MT Laws Flashcards

1
Q

RA, approval date, president, # of sections for Philippine Medical Technology Act of 1969

A

RA 5527; June 21, 1969; Ferdinand E. Marcos; 32

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2
Q

Senate Bill number of Medical Technology Act of 2011

A

Senate Bill 2722

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3
Q

Identify whether the ff can be done only be medtech or can be done by other professionals as well:

  1. Research involving human beings or animals requiring the use of or application of Medical Technology knowledge and procedures
  2. Parasitologic, bacteriologic, mycologic, virologic or other microbiologic techniques
  3. Phlebotomy, collection, processing or preservation of spx
  4. Clinical lab quality control
  5. Blood banking procedures and techniques or other blood transfusion services
  6. Examination of tissues, secretions and excretions of the human body and other bodily fluids
  7. Preparations and standardization of rgts, stds, stains or others
  8. Histopathologic or cytotechnologic techniques
  9. Examination of tissues, secretions and excretions of the human body and other bodily fluids
A
  1. Can be done by non medtech
  2. Medtech only
  3. Can be done by non medtech
  4. Can be done by non medtech
  5. Medtech only
  6. Medtech only
  7. Can be done by non medtech
  8. Medtech only
  9. Medtech only
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4
Q

The minimum required medtech course is ____ yrs including ____ mos of internship

A

4 yrs; 12 mos

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5
Q

Who should become the chairman of Board of examiners for medtech?

A

Pathologist appointed by the president of Phils from a list submitted by the Philippine Society of Pathologists

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6
Q

Who can become the 2 members of the Board of examiners for medtech?

A

Medtechs appointed by the president of Phils from a list submitted by PAMET

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7
Q

How long is the term of the board of examiners?

A

3 yrs w/ maximum of 1 reappointment

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8
Q

Current board members and chairman

A

Chairman: Marilyn A. Cabal-Barza

Members: Marilyn R. Atienza, Marian M. Tantingco

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9
Q

Fill in the blanks:

“Qualifications of Examiners:

  1. Filipino citizen
  2. Good moral character
  3. Qualified _______ /________ (profession)
  4. Been in the practice of lab med or medtech for _____ prior to appointment
  5. Not a faculty member for _____ or have any pecuniary interest in an institution”
A

Pathologist / RMT
At least 10 yrs
At least 2 yrs

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10
Q

No person shall practice MT w/o COR unless:

A

Duly registered physician, MT from other countries including professor, MT in the service of US armed force

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11
Q

Qualification for examination

A

Good health, good moral character, completed 4-year course in BS Med Tech or BS Public Health

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12
Q

General average needed to pass board exam

A

75%

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13
Q

board exam: No rating below ____ in any major subject

A

50%

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14
Q

board exam: Has not failed in at least ___% of the subjects computed according to relative weight

A

60%

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15
Q

Board exam: no further exam after ___ (how many) fails unless:

_____ (how long) refresher course in an accredited school
_____ (how long) post-grad training in an accredited lab

A

3 fails

12-month

12-month

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16
Q

Medical lab technician: failed to pass the board exam but obtained a general rating of ____%

A

70%

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17
Q

Refusal to issue certificate:

A

Immoral or dishonorable conduct, unsound mind, incurable communicable dse

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18
Q

Administrative investigative-revocation or suspension of certificates: conducted by at least ____ (how many) board members and ____ (how many) legal officer - together they are called the ______

A

2 board members; 1 legal officer; hearing committee

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19
Q

Unanimous vote; permanent

A

Revocation

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20
Q

Majority vote; up to 2 yrs

A

Suspension

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21
Q

The decision of revocation / suspension is final after ____ (how long)

A

30 days

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22
Q

Replaced the Council of Med Tech Educ

A

Technical Panel in Medical Technology Education (TPMTE)

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23
Q

Chairman of TPMTE

A

President of PASMETH

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24
Q

TPMTE should be composed of:

A

President of PASMETH as chairman, president of PAMET, representative from Board of MedTech / PRC, representative from PAMET and PASMETH

