonates - increase bone density
  • lifestyle changes - safe handling techniques, physical activity, avoid smoking/drinking/corticosteroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is rickets

A

deficient mineralisation of the growing bone or osteoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give 4 causes of rickets

A
  • Nutritional vitamin D deficiency - inadequate intake or insufficient exposure to direct sun
  • calcium deficiency
  • hereditary hypophosphataemic rickets - X linked dominant
  • drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give 2 examples of vitamin D rich foods

A

Eggs
Oily fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the main reason for inadequate vitamin D supply in infants from western countries

A

prolonged breastfeeding without vit D supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name a drug that can cause rickets

A

phenytoin (anticonvulsant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give 4 RFs of rickets

A
  • Malabsorptive conditions - CF, coeliac, pancreatic insufficiency
  • inadequate sun exposure
  • breastfeeding
  • calcium/ phosphate deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give 4 ways rickets presents

A
  • bone pain
  • poor growth
  • bone deformities
  • muscle weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give 4 bone deformities that may be seen in rickets

A
  • bow legs - toddlers
  • knock knees - older kids
  • rachitic rosary - swelling at the costochondral junction
  • craniotabes - soft skull bones
  • kyphoscoliosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is rickets investigated

A
  • XR of knee and wrists - widened epiphyseal plate
    Bloods tests:
  • serum calcium/ phosphate may be low
  • LFTs - raised ALP
  • Low vitamin D levels
  • raised PTH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is rickets managed

A
  • Vit D (ergocalciferol) and Ca supplementation
  • advice on a balanced diet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is transient synovitis

A

self-limiting inflammatory disorder of the hip
aka irritable hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the typical age group for transient synovitis?

A

3 - 10 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are common features of transient synovitis?

A
  • Limp or refusal to weight bear
  • Groin or hip pain
  • Symptoms usually occur within a few weeks of a viral illness
  • positive log roll - leg rolled gently while child lays flat. +ve test = involuntary muscle guarding
  • Low-grade fever in a minority of patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is transient synovitis managed

A
  • self-limiting, requiring only rest and analgesia
  • exclusions of septic arthritis - if child has fever, refer for same-day assessment even if transient synovitis is suspected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the most commonly affected joints in septic arthritis?

