MSRA Flashcards

(113 cards)

1
Q

What is osteoarthritis and what does it commonly effect?

A

Clinical syndrome of joint pain accompanied by varying degrees of functional limitation. It is characterised pathologically by localised loss of cartilage, remodelling of adjacent bone and associated inflammation and reduced quality of life. Osteoarthritis includes a slow but efficient repair process that often compensates for the initial trauma, resulting in a structurally altered but symptom-free joint
Hips, knees, hands

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1
Q

How do you diagnose osteoarthritis clinically?

A

Diagnose osteoarthritis clinically without investigations if a person:
is 45 or over and
has activity-related joint pain and
has either no morning joint-related stiffness or morning stiffness that lasts no longer than 30 minutes

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2
Q

What is first lime treatment for osteoarthritis?

A

NSAID cream

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3
Q

What are the radiological features of osteoarthritis and when do you.get each sign?

A

Joint space narrowing - focal cartilage loss
subchondral sclerosis - increased trabecular thickness
bone cysts
osteophytes about the joint margins - central, marginal, periosteal
osteochondral “loose” bodies - islands of chondral metaplasia that have ossified

In the initial stages of OA, the first three features are restricted to the load-bearing part of the osteoarthritic joint. In more advanced disease all five features are present on non-weight-bearing and weight-bearing parts of the joint.

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4
Q

What is the commonest jointinflammatory condition and how is it characterised

A

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is the most common inflammatory arthritis in adults, characterised by progressive joint destruction and deformity, usually of peripheral joints.
Typically affects the small joints of the hands and the feet, and usually both sides equally and symmetrically, although any synovial joint can be affected
a systemic disease and so can affect the whole body, including the heart, lungs and eyes

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5
Q

How is rheumatoid arthritis managed

A

Treat active RA in adults with the aim of achieving a target of remission or low disease activity if remission cannot be achieved (treat-to-target)
Achieving the target may involve trying multiple conventional disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (cDMARDs) and biological DMARDs with different mechanisms of action, one after the other
Consider making the target remission rather than low disease activity for people with an increased risk of radiological progression (presence of anti-CCP antibodies or erosions on X-ray at baseline assessment)
In adults with active RA, measure C-reactive protein (CRP) and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28) monthly in specialist care until the target of remission or low disease activity is achieved.

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6
Q

What are the main symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis

A

RA usually presents as a gradual-onset, symmetrical arthritis. The main symptoms present in RA are:
Pain, swelling and stiffness of the joints – commonly seen in wrists, proximal interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and metatarsophalangeal joints.
Early morning stiffness that lasts over 30 minutes - sensitivity 74-77%, specificity 48-52%
systemic symptoms
weight loss
fatigue
malaise (1)

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7
Q

What are the main symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis

A

RA usually presents as a gradual-onset, symmetrical arthritis. The main symptoms present in RA are:
Pain, swelling and stiffness of the joints – commonly seen in wrists, proximal interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and metatarsophalangeal joints.
Early morning stiffness that lasts over 30 minutes - sensitivity 74-77%, specificity 48-52%
systemic symptoms
weight loss
fatigue
malaise (1)

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8
Q

What is the journey of RA and what are the hand signs

A

The clinical course of RA is extremely variable. In most patients, the disease begins insidiously with malaise, fatigue, non-localised musculoskeletal pain, and sometimes low grade fever.

Only later do joints become involved, sometimes monarticular, at other times oligoarticular, and in some instances polyarticular (usually symmetrically). Often the disease begins in the proximal finger joints and wrists and later spreads to the elbows, shoulders, knees, ankles and feet. Characteristic deformities occur and include, in the hands, ulnar deviation of the fingers due to subluxation at the metacarpophalangeal joints, loss of finger function due to hyperextension of the PIP joints with fixed flexion of the DIP joints ‘swan neck deformity’, or fixed flexion of the PIP joints with hyperextension of the DIP joints ‘boutonniere’ or Z deformity of the thumb.

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9
Q

Are nsaids OK I’m pregnancy?

A

non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs can be used during pregnancy but there use is not recommended during the third trimester. This is because they may cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus. The use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatories during late pregnancy has also been associated with renal impairment in the newborn

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10
Q

Is methotrexate OK in conception?

