MSRA Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

Features of William’s syndrome?

A

Short stature
Learning difficulties
Friendly, extrovert personality
Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia
Supravalvular aortic stenosis

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2
Q

Features of Cri Du Chat Syndrome?

A

Characteristic cry (hence the name) due to larynx and neurological problems
Feeding difficulties and poor weight gain
Learning difficulties
Microcephaly and micrognathism
Hypertelorism

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3
Q

What is the genetic alteration which causes Cri Du Chat syndrome?

A

Chromosome 5p deletion

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4
Q

Features of Prader- Willi Syndrome?

A

Hypotonia
Hypogonadism
Obesity

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5
Q

Features of Pierre- Robin Syndrome?

A

Micrognathia
Posterior displacement of the tongue (may result in upper airway obstruction)
Cleft palate

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6
Q

Features of Noonan Syndrome?

A

Webbed neck
Pectus excavatum
Short stature
Pulmonary stenosis

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7
Q

Features of Fragile X Syndrome?

A

Learning difficulties
Macrocephaly
Long face
Large ears
Macro-orchidism

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8
Q

Features of Edward’s syndrome

A

Trisomy 18
Micrognathia
Low-set ears
Rocker bottom feet
Overlapping of fingers

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9
Q

Features of Patau Syndrome?

A

Trisomy 13
Microcephalic, small eyes
Cleft lip/palate
Polydactyly
Scalp lesions

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10
Q

What is a common complication of small cell lung cancer?

A

SIADH

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11
Q

Which type of lung cancer is the most common in non smokers?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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12
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome?

A

Carcinoid syndrome is characterised by flushing, diarrhoea, and bronchospasm due to the release of serotonin and other vasoactive substances. It is a complication of lung carcinoma which is a large and slow growing neuroendocrine tumour

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13
Q

Which endocrine abnormality can you get in squamous cell carcinoma of the lung?

A

Hypercalcaemia due to parathyroid hormone related peptide secretion

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14
Q

What is the science of SIADH?

A

which leads to water retention, volume expansion, and dilutional hyponatraemia
ADH is produced by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to regulate the body’s water balance
It does this by increasing water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys, thereby decreasing the volume of urine produced
In SIADH, there is an inappropriate and continuous release of ADH that is not inhibited by normal physiological mechanisms, such as adequate or excess body fluid levels
As a result, the kidneys reabsorb more water, leading to decreased urine output, and expansion of extracellular fluid volume.
Importantly, this increase in body fluid volume does not lead to the expected signs of fluid overload, such as oedema or hypertension, because the excess fluid is uniformly distributed throughout all body fluid compartments.

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15
Q

Which portions of the bowel are most effected in coeliac disease?

A

Jejunum and duodenum

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16
Q

Which test is used to diagnose Chlamydia?

A

nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

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17
Q

What are the Chlamydia partner identification rules?

A

Chlamydia - partner notification:
symptomatic men: all partners from the 4 weeks prior to the onset of symptoms
women + asymptomatic men: all partners from the last 6 months or the most recent sexual partner

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18
Q

What are the FBC/ Coag findings for antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Low platelets and high APTT

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19
Q

Which other condition is antiphospholipid syndrome often secondary to?

A

SLE

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20
Q

What is the management of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Primary thromboprophylaxis (aspirin) or secondary (DOAC vs Warfarin)

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21
Q

What are the rules for anti-coagulation for VTE?

A

3 months of anticoagulation if there is a cause such as surgery, 6 months if unprovoked

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22
Q

What is the diagnostic tool for lyme disease?

A

ELISA test

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23
Q

What is the antibiotic management for lyme disease

A

Doxycyline

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24
Q

Which classes of drugs can be used to prevent angina attacks?

A

Beta blocker or calcium channel blocker (if asthmatic). Must be a rate limiting CCB (such as verapamil or diltiazem) because non rate limiting CCB (such as amlodipine) can cause rebound tachycardia

25
What can happen if verapamil and a beta blocker are prescribed concurrently?
Complete heart block
26
How does clomifene work?
Anti oestrogen so stimulates ovulation
27
What is a long term consequence of PPIs?
Osteoporosis and fractures, c.diff, hyponatraemia and hypomagnesmia
28
What are the symptoms of SSRI discontinuation syndrome?
increased mood change restlessness difficulty sleeping unsteadiness sweating gastrointestinal symptoms: pain, cramping, diarrhoea, vomiting paraesthesia
29
What is the peak time period for alcohol withdrawal seizures?
36 hours
30
What are the symptoms of delirium tremens?
coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia
31
What is the treatment regime for c.diff?
Initial presentation= 10 days of oral vancomycin Second presentation= oral fidaxomicin
32
What is the biochemical cause of alcohol withdrawal?
Decreased inhibitory GABA and increased excitatory NDMA glutamate
33
Where are the ECG changes in an anterior MI?
V1-V4
34
Where are the ECG changes in an inferior MI?
II, III and AVF
35
Where are the ECG changes in an anterolateral MI?
V1-6, I and AVL
36
Where are ECG changes in a lateral ECG?
I, AVL +/- V5 and V6
37
Which antibiotic can you not prescribe in someone who is taking a statin and why?
Erythromycin- potent inhibitor of CYP3A4 which can cause statin induced myopathy and rhabdomyolysis
38
When do you offer the OGTT in pregnancy?
24-28 weeks
39
What are the target BM ranges for women with diabetes?
Fasting <5.6 1hr <7.8 (5,6,7,8)
40
Name the causes of raised prolactin?
pregnancy prolactinoma physiological polycystic ovarian syndrome primary hypothyroidism phenothiazines, metoclopramide, domperidone
41
What is the main side effect to counsel patients about when starting them on hydroxychloroquine?
Retinopathy
42
Which drug can be given to reduce the risk of tumour lysis syndrome and how does this work?
Allopurinol, reduces serum urate which reduces the risk of tumour lysis
43
When are triptans contraindicated?
In ischaemic heart disease
44
What is clergyman's knee?
Infrapatellar bursitis
45
What is housemaid's knee?
Prepatellar bursitis
46
What are the symptoms of Kawasaki's disease?
high-grade fever which lasts for > 5 days. Fever is characteristically resistant to antipyretics conjunctival injection bright red, cracked lips strawberry tongue cervical lymphadenopathy red palms of the hands and the soles of the feet which later peel
47
What is the second line drug for DMT2 in people with ischaemic heart disease?
SGLT-2 inhibitors such as gliclazide
48
What would you see on fundoscopy in age related macular degeneration?
Drusen, yellow deposits beneath the retina
49
Which murmur is associated with Turner's syndrome and why?
Ejection systolic due to a bicuspid aortic valve
50
What is the cushings triad?
Hypertension, bradycardia and irregular breathing. Seen in increased ICP
51
management of whooping cough?
Clarithromycin if in the first 21 days
52
Management of meningitis in kids?
<3 months then IV cefotaxime and amox >3 months IV ceftriaxone
53
Which enzyme should you measure prior to starting azithothiaprine?
TPMT
54
What are the features of HOCM on echo?
mitral regurgitation, systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet, asymmetric hypertrophy.
55
Which way do spider naevi fill?
From the centre
56
What is charcot's triad?
Fever, RUQ pain and jaundice For ascending cholangitis
57
How can orbital lymphoma present?
Unilateral conjunctivitis which is resistant to treatment
58