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MST Phase Flashcards

(96 cards)

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1
Q

What is METTTC

A 
Mission
Enemy
Terrain and Weather
Troops
Time
Civil Considerations
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2
Q

Noise Avoidance Procedures

A

avoid residence by 500 feet slant range

avoid towns by 1000 meters laterally and/or 1,500 feet vertically

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3
Q

alternate route marked with

A
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4
Q

Local planning restrictions

A

do not plan a route that will parallel wires within 100 meters

avoid towers by 500 meters

course heading changes not exceed 60 degrees
avoid Res by 1000 meters or over fly at least 800 ft msl or make radio calls

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5
Q

route planning

A

reverse planning technique

ground tactical plan, landing, air movement, loading, staging

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6
Q

acp selection

A

acp 5 to 20 km
sp 3 to 8 km
rp 3 to 8 km

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7
Q

contingency planning

A

should begin at an easily identifiable point
3-8 km
minimum of one contingency will be planned for each objective
record time and heading to objective

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8
Q

route timing

A

go on right side
minimum every 2 minutes
1 minute recommended for training
in ground speed

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9
Q

altitude selection

A

lateral distance of 500 m on each side of course for each route leg/segment

identify highest elevation and convert to feet (multiply by 3.28)

round up to next higher 50 foot increment

add 100 feet for vegetation

add 50 feet for obstacle clearance on route segment

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10
Q

doghouses

A 
designation to next waypoint
magnetic heading
distance to next waypoint
ETE
altitude for the segment
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11
Q

Air assault purpose

A

army aviation conducts Ari assaults in support of offensive, defensive, and stability operations throughout the depth and breath of the AO

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12
Q

Air Assault

A

is the movement of friendly assault forces by rotary-wing aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or the seize and hold key terrain. It is a precisely planned and vigorously executed combat operation

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13
Q

air movement

A

is air transport of units, personnel, supplies, and equipment including airdrops and air landings.

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14
Q

vulnerabilities

A

attack by aircraft/air defense weapons during movement phase

small arms fire

electronic warfare

attack by air/ground/artillery during loading/unloading phases

air strikes

attack by CBRN

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15
Q

what is a temporary group of integrated forces tailored to a specific mission under the command of a single headquarters called

A

air assault task force

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16
Q

what is the aviation mission during which airlift assists are used to transport units, personnel, supplies and equipment including airdrops and air landings

A

air movement

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17
Q

what are some of the capabilities of an air assault task force

A

attack enemy positions from any direction
overfly/ bypass barriers/ obstacles/ enemy
positions and strike objectives in inaccessible areas
rapidly place forces at decisive points/reinforce committed units
secure and defend key terrain and objectives
conduct fast paced operations over extended distances

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18
Q

primary mission

A

the primary mission of army assault helicopters in air assault operations is to move troops and equipment

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19
Q

air assault enables

A

the ground movement commander to overcome the effects of terrain to rapidly mass combat power, achieve surprise, and destroy the enemy or seize key objectives

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20
Q

integration and synchronization

A

the effective integration and synchronization of aviation and ground units is paramount to the execution of air assaults

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21
Q

Air assault task force commander (AATFC)