A

the use of methotrexate during pregnancy is contraindicated (teratogenic); manufacturer advises the use of effective contraception during and for at least 6 months after administration to men or women

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11
Q

How do you investigate RA

A

offer to carry out a blood test for rheumatoid factor in adults with suspected rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who are found to have synovitis on clinical examination
consider measuring anti-CCP antibodies in adults with suspected RA if they are negative for rheumatoid factor
X-ray the hands and feet in adults with suspected RA and persistent synovitis

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12
Q

When would you refer RA and why?

A

Refer all urgently even if results are negative as treatment must be started asap

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13
Q

How long does it take for methotrexate to work in RA

A

Response to treatment cannot be expected before 2 months and may not occur until after 6 months treatment.

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14
Q

What are the RA drugs?

A

MHLS
Methotrexate, Hydroxychloraquine, leflunomide, sulfasalazine

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15
Q

Give the toxic effects of methotrexate

A

toxic effects include:
pneumonitis in 3% of patients
bone marrow suppression in approximately 3%
opportunistic infections
accelerated nodulosis of the hands
cirrhosis and liver failure - very rarely

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16
Q

How do you monitor methotrexate

A

Monitor every 2 weeks for 2 months, then monthly thereafter.

Monitor:

haemoglobin
total white cell count
neutrophil count
lymphocyte count
platelet count
liver function tests

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17
Q

What are the side effects of methotrexate and how do you manage them

A

mouth ulcers
stomatitis
Stop if severe, reduce dose if mild/moderate. Consider carbenoxalone or difflam mouth washes. Consider other causes.

cough or dyspnoea
Stop drug. Seek advice. Chest X-ray and pulmonary function tests.

nausea/anorexia
Split dose, reduce dose. Take with food. Try anti-emetic. Stop if unacceptable

increased nodule formation
Reassure. Stop if unacceptable

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18
Q

Why is Hydroxychloraquine and clarithromycin/erythromycin and azathioprine bad together

A

QT prolongation a d bad for the heart

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19
Q

What are the common side effects of azathioprine

A

The most common side-effects of azathioprine are myelosuppression and hepatotoxicity.

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20
Q

How do you monitor azathioprine

A

Check full blood count before starting treatment, once weekly for the first four weeks, then at least every 3 months throughout treatment. Check:

Haemoglobin
Total white cell count
Neutrophil count
Platelet count
also check liver function tests
Patients should immediately have a full blood count if they develop any symptoms suggestive of marrow depression.

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21
Q

Untreated asthma is characterised by:

A

greater than 10% diurnal variability in PEFR
lowest values in the morning

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22
Q

How do you work up a diagnosis of COPD

A

identifying early disease
perform spirometry in people who are over 35, current or ex-smokers, and have a chronic cough

consider spirometry in people with chronic bronchitis. A significant proportion of these people will go on to develop airflow limitation