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25
Student instructor ratio in lec and lab
40: 1 (lec) 20: 1 (lab)
26
Amendments to RA 5527 and enumerate the amended sections
RA 6138 - 16, 21, 22 PD 498 - 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 11, 13, 16, 17, 21, 29 PD 1534 - 3, 8, 13
27
Blood Bank Act of 1956 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections
RA 1517 June 16, 1956 Ramon Magsaysay 7 sections
28
National Blood Services Act of 1994 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections
RA 7719 May 5, 1994 Fidel V. Ramos 15
29
Blood bank that exists for profit
Commercial blood bank
30
Individual included in the list of qualified voluntary blood donors ready to donate blood when needed in his/her community
Walking blood donor
31
True or false: blood banks/centers may collect service fees not greater than the maximum prescribed by the DOH
True
32
Blood which have been proven contaminated with blood transfusion transmissible disease must be disposed within ____. Failure to do so leads to what punishment?
48 hrs; imprisonment up to 10 yrs
33
AO no. of the Rules and Regulations Governing the Regulation of Blood Service Facilities
2008-0008
34
Identify which BSFs can perform the ff: 1. Advocacy and promotion of voluntary blood donation and healthy lifestyle 2. Provision of whole blood and pRBC only 3. Storage, issuance, transport and distribution of whole blood and pRBC 4. Compatibility testing if hospital based 5. Recruitment, retention and care of voluntary blood donors 6. Screening and selection of voluntary blood donors 7. Conduct of health educ and counseling services 8. Collection of blood (mobile or facility-based) from qualified voluntary blood donors 9. Storage and issuance of whole blood and blood components obtained from a BC (compat testing of red cell, direct coombs, Ab screen, investigation of transfusion rxns, assist the HBTC in the conduct of post-transfusion surveillance) 10. Transport of blood to BC for testing and processing 11. Testing of units of blood for TTIs (transfusion transmitted infections) 12. Processing and provision of blood components 13. Storage, issuance, transport and distribution of units of whole blood and/or blood products to hospitals and other health facilities
1. BS, BCU, BB, BC 2. BS 3. BS, BB, BC 4. BS, BCU, BB 5. BCU, BC 6. BCU 7. BCU, BC 8. BCU, BC 9. BB 10. BCU 11. BC 12. BC 13. BC
35
Organ Donation Act of 1991 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections
RA 7170, Jan 7, 1992, Corazon Aquino, 19 sections
36
Decreased individual, includes a still-born infant or fetus
Decedent
37
Makes a legacy of all or part of his body
Testator
38
Individual authorized to donate all or part of the body of a decedent
Donor
39
Irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory fxns or of all fxns of the brain and brain stem
Death
40
Any individual (the testator) who is at least ____ yrs of age and of sound mind may execute a legacy by writing a will or through other documents
18
41
Arrange the ff according to the order of property of a person who may execute a donation ``` Son/daughter of legal age, brother or sister of legal age, spouse, either parent, guardian over the person of the decedent at time of death ```
1. Spouse 2. Son or daughter of legal age 3. Either parent 4. Brother or sister of legal age 5. Guardian over the person of the decedent at a time of death
42
Death must be diagnosed separately and certified by _____
2 qualified physicians
43
Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998 RA, approval date, president, number of articles and sections
``` RA 8504 Feb 13, 1998 Fidel V Ramos 9 articles 52 sections ```
44
Individual being tested does not reveal his or her true identity
Anonymous testing
45
Imposed testing, lack of consent
Compulsory testing
46
Finding and counseling the sexual partner(s) of a person diagnosed of STD
Contact tracing
47
HIV window period refers to the period of time, usually lasting from ____ to ____ during which an infected individual will test negative upon HIV testing but can actually transmit the infection
2 wks to 6 mos
48
Agent or device used to prevent transmission of a disease
Prophylactic
49
EO number of Family Code of the Phils
209
50
Comprehensive HIV/AIDS monitoring program established under the DOH to determine and monitor the magnitude and progression of HIV infection in the Phils
AIDSWATCH
51
Shall be the central advisory, planning, and policy-making body for the comprehensive and integrated HIV/AIDS prevention and control program in the Phils
PNAC (Philippine National AIDS Council)