A

hip, knee, and ankle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the common causative organisms of septic arthritis in children?
* Staphylococcus aureus * Neisseria gonorrhoeae (in sexually active teenagers) * Group A Streptococcus (Strep pyogenes) * Haemophilus influenzae * E. coli
26
What are the signs and symptoms of septic arthritis in children?
* Hot, red, swollen and painful joint * Limp and reduced range of motion * Fever * lethargy
27
What investigations are performed for septic arthritis
* Joint aspiration for culture (will show raised WBC) * Raised inflammatory markers * Blood cultures
28
What is the management for septic arthritis in children?
* Admission to hospital - prompt treatment can reduce risk of permanent joint damage * Empirical IV antibiotics followed by specific antibiotics based on sensitivities * Surgical drainage and washout may be needed
29
Name and describe the criteria that is used to assess the probability of septic arthritis in children
Kocher criteria: * fever >38.5 degrees C * non-weight bearing * raised ESR * raised WCC
30
What is osteomyelitis
Infection of the bone and bone marrow - typically in the metaphysis of the long bones
31
What bacterias commonly cause osteomyelitis
* Staph. aureus - mc * Salmonella in sickle cell anaemia * Pseudomonas aeruginosa (IVDU) * Aerobic gram -ve bacilli
32
Give some RFs of osteomyelitis in children
- Males under 10 - Open bone fractures - Orthopaedic surgery - Immunocompromised/ HIV - Sickle cell anaemia - TB
33
How does osteomyelitis present in children
- fever - Refusing to use the limb or weight bear - Pain - Swelling - Tenderness
34
How is osteomyelitis investigated in children
- X-rays are first line - MRI are gold standard imaging - Bloods: raised CRP, ESR and white cells - Blood cultures - causative organism - Bone marrow aspiration
35
How is osteomyelitis managed in children
- flucloxacillin 6w or clindamycin if penicllin allergy - Surgery may be needed for drainage and debridement of the infected bone
36
What is Perthes' disease?
Perthes' disease is a degenerative condition affecting the hip joints in children (Legg-calve-perthes disease)
37
What is the pathophysiology of Perthes' disease?
avascular necrosis of the femoral head, specifically the femoral epiphysis, due to impaired blood supply, leading to bone infarction. idiopathic cause
38
What age group is most commonly affected by Perthes' disease, and which gender is more frequently impacted?
* usually affects children between 4-8 years old * 5 times more common in boys
39
What are the features of Perthes' disease?
* Hip pain that develops progressively over a few weeks * Limp * Stiffness
40
How is Perthes' disease diagnosed?
* Plain XR - widening of joint space, decreased femoral head size/flattening * MRI if X-ray is normal and symptoms persist * Blood test to exclude other causes
41
What is the management approach for Perthes' disease?
* To keep the femoral head within the acetabulum: cast, braces * simple analgesia * < 6 years: observation * Surgery for severe cases and older children
42
What are the complications of Perthes' disease?
* Osteoarthritis * Premature fusion of the growth plates
43
What is slipped upper femoral epiphysis ?
aka slipped capital femoral epiphysis, is a condition where the head of the femur is displaced ("slips") along the growth plate
44
What is the typical age range for presentation of slipped upper femoral epiphysis ?
typically presents in children aged 8 to 15 years
45
Give 2 RFs for slipped upper femoral epiphysis
* obese children * boys
46
What are the presenting symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis?
* Hip, groin, thigh, or knee pain * Restricted range of movement in the hip * Painful limp * loss of internal rotation of the hip in flexion * May present acutely following minor trauma
47
How is slipped upper femoral epiphysis investigated?
* XR : Anteroposterior and lateral hip XR - will show the femoral head displaced and falling inferolaterally * inflammatory markers may be used to exclude other causes
48
How is slipped upper femoral epiphysis managed?
* surgery: internal fixation * bed rest and non-weight bearing
49
Give 4 complications of slipped upper femoral epiphysis
* avascular necrosis of the femoral head * chondrolysis * osteoarthritis * leg length discrepancy
50
What is developmental dysplasia of the hip
a structural abnormality in the hips caused by abnormal development of the fetal bones during pregnancy
51
How is developmental dysplasia of the hip typically detected?
DDH is often picked up during newborn examinations or later when the child presents with: * Hip asymmetry * Reduced range of movement in the hip * A limp
52
What are some risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
* First-degree family history of DDH * female * Breech presentation * oligohydramnios * birth weight > 5 kg
53
Which infants require a routine ultrasound examination for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
* First-degree family history of hip problems in early life * all breech babies at or after 36 weeks gestation, regardless of birth presentation or mode of delivery * Multiple pregnancy
54
all infants are screened at both the newborn check and also the six-week baby check for DDH using which two tests?
Barlow and Ortolani tests
55
What are some positive findings of DDH on the NIPE examination?
* Different leg lengths * Restricted hip abduction on one side * Difference in knee level when hips are flexed * Clunking of the hips during special tests (Ortolani and Barlow tests)
56
How may missed DDH present in an older child
* Trendelenburg gait * leg length discrepancy
57
Describe the Barlow and Ortolani tests
Barlow: attempted dislocation of a newborn's articulated femoral head Ortolani test: attempts to relocate a dislocated femoral head
58
What imaging technique is used to confirm the diagnosis of DDH?
* Ultrasound is generally used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected * If the infant is > 4.5 months, X-ray is the first-line investigation.
59
What is the management for developmental dysplasia of the hip
* most unstable hips will spontaneously stabilise by 3-6 weeks of age * Pavlik harness in children younger than 4-5 months * older children may require surgery
60
What is Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
arthritis (without any other cause) occurring in someone who is less than 16 years old that lasts for more than 6 weeks
61
Name 3 subtypes of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
* Systemic JIA (still's disease) * Polyarticular JIA * Oligoarticular JIA (pauciarticular) - most common
62
Give some features of systemic JIA
* Subtle salmon-pink rash * High swinging fevers * Enlarged lymph nodes * weight loss * Joint inflammation and pain
63
What are the typical lab findings in systemic JIA?
* Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) and rheumatoid factors are typically negative. * raised CRP, ESR, platelets and serum ferritin
64
What is oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis
involves arthritis in 4 joints or less and usually affects a single joint (monoarthritis)
65
How does oligoarticular JIA typically present
* joint pain and swelling: usually medium sized joints e.g. knees, ankles, elbows * limp * associated with anterior uveitis
66
What are the typical laboratory findings in oligoarticular JIA?
* Inflammatory markers are usually normal or mildly elevated * Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) are often positive * rheumatoid factor is usually negative
67
How is juvenile idiopathic arthritis managed
* NSAIDs, e.g. ibuprofen * Steroids, either oral, IM or intra-artricular in oligoarthritis * DMARDs e.g. methotrexate, sulfasalazine and leflunomide * Biologics, e.g. tumour necrosis factor inhibitors etanercept, infliximab and adalimuma