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23
Q

How os airflow obstruction defined on spirometry

A

airflow obstruction is defined as (1):
FEV1 < 80% predicted
and FEV1/FVC < 0.7

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24
What is Copd
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a condition characterised by airflow obstruction, which is usually progressive, not fully reversible and does not change markedly over several months
25
What should be considered in screening in copd presentations?
alpha-1 antitrypsin - indicated if early onset, minimal smoking history or family history
26
How are COPD patients differentiated
ABE method
27
How do you decide on copd treatment
Group A: all Group A patients should be offered bronchodilator treatment based on its effect on breathlessness. This can be either a short- or a long-acting bronchodilator this should be continued if benefit is documented Group B: treatment should be initiated with LABA+LAMA combination Group E: use of LABA+ICS in COPD is not encouraged; if there is an indication for ICS, then LABA+LAMA+ICS has been shown to be superior LABA+ICS and is therefore the preferred choiceConsider LABA+LAMA+ICS in group E if blood eosinophil counts >=300 cells/µl (practical recommendation)
28
commonest manifestation of peripheral arterial disease?
Intermittent claudication
29
How does PAD progress
Intermittent claudication Rest pain Arterial ulcer of the foot Gangrene of the foot
30
What is the significance of intermittent cluadication
20-30% will die in the next 5years from co-morbid cardiovascular disease
31
How long does PAD present over?
Weeks
32
Where is the leg does pain typically occur in PAD?
The calves
33
What are the features of critical limb ischaemia
Rest pain Failure of injuries to heal Ulcers Gangrene Pressure sores Impotence
34
How do you differentiate spinal claudication from peripheral arterial disease?
Spinal claudication may be worse on prolonged rest and relieved on flexion of the spine.
35
How do you manage intermittent claudication
Secondary prevention Exercise programme If symptoms not responding to exercise refer to vascular
36
Give the ABPI calculations and their clinical meanings
Above 1 is normal 0.95 - 0.5 is intermittent claudication 0.5 - 0.3 is rest pain <0.2 is gangrene and ulceration
37
What is the onset of puerperal psychosis?
2-4days
38
What is the tool used to diagnosed post partum depression
Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale
39
What is the peak incidence of depression puerperium?
3months
40
What is postpartum blues and when does it occur?
It is a transient disturbance in mood between the 3rd and 6th day of delivery, has an occurrence rate of 50-70%
41
Give the drugs not to give in breastfeeding NLSM
Nitrofuantoin, metronizadole, sodium valproate, lithium
42
What is the commonest cause of hyperprolactinaemia?
Prolactin secreting pituitary adenoma
43
How do you diagnose PMS?
Use a PMS symptom diary over 2months just before and after menstruation
44
What is the treatment for PMS
Hormonal - COCP containing Drospirenone for continual use
45
When would you refer secondary amenorrhoea to gynae instead of endo
If their FSH and LH are high and under 40, infertility, history of surgery or trauma
46
When would you refer secondary amenorrhoea to endo instead of gyna?
If there is a low LH and FSH, if there is a raised prolactin, raised testosterone and no cause found
47
When can menorrhagia be managed in primary care?
Women with menorrhagia and no identified pathology; fibroids less than 3 cm in diameter, which are not causing distortion of the uterine cavity; or suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis:
48
What is the first line and other line treatments for menorrhagia?
First line is IUS Mefenamic acid and COCP if IUS are declined
49
How long does it take for the IUS to work in menorrhagia?
First few cycles and maybe lasting longer than 6 months. Advise that she should wait for at least 6 cycles to see the benefits of the treatment.
50
When do fibroids need referring?
If greater than 3cm and causing bleeding
51
What is the rate of no cause being found for menorrhagia and what are the other causes for this symptom?
In almost 50% of women with menorrhagia, no underlying cause is found. Possible causes include uterine fibroid, uterine cancer, endometriosis, systemic disorders (such as coagulation disorders and hypothyroidism), and medications (such as anticoagulants).
52
53
What is the management if urge incontinence is predominant cause of urinary incontinence?
Bladder retraining (lasts for a minimum of 6 weeks, the idea is to gradually increase the intervals between voiding) bladder stabilising drugs: antimuscarinics are first-line NICE recommend (antimuscarinics) oxybutynin (immediate release), tolterodine (immediate release) or darifenacin (once daily preparation) Immediate release oxybutynin should, however, be avoided in 'frail older women' mirabegron (a beta-3 agonist) may be useful if there is concern about anticholinergic side-effects in frail elderly patients
54
What is the management if stress incontinence is the predominant cause of urinary incontinence?
Pelvic floor muscle training NICE recommend at least 8 contractions performed 3 times per day for a minimum of 3 months surgical procedures: e.g. retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures duloxetine may be offered to women if they decline surgical procedures
55
What is the features of PBC
Primary biliary cholangitis - the M rule IgM anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype Middle aged females
56
How does the COCP effect the cancers?