52
PNAC was created by virtue of EO ____ dated ____
EO 39 | Dec 3, 1992
53
PNAC consists of how many members
26
54
Newborn Screening Act of 2004 RA, approval date, president, number of articles and sections
``` RA 9288 April 7, 2004 Gloria M Arroyo 5 articles 19 sections ```
55
Monitoring of a newborn with a heritable condition to ensure compliance with medicine and dietary prescriptions
Follow-up
56
Locating a newborn with a possible heritable condition to confirm diagnosis and provide treatment if appropriate
Recall
57
A newborn is defined as:
Child from time of delivery to 30 days old
58
Newborn screening reference center:
office under the national institute of health (NIH) in UP Manila
59
A newborn that must be placed in ICU must be tested for newborn screening by _____
7 days
60
True or False: newborn screening is compulsory
False. Parents/guardian may refuse testing
61
Enumerate the 6 parameters of newborn screening program in the philippines
PKU, galactosemia, congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH), congenital hypothyroidism (CH), G6PD deficiency, MSUD
62
Most common IEM in the Phils
MSUD
63
MSUD was added through DOH memorandum No. _______, dated _______
2015-0154 | May 15, 2012
64
Student instructor ratio in lec and lab
40: 1 (lec) 20: 1 (lab)
65
Amendments to RA 5527 and enumerate the amended sections
RA 6138 - 16, 21, 22 PD 498 - 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 11, 13, 16, 17, 21, 29 PD 1534 - 3, 8, 13
66
Blood Bank Act of 1956 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections
RA 1517 June 16, 1956 Ramon Magsaysay 7 sections
67
National Blood Services Act of 1994 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections
RA 7719 May 5, 1994 Fidel V. Ramos 15
68
Blood bank that exists for profit
Commercial blood bank
69
Individual included in the list of qualified voluntary blood donors ready to donate blood when needed in his/her community
Walking blood donor
70
True or false: blood banks/centers may collect service fees not greater than the maximum prescribed by the DOH
True
71
Blood which have been proven contaminated with blood transfusion transmissible disease must be disposed within ____. Failure to do so leads to what punishment?
48 hrs; imprisonment up to 10 yrs
72
AO no. of the Rules and Regulations Governing the Regulation of Blood Service Facilities
2008-0008
73
Identify which BSFs can perform the ff: 1. Advocacy and promotion of voluntary blood donation and healthy lifestyle 2. Provision of whole blood and pRBC only 3. Storage, issuance, transport and distribution of whole blood and pRBC 4. Compatibility testing if hospital based 5. Recruitment, retention and care of voluntary blood donors 6. Screening and selection of voluntary blood donors 7. Conduct of health educ and counseling services 8. Collection of blood (mobile or facility-based) from qualified voluntary blood donors 9. Storage and issuance of whole blood and blood components obtained from a BC (compat testing of red cell, direct coombs, Ab screen, investigation of transfusion rxns, assist the HBTC in the conduct of post-transfusion surveillance) 10. Transport of blood to BC for testing and processing 11. Testing of units of blood for TTIs (transfusion transmitted infections) 12. Processing and provision of blood components 13. Storage, issuance, transport and distribution of units of whole blood and/or blood products to hospitals and other health facilities
1. BS, BCU, BB, BC 2. BS 3. BS, BB, BC 4. BS, BCU, BB 5. BCU, BC 6. BCU 7. BCU, BC 8. BCU, BC 9. BB 10. BCU 11. BC 12. BC 13. BC
74
Organ Donation Act of 1991 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections
RA 7170, Jan 7, 1992, Corazon Aquino, 19 sections
75
Decreased individual, includes a still-born infant or fetus
Decedent
76
Makes a legacy of all or part of his body
Testator
77
Individual authorized to donate all or part of the body of a decedent
Donor
78
Irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory fxns or of all fxns of the brain and brain stem
Death
79
Any individual (the testator) who is at least ____ yrs of age and of sound mind may execute a legacy by writing a will or through other documents
18
80
Arrange the ff according to the order of property of a person who may execute a donation ``` Son/daughter of legal age, brother or sister of legal age, spouse, either parent, guardian over the person of the decedent at time of death ```
1. Spouse 2. Son or daughter of legal age 3. Either parent 4. Brother or sister of legal age 5. Guardian over the person of the decedent at a time of death
81