A

approves, disapproves, or modifies all components of the assault plan

plan and synchronize the air assault timeline

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22
Q

ground tactical commander

A

usually one of the AATFC’s subordinate maneuver commanders

develop the ground tactical plan

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23
Q

air mission commander

A

responsible for the all aviation operations

subordinate to AATFC

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24
Q

The reverse planning sequence

A 
ground tactical plan
landing plan
air movement plan
loading plan
staging plan
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25
who is responsible for the overall planning and execution of an air assault mission to include the ground tactical plan
air assault task force commander
26
who is the AMC's representative that advises the AATFC and his staff in aviation matters
aviation liaison officer
27
what is the standard timeline for a deliberate air assault mission
96 hours
28
cold and hot LZ
cold or ice LZ no enemy activity is observed hot or cherry LZ enemy activity is occurring on or near the LZ
29
when designing a multi ship route you should avoid turns in excess of how many degrees
60
30
AMP: schedules the movement of troops, equipment, and supplies from PZ to HLZ. Also Provides:
``` ingress and egress routes aircraft speeds altitudes en route formations actions on enemy contact fire support ```
31
Load
personnel and sling load configuration
32
is return flight a lift
No
33
air movement table
detailed informational document that regulates the sequence of flight operations from pick up zone to landing zone
34
loading table
the air-loading table assigns personnel and major items of equipment or supplies to a specific aircraft (chalk) at the company and below level. The air loading table is an accountability tool, a loading manifest for each aircraft
35
what are some of the events that take place during the staging plan
pre-mission planning, rehearsals, AMB, final, wx call
36
what is the primary execution document at the user level that is derived from the AMT
the execution checklist
37
air ground operations definition
the simultaneous or synchronized employment of ground forces with aviation maneuver and fires to seize, retain, and exploit the initiative
38
core competencies of army aviation
provide accurate and timely information collection (recon) provide reaction time and maneuver space (security) destroy, defeat, disrupt, divert, or delay enemy forces (security/attack) air assault ground maneuver forces (air assault) air movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies (air movement) evacuate wounded or recover isolated personnel (medieval/caseevac/PR) enable mission command over extended ranges and complex terrain close combat attack is not a competency
39
List some traditional threats to army aviation operations
unguided projectiles AAA MANPADs SAMs EW capabilities Aircraft
40
what is the publication for general aviation operations outlining their functions of aviation units
FM 3-04 army aviation
41
what is DART and what is it's purpose
Downed aircraft recovery team the intent is to recover aircraft with minimal risk to soldiers and equipment involved in the operation
42
What is a ROZ and how can it affect aviation operations
restricted operations zone can impact flight operations and planning by changing routes or coordination required to enter
43
who would provide current and accurate A2C2 information to the cells
air defense and airspace management cell (ADAM cell) AMB-back brief to the air assault task force commander for approval Offensive operations - FM 3-04 army aviation - ATP 3-04.1 aviation tactical employment - ADRP 1-02 terms and military symbols - ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE
44
attack by fire
a tactical, mission task in which a commander uses direct fires supported by indirect fires to engage an enemy force without closing with the enemy to destroy suppress fix or deceive that enemy - positioned outward
45
support by fire
a tactical task In which a maneuver force moves to a position where it can engage the enemy y direct fire in support of another maneuvering force has more support; position to flank ``` restrictive = boundaries permissive = allow to move ```
46
what is a holding area
the last covered and concealed position prior to the objective used for a final recon and coordination of assets by the commander
47
what is not a consideration for fire position selection
Ammunition
48
what is defined as massing overwhelming effects of ---- | power to achieve a single purpose
concentration
49
how to make contact with enemy??? once we make contact we ______ once we have them on the run we ____
movement to contact attack ; attack forms, hasty attack-fast, deliberate attack pursuit
50
CCA is not a docturnuraly correct to, who controls me?
ground force commander when working with friendly forces enemy forces will be AMC he controls all aviation assets. all the time
51
what are the two attack form
hasty and deliberate
52
what offensive task is used to develop the situation, establish contact, or regain contact
movement to contact
53
who synchronizes aviation assets during attack against enemy forces in close friendly contact
ground maneuver commander
54
timing is critical to the successful employment of the battalion
continuous - constant same company phased - attack = two companies increased initial firepower maximum destination - all three companies simultaneously
55
recommended weapon delivery
hover fire running fire diving fire
56
what are the three employment methods for an attack
maximum destruction, posed, and continuous
57
which of the following best describes the continuous attack method
applies constant pressure on the enemy
58
what is the consideration of the appropriate munitions for the target referred to as
weaponeering
59
air check is with
ground
60
station time is
1 hour and 30 minutes play time
61
what for the aviation call for fires gives you clearances to engage
transmission of the brief
62
the direct fire plan is developed by the BN planners from
input of the company planner
63
airspace deconflict
time altitudes corridors anchor points
64
______ are not an example of airspace deconfliction used in the JAAT
observer/gun target lines
65
references
ATP 3-04.1 aviation tactical employment | ADRP 1-02 Terms and military symbols
66
army aviation reconnaissance
forces conduct combined arms reconnaissance operations to determine enemy composition and disposition as well as to gather combat information on terrain and population
67
reconnaissance operations are
conducted in support of the ground maneuver commander
68
composition = disposition =
what the force is made up of how thy are laid out
69
reconnaissance is
performed before during and after each mission all airframes
70
maintain enemy contact
locates the enemy and maintains contact with smallest force possible to prevent initial decisive engagement aviation - contact is most often gained visually through the use of sensors or direct viewing
71
orient on recon obj
a recon force tailors the scheme of maneuvers to focus on the recon objective without becoming decisively ``` Engaged Fixed Delayed or Distracted ```
72
Reporting
early and accurate reporting is critical to the successful execution of all recon ops
73
retain freedom to maneuver
mobility and maneuver are essential to successful aviation recon operations
74
Don't keep recon assets in reserve
position recon assets at the appropriate time, place and in the right combination to maximize capabilities
75
recon operations are conducted in support of who
ground commander
76
during what phase of the mission is reconnaissance conducted
all the time
77
True or false negative contact at the NAI does not need to be reported
FALSE
78
In aviation contact is most often gained visually though the use of
visually and sensors
79
tempo refers to
the level of detail and covertness required of the recon unit to best accomplish the mission
80
displacement =
when can I displace to do something else, not retrograde. Leave and follow on. Mission with someone else
81
what are the commanders reconnaissance guidance elements
focus tempo of reconnaissance engagement/ disengagement bypass criteria displacement battle handover criteria
82
what are the 4 types of tempo
rapid forceful deliberate stealthy
83
what are the three conditions under displacement criteria that triggers planned withdrawal, passage of lines, or reconnaissance hand over
event driven time driven threat driven
84
zone = area =
restrictive permissive
85
meterological conditions
ceiling and visibility density altitude wind
86
what are the types of control measures a commander uses to define a zone reconnaissance
commandos defines the zone by establishing control measures such as: lateral boundaries, LD, LOA
87
what are the tactical considerations when conducting an LZ/PZ reconnaissance
Mission Security Location
88
What are the four forms of reconnaissance
route recon zone recon area recon reconnaissance in force
89
which form of reconnaissance is the most time consuming
zone
90
are boundaries restrictive
yes
91
security operations are typically _____ and provide the combined arms team _____ of enemy activities ______ to prevent surprise and the ability to rapidly develop the situation upon gaining enemy contact
defensive in nature early and accurate warning reaction time and maneuver space
92
are security operations offensive in nature
no defensive
93
fundamentals of security ops
``` maintain threat contact orient on the protected force area or facility provide early and accurate warning provide reaction time and maneuver space perform continuous reconnaissance ```
94
forms of security
screen - early warning. Reaction time. can't in front of moving force guard - moving or stationary, need fires from the ground (rear, flank, adnate guard) cover area - aerial, convoy, route for the air local
95
what is the single most important factor in regards to graphics
common graphic
96
why is distance from the FARP to the OPs important
ensure the main body has time / space to maneuver

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