Combined oral contraceptive pill increased risk of breast and cervical cancer protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer
57
How does the COCP effect acne?
It improves acne
58
What is the 66612 rule
Less than 6month 100 - 150 micrograms 6month to 6 years 150 micrograms 6 years to 12 years 300 micrograms Over 12 years 500 micrograms
59
Glue ear referrals is after 6-12weeks of symptoms, but when should a referral be made earlier?
Symptoms are significantly affecting hearing, development or education Immediate referral in children with Downs syndrome or cleft palate
60
How long does it take finasteride to have an effect and what are the side effects?
6months impotence decreased libido gynaecomastia decreased levels of serum prostate-specific antigen; so interfering with the monitoring of prostate carcinoma
61
Bullous pemphigoid/Pemphigus vulgaris, how to differentiate between the two blistering conditions
Bullous pemphigoid no mucosal involvement (in exams at least*): Pemphigus vulgaris mucosal involvement
62
What is Bullous pemphigoid
Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune blistering disorder that primarily affects the elderly. It presents with tense blisters on the skin, which can be pruritic.
63
Epidermolysis bullosa
Epidermolysis bullosa is a group of inherited disorders characterized by skin fragility and blister formation in response to minor trauma.
64
Pemphigus
Pemphigus is another autoimmune blistering disorder; however, it typically presents with flaccid blisters and erosions involving both the skin and mucous membranes. In this case, the patient has tense blisters without mucosal involvement, making pemphigus a less likely diagnosis
65
What to start in newly diagnosed patient with hypertension (< 55 years)
ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker
66
How is COPD severity scored and what are its severities?
Based off of FEV1 FEV1 (of predicted) Severity > 80% Stage 1 - Mild - symptoms should be present to diagnose COPD in these patients 50-79% Stage 2 - Moderate 30-49% Stage 3 - Severe < 30% Stage 4 - Very severe
67
How is the severity of depression scored and what are the scores and their treatments
less severe' depression: encompasses what was previously termed subthreshold and mild depression a PHQ-9 score of < 16 - CBT 'more severe' depression: encompasses what was previously termed moderate and severe depression a PHQ-9 score of ≥ 16 - SSRI and CBT
68
What is the UKMEC for breastfeeding post-partum
Breastfeeding < 6 weeks post-partum is UKMEC 4 contraindication after it is UKMEC 2
69
What is the smoking criteria and UKMEC 4
more than 35 years old and smoking more than 15 cigarettes/day
70
What are the three criteria for lactation amenorrhoea method
Complete amenorrhoea. Fully or nearly fully breastfeeding (that is, the baby is getting 85% or more of its feeds as breast milk). Less than 6 months postpartum.
71
When can post partum IUD and IUS be used
Copper intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) and the intrauterine system (IUS) (unless fitted within 48 hours of birth, delay until after four weeks postpartum).
72
How quickly should post partum contraception be started? And what are the risks of a interpregnancy interval of less than 12months
The contraceptive method chosen should be commenced within 21 days of childbirth. Contraception may be started immediately after childbirth if desired and the woman is medically eligible. Women should be advised that an interpregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birthweight, and small for gestational age babies.
73
What are the options for post partum contraception if less than 6weeks and breast feeding
Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) (if fully or almost fully breastfeeding and amenorrhoeic). POP. Progestogen-only implants. Barrier methods.
74
When can barrier methods be used postpartum
Diaphragm and cap use should be delayed until uterine involution is complete after six weeks postpartum
75
What are the options for post partum emergency contraception
Emergency contraception is not needed before day 21 postpartum. Progestogen-only emergency contraception can be used even if breastfeeding. The IUCD can be fitted for this indication, after four weeks postpartum.
76
When can the COCP be restarted post partum if not breastfeeing and why is there a delay.
Pregnancy is a thrombophilic state; by about two weeks postpartum, these changes have reversed in most women. COC can be started from 21 days postpartum, assuming no other risk factors for VTE exist
77
When does the the POP work post partum
Commence up to day 21 postpartum without the need for extra contraception.
78
When should orilistat be considered in obesity if dietary measures have failed and when should treatment be stopped
obese with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 or more, or overweight with a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or more with associated risk factors. Discontinue treatment with orlistat after 12 weeks if the person has not lost at least 5% of their body weight
79
What are varicocele and what are their impact?
Varicoceles are dilatations of the pampiniform venous plexus, which drains blood from the testes. They are found in 15-20% of all men but in up to 40% of infertile men, making them a significant factor associated with male infertility.
80
What are the rates of gallstones and alcohol causing pancreatitis
50% of cases are caused by gallstones 25% by alcohol 25% by other factors
81
How quickly does acute pancreatitis present and how does it present. How does its presentation differ from acute cholcytitis?