Death must be diagnosed separately and certified by _____
2 qualified physicians
82
Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998 RA, approval date, president, number of articles and sections
``` RA 8504 Feb 13, 1998 Fidel V Ramos 9 articles 52 sections ```
83
Individual being tested does not reveal his or her true identity
Anonymous testing
84
Imposed testing, lack of consent
Compulsory testing
85
Finding and counseling the sexual partner(s) of a person diagnosed of STD
Contact tracing
86
HIV window period refers to the period of time, usually lasting from ____ to ____ during which an infected individual will test negative upon HIV testing but can actually transmit the infection
2 wks to 6 mos
87
Agent or device used to prevent transmission of a disease
Prophylactic
88
EO number of Family Code of the Phils
209
89
Comprehensive HIV/AIDS monitoring program established under the DOH to determine and monitor the magnitude and progression of HIV infection in the Phils
AIDSWATCH
90
Shall be the central advisory, planning, and policy-making body for the comprehensive and integrated HIV/AIDS prevention and control program in the Phils
PNAC (Philippine National AIDS Council)
91
PNAC was created by virtue of EO ____ dated ____
EO 39 | Dec 3, 1992
92
PNAC consists of how many members
26
93
Water Analysis AO number
AO 31 s. 1979
94
Water analysis labs should be under the supervision of
Licensed sanitary engineer
95
In areas w/o a licensed sanitary engineer, the ff may provisionally supervise water analysis operation
Licensed chemist, med tech, pharmacist
96
Licensed chemist, med tech, pharmacist may supervise water analysis in the absence of licensed sanitary engineer. However, they should have at least _____
At least 3 yrs training and experience in a water analysis lab
97
Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 RA number, approval date, president, articles and sections
``` RA 9165 January 23, 2002 Gloria M Arroyo 13 articles 102 sections ```
98
RA 9165 repeals ____
RA 6425 The Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972
99
The RA 6425 approval date, president, number of articles and sections
March 30, 1972 Ferdinand Marcos 10 articles 40 sections
100
Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs
Clandestine Lab
101
Where dangerous drugs are administered, delivered, stored, distributed, sold or used
Den, dive, resort
102
Organized grp of 2 or more person joining together to commit offense of RA 6125
Drug syndicate
103
Person who consents to the unlawful acts of RA 6125 and prevents the arrest of violators
Protector / coddler
104
Person who sells, trades, administers, dispenses, delivers dangerous drugs
Pusher
105
Responsible for the efficient and effective law enforcement of all provisions in this act
PDEA (philippine drug enforcement agency)
106
Marijuana other names
Cannabis, indian hemp
107
Shabu other names
Ice, meth, methamphetamine hydrochloride
108
Ecstasy other names
MDMA (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
109
Mandatory drug testing or random drug testing 1. Applicants for driver’s license 2. Students of secondary and tertiary schools 3. applicants for firearms license and permit to carry firearms outside of residence 4. officers and members of the military, police, and other law enforcement agencies 5. Officers and employees of public and private offices whether domestic or overseas 6. candidates for public office, persons with a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of imprisonment of not less than 6 yrs and 1 day 7. persons apprehended or arrested for violating RA 9165
1. Mandatory 2. Random 3. Mandatory 4. Mandatory 5. Random 6. Mandatory 7. Mandatory
110
National reference lab for environmental and occupational health, toxicology, micronutrient assays, and associated social problems related to drug abuse and malnutrition
East Avenue Medical Center
111
Classification of drug testing lab 1. Ownership 2. Institutional character 3. Service capability
1. Govt or private 2. Institution-based or freestanding 3. Screening lab or confirmatory lab
112
Floor area and work area of screening lab for drug testing
Floor area of at least 20 sq meters | Work area of 10 sq meters with exhaust fan, sink, and storage cabinet
113
Floor area and work area of confirmatory lab for drug testing
Floor area: at least 60 sq meters | Work area: 30 sq meters with exhaust fan, stock room and instrumentation room
114
Screening and confirmatory labs for drug testing must have an area that can acommodate at least _____ at a time, handwashing facility, toilet facility and stall for collection of spx
5