People with acute pancreatitis usually present with sudden-onset abdominal pain nausea and vomiting Often present and there may be a history of gallstones or excessive alcohol intake typical physical signs include epigastric tenderness, fever and tachycardia.
82
Where is the pain in pancreatitis and what is seen in the majority of pancreatitis cases?
Pain is usually focused in the left upper quadrant, periumbilical region, and/or epigastrium Pain may radiate to the back (lower thoracic area), associated nausea and vomiting is seen in majority of cases
83
What does a jaundice patient with pancreatitis represent?
Suggests cholestatic ostruction from gallstone pancreatitis
84
In addition to anti HTN medication what else should you do if someone in their 30s has an Ambulatory BP greater than 135/85
For patients < 40 years consider specialist referral to exclude secondary causes
85
What should you do if a blood pressure comes back at 135/89 in clinic
Repeat BP every 5years
86
With stage 1 HTN how does the management differ?
If over 80 and clinic BP over 150/90 lifestyle and consider drugs If under 80 with any CVD, kidney disease, diabetes or Qrisk greater than 10 discuss starting drugs and lifestyle If under 60 with low Q risk consider drugs
87
What are the gonorrhoea contact tracing rules
If asymptomatic within 3 month Symptomatic is 2 months
88
What is the contact tracing rules for chlamydia?
If asymptomatic 6 months Symptomatic 1 month
89
When during antipsycholic therapy does NMS occur?
NMS is an idiosyncratic reaction that can occur at any time during treatment, but most commonly presents early. The risk is highest in the first few weeks of therapy, particularly during dose titration.
90
Which test is positive for a Anterior cruciate ligament tear?
Positive draw test
91
What are the 3 contraindications for digoxin therapy?
arrythmias associated with accessory conduction pathways intermittent complete heart block, second degree AV block left ventricular outflow obstruction (e.g. HOCM, aortic stenosis)
92
Who are at risk of developing digoxin toxicity?
Old patients are especially at risk of developing digoxin toxicity and therefore should be commenced on a low dose. There is an increased risk of toxicity in hypokalaemia and renal failure. Blood levels should be measured regularly.
93
Give side effects of digoxin BAD VAN
Bradycardia, Boobs, Bigemeny/Trigememy Arrhythmia, AV block, Anorexia Diarrhoea Vomiting, Vision- yellow/green, blurred Abdominal cramps Nausea and vomiting
94
At what age do you start using the PEFR in children?
5 years
95
What are clonic movements travelling proximally in a seizure?
Jacksonian movement - indicates frontal lobe epilepsy
96
What are the blood glucose diagnosis levels with the fasting and OGTT tests for diabetes
Fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l OGTT 11.1 mmol/l
97
How frequently should Sickle cell patients should receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide
Sickle cell patients should receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years
98
What is the thirds stage of labour and how is it managed?
The third stage of labour is measured from the birth of the baby to the expulsion of the placenta and membranes. Active management of this stage is recommended in order to reduce post-partum haemorrhage (PPH) and the need for blood transfusion post delivery. Active management lasts less than 30 minutes and involves the following: Uterotonic drugs Deferred clamping and cutting of cord, over 1 minute after delivery but less then 5 minutes Controlled cord traction after signs of placental separation
99
What are the allopurinol reactions to be aware of?
The most significant adverse effects are dermatological and patients should be warned to stop allopurinol immediately if they develop a rash: severe cutaneous adverse reaction (SCAR) drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) Stevens-Johnson syndrome Thyroid dysfunction Gout flares Liver dysfunction Nausea, Vomiting, Diarrhoea
100
Which three drugs does allopurinol react with?
Azathioprine, Theophylline and Cyclophosphamide
101
Which cardiac condition are ACE-i CI in?
ACE-inhibitors should be avoided in patients with HOCM
102
How long does it take for skin patch testing to be read?
48hours
103
frontal bossing and bowing of the legs in an adult is a sign of which disease?
Pagets
104
CT head showing temporal lobe changes with seizures?
think herpes simplex encephalitis
105
What is Non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT)
Another blood sample if at high risk 'higher chance': 1 in 150 chance or less e.g. 1 in 100 of Down syndrome which tests maternal blood for DNA fragments.
106
What is the cut off for high and low chance for down syndrome?
1 in 150
107
Which parts of the arm and hand does the ulnar nerve supply?
Ulnar nerve supplies sensory innervation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of 1 and 1/2 fingers medially
108
What are the CI for the MMR vaccine
severe immunosuppression allergy to neomycin children who have received another live vaccine by injection within 4 weeks pregnancy should be avoided for at least 1 month following vaccination immunoglobulin therapy within the past 3 months (there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present)
109
How should you manage GI symptoms in children with a migraine?
Ibuprofen and paracetamol
110
give examples of non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
verapamil or diltiazem
111
What would cause PAD symptoms in a young individual?
Buerger's disease
112
What is the peak incidence of croup and bronchiolitis?
peak incidence of croup is 6 months -3 years, bronchiolitis is seen in 1-9 month olds