115
Accredits drug testing labs
DOH
116
Screening lab for Drug testing is supervised by ____
Licensed physician
117
Maximum drug testing screening labs in an area
10 labs within 5 Km
118
If the drug testing lab is a part of a clincal lab, it may be headed by
Licensed physician, chemist, MT, pharmacist, or chem eng
119
Confirmatory lab for drug testing should be supervised by
Licensed physician or licensed chemist with a master’s degree and 2 yrs experience
120
Spx with confirmed positive drug test results which are not challenged _____ (how long) after receipt shall be discarded
15 days
121
Spx for drug test may be kept for a maximum of ____ upon request
1 yr
122
Test results of drug test are valid for _____ (how long) from the date of issue
1 yr
123
PRC Modernization Act of 2002 RA, approval date, president, sections nos
RA 8981 Dec 5, 2000 Joseph E. Estrada 21
124
Current commissioners of PRC Chairman and commissioners
Chairman: Teofilo S. Pilando Jr Commissioners: Yolanda D. Reyes, Jose Y. Cueto Jr
125
PRC stands for
Professional Regulation Commission
126
PRC was created by PD ____ and repealed by RA _____
PD 223 | RA 8981
127
PRC is headed by how many chairperson/s and how many commissioner/s
1 chairperson, 2 commissioners
128
The chairperson and commissioners of PRC is appointed by ______ for a term of ______ (how long) with ______ (how many) reappointments
The president 7 yrs No reappointment
129
Chairperson and commissioners of PRC qualifications: 1. Age 2. At least _____ (how long) executive or management experience
1. At least 40 yrs of age | 2. At least 5 yrs
130
PRC resolutions and executive orders: 1. ______ delisting names of delinquent professionals from roll of registered professionals 2. ______ removal of names from the annual roster for delinquency 3. _______ admission of foreigners to the licensure exam 4. ______ full computerization of licensure exam 5. _______ non-admission of examinees arriving late during the licensure exam
1. Res 217 2. Res 428 3. Res 323 4. EO 200 5. Res 2004-211
131
Higher Education Act of 1994 RA, approval date, president, number of sections
RA 7722 May 18, 1994 Fidel V Ramos 21 sections
132
CHED shall be the governing body for ______ and _____ education
Tertiary; graduate
133
CHED memorandum orders 1. Curriculum for the common 2-yr Associate in Health Science Educ (AHSE) 2. Prohibiting Higher Educ Institutions (HEIs) from forcing their grads and graduating students to enroll in their own review centers and/or review centers of their preference 3. Policies, standards, and guidelines for medtech educ 4. Guidelines for the accreditation of clinical labs involved in the training of MLS/MT interns 5. Policies, standards and guidelines for the BSMT/MLS program
1. CMO 27 s 1998 2. CMO 13 s 2006 3. CMO 14 s 2006 4. CMO 6 s 2008 5. CMO 13 s 2017
134
All tertiary clin labs that are licensed by the _____ can apply for accreditation with _____ as training labs for interns
DOH; CHED
135
Renewal of accreditation for training labs happens every ___
2 yrs
136
Intern should render _____ duty hours per week times _____ weeks per year for a total of _____ hours
32 52 1664
137
Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016
RA 10912
138
Under resolution No. 2019-1146 there will be a transition period wherein: 1. ______ are not covered by CPD requirement 2. Neely licensed professionals are not covered by CPD requirement for _____ (how long) 3. From ____ CPD units down to ____ CPD units
1. Professional OFWs 2. 1st renewal 3. 45 to 15
139
Oldest preserved Egyptian compilation of medical texts containing chapters on intestinal diseases , parasites, etc. It described 3 stages of hookworm infection
Ebers Papyrus
140
The oldest known tests performed on body fluids was done on ____
Urine
141
The father of medicine who described the four humors: blood, phlegm, yellow bile and black bile
Hippocrates
142
Invented the optical microscope
Zacharias and Hans Janssen
143
Regarded as the founding father of modern anatomic pathology
Marcello Malpighi
144
Created the compound microscope and is considered the father of microbiology
Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
145
The first clin lab in the US
University of Michigan Hospital
146
Opened a teaching lab at Bellevue Medical College and the first physician recruited to be a professor at the John Hopkins University
Dr. William Welch
147
Wrote the book Clinical diagnosis: a manual of laboratory methods
James Campbell Todd
148
Edited the book which was renamed clinical diagnosis and management by laboratory methods
John Bernard Henry
149
Was the first to offer medical technology program in 1923
University of Minnesota
150
Med tech was introduced by the ____ in the Phils
6th infantry division of the US army
151
Where the first clin lab was built in the Phils
208 Quiricada St. Sta Cruz, Manila
152
_____ reorganized the lab in Sta. Cruz, later named the _____
Dr. Alfredo Pio de Roda and Dr. Mariano Icasiano Manila Public Health Laboratory
153
Offered a training program for those interested to work as med technicians
Dr alfredo pio de roda and dr prudencia sta ana
154
Created a formal syllabus for a 6 month training program
Dr sta ana
155
The first 4 yr BS med tech program was offered by ____ and the ____
Philippine union college | Manila sanitarium
156
Founder of medical technology educ in the phils; prepared the course curriculum and put up the 1st medical technology school in the phils
Mrs Willa Hilgert-Hedrick
157
First grad of PUC in 1956 was _____ who became an OB-gyne
Dr Jesse Umali
158
National org of all registered med tech
Philippine association of medical technologists (PAMET)
159
Pamet was formed by ____ who is considered the father of pamet
Crisanto G Almario
160
PAMET was born at 10 am at the _____ on _____
Manila Public Health Lab | Sep 15, 1963
161
The first PAMET national convention was held in ____ on ____ (the year was placed in the PAMET logo)
FEU | Sep 20, 1964
162
Core values of PAMET
Professionalism Unity Commitment Excellence
163
What is the meaning of each of the following parts of the PAMET logo? 1. Circle 2. Triangle 3. Green 4. Microscope and snake 5. 1964
1. Continuous involvement 2. Love, respect and integrity 3. Health 4. Medical technology profession 5. 1st PAMET election
164
Identify the PAMET president: 1. Emergence of the profession 2. Legislative agenda 3. Career advocacy 4. Image building 5. Educational enhancement 6. Celebration of the profession 7. Interdisciplinary networking 8. Proactivism 9. International leadership 10. Organizational dynamism 11. Empowerment 12. Global perspective 13. Golden celebration 14. Professional recognition
1. Charlemagne Tamondong 2. Felix Asprer 3. Angelina Jose 4. Carmencita P. Acedera 5. Venerable CV Oca 6. Bernardo Tabaosares 7. Shirley Fabian-Cruzada 8. Marilyn R. Atienza 9. Norma Chang 10. Agnes Medenilla 11. Rolando Puno 12. Leila Florento 13. Romeo Joseph Ignacio 14. Nardito Moraleta
165
Identify which PAMET president: 1. Approval of RA 5527 2. Philippine med tech week 3. LABNEWS = official newsletter of PAMET 4. Shortest term 5. Longest term 6. PAMET website 7. PAMET mission-vision 8. PAMET link = current newsletter of PAMET 9. Beloved PAMET 10. Revised code of ethics 11. Soar higher through VOICE 12. Research forum for professionals and students during med tech week 13. Launching of “Alagang Safeguard, Alagang Nanay” ad campaign w/ P&G 14. PAMET NEWS = 1st official newspaper
1. Nardito Moraleta 2. Bernardo Tabaosares 3. Carmencita Acedera 4. Angelina Jose 5. Carmencita Acedera 6. Shirley Fabian-Cruzada 7. Shirley Fabian-Cruzada 8. Norma Chang 9. Carmencita Acedera 10. Norma Chang 11. Romeo Joseph Ignacio 12. Leila Florento 13. Agnes Medenilla 14. Nardito Moraleta
166
Identify which PAMET president: 1. 1st lady president of PAMET 2. First to serve two terms 3. Monthly quiz tests 4. Inclusion of hazard pay for med tech 5. Monthly seminars for CPE 6. Amendments to Teves Law regarding salaries of medical professionals 7. 1st MT board exam was conducted by the 1st board of examiners 8. PAMET was accredited as a bonafide professional org with the PRC 9. PAMET was registered with the securities and exchange commission 10. Approval of professional tax through the BIR 11. Medtech prayer
1. Angelina Jose 2. Felix Asprer 3. Venerable Oca 4. Marilyn Atienza 5. Venerable Oca 6. Bernardo Tabaosares 7. Nardito Moraleta 8. Felix Asprer 9. Bernardo Tabaosares 10. Angelina Jose 11. Norma Chang
167
National organization of all registered schools of med tech in the Phils
Philippine Association of Schools of Medical Technology and Public Health (PASMETH)
168
PASMETH was formed by ______ on _____
Dr serafin juliano and Dr gustavo reyes On 1970
169
The first pasmeth meeting was held in _____ (place) on _____ (date)
UST | June 22, 1970
170
First pasmeth president
Dr gustavo reyes
171
Current pasmeth president
Dean Bernard Ebuen
172
1st official pamet newspaper
Pamet news
173
Current newsletter of pamet
Pamet link
174
Title of pamet hymn
Beloved pamet
175
Music of beloved pamet was made by
Francis jerota pefanco
176
Lyrics of beloved pamet was made by
Hector Gentapanan Gayares Jr
177
Original version of MT code of ethics was made by ____
Nardito Moraleta
178
Revised version of MT code of ethics was made by ____
Norma Chang
179
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 1. Accept the ______ inherent to being a _____
Responsibilities Professional
180
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 2. Uphold the _____ and shall not participate in ______
Law Illegal work
181
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 3. Act in a strict spirit of _____ to all and in a spirit of _____ toward other members of the profession
Fairness Brotherhood
182
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 4. Accept _____ from more than one employer only when there is no ______
Employment Conflict of interest
183
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 5. Perform my task with full ______, absolute ______, and _______
Confidence Reliability Accuracy
184
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 6. Share my ______ and ______ with my _______
Knowledge Expertise Colleagues
185
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 7. Contribute to the ________ of the professional organization and other _______
Advancement Allied health organizations
186
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 8. Restrict my _____, ______, ______, and _____ within ______ limits.
``` Praises Criticisms Views Opinions Constructive ```
187
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 9. Treat any information I acquired in the course of my work as ______
Strictly confidential
188
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 10. Uphold the _____ and ______ of my profession and conduct myself a reputation of ______, ______, and ______
``` Dignity Respect Reliability Honesty Integrity ```
189
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 11. Be dedicated to the use of clinical laboratory science to _____ and _____
Promote life | Benefit mankind
190
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: 12. Report any ______ of the above principles of the professional conduct to authorized agency and to the ______ of the organization
Violation Ethics committee
191
# Fill in the blanks (code of ethics): As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall: .... To these principles, I hereby ______ and _______ to conduct myself at all times in a manner befitting the dignity of my _______.
Subscribe Pledge Profession
192
An update entitled Philippine HIV and AIDS Policy Act
RA 11166
193
RA 11166 was approved on ______ under president ______
Dec 20, 2018 | Duterte
194
Regarding RA 11166: refers to the legal principle that recognizes the capacity of some minors to consent independently to medical procedures, if they have been assessed qualified by health professionals to understand the nature of procedures and their consequences to make a decision on their own.
Mature minor doctrine
195
RA 11166 mature minor doctrine lowers the age of consent to voluntary HIV testing from ____ to ____ yrs old
18 to 15
196
PLHIV stands for:
Person living with HIV
197
In RA 11166, the PNAC shall contain how many members?
21
198
In RA 11166, the PNAC’s permanent chairperson shall be ____
The secretary of health
199
Who is the current secretary of health and is therefore the current PNAC chairperson?
Dr. Francisco Duque III
200
An update entitled Mental Health Act
RA 11036
201
RA 11036 was approved on _____ under president _____
June 20, 2018 | Duterte
202
Recite the titles of the 32 sections of RA 5527
1. Title 2. Definition of Terms 3. Council of Medical Technology Education, Its Composition 4. Compensation and Traveling Expenses of Council Members 5. Functions of the Council of Medical Technology Education 6. Minimum Required Course 7. Board of Examiners for Medical Technology 8. Qualifications of Examiners 9. Executive Officer of the Board 10. Compensation of Members of the Board of Examiners for Medical Technology 11. Functions and Duties of the Board 12. Removal of Board Members 13. Accreditation of Schools of Medical Technology and of Training Laboratories 14. Inhibition Against the Practice of Medical Technology 15. Examination 16. Qualification for Examination 17. Scope of Coverage and Examination 18. Report of Rating 19. Ratings in the Examination 20. Oath Taking 21. Issuance of Certificate of Registration 22. Fees 23. Refusal to Issue Certificate 24. Administrative Investigation-Revocation or Suspension of Certificate 25. Appeal 26. Reinstatement, Reissue or Replacement of Certificates 27. Foreign Reciprocity 28. Roster of Medical Technologists 29. Penal Provisions 30. Separability Clause 31. Repealing Clause 32. Effectivity