MTA Exam Flashcards
1
Q
To test connectivity to a server, the simplest command to use is?
A
Ping
2
Q
To test DNS by performing a DNS query, you should use the ? command.
A
Nslookup
3
Q
? is used with masquerading to hide an entire address space behind a single IP address.
A
NAT
4
Q
When dealing with office 365 sign‐in problems, you must make sure that users have the correct 3 things ?
A
Username and password,
internet access,
right url’s
5
Q
When a mobile device accesses email from Office 365, it uses ?
A
ActiveSync
6
Q
Clients using Office 2016 can retrieve email from Office 365 by using ?
A
Outlook online
7
Q
If Opening with File Explorer does not work, you should make sure that the SharePoint Online sites are added to your ?
A
Trusted websites zone
8
Q
When a site is deleted by mistake, you can restore the site from the ?
A
Sharepoint recycle bin
9
Q
When you experience poor video quality with Skype, you should look for ?
A
Connectivity issues
10
Q
To check access to Skype, you should use the ? site
A
Heartbeat.skype.com
11
Q
Which command allows you to see the IP configuration, including the DNS servers and default gateway?
A
Ipconfig /all
12
Q
Which command is used to show the route that packets take when accessing a specific server?
A
Tracert
13
Q
Which server or device can be used to funnel users when users are accessing the Internet and provides better security by hiding internal IP addresses?
A
Proxy server
14
Q
Which of the following is the easiest way to activate a Microsoft application?
A
Internet
15
Q
You are running Skype for Business to connect to an online meeting. While you have no trouble logging on, you are having problems with video as well as desktop sharing. Which is the best course of action for resolving this issue?
A
Check to see if any firewalls are blocking the ports used by audio, video, and desktop sharing.
16
Q
Users are having trouble accessing Office 365. What 2 things are most likely the problem?
A
a. The trial period for the software has expired
b. Windows or Office was not activated.
17
Q
Word Online is locking up for a user and that user often has to restart Word. There appears to be no other problems with the system. What is the recommended course of action?
A
Repair office
18
Q
You have a large file that is 2.4 GB that you want to load into SharePoint. However, it fails every time. What is most likely the problem?
A
Your file upload limit is 2 GB
19
Q
Which of the following tools is used to test connectivity to ActiveSync and to test autodiscovery?
A
Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
20
Q
Which of the following is the default retention period for deleted objects in SharePoint Online?
A
90 days
21
Q
When you change a resource record on a DNS zone and you want the client to see the change immediately, you should run ?
A
Ipconfig /flushdns
22
Q
When a user cannot access the Internet while working from the corporate offices, you should check proxy settings. T/f?
A
True
23
Q
When using SharePoint Online, the recommended browsers are the newest versions of Internet Explorer, Chrome, or Firefox.
A
Yes
24
Q
When OneDrive is not syncing properly, what command will cause OneDrive data to resync.
A
OneDrive.exe /reset
25
SharePoint uses a two‐level Recycle Bin, what are each called?
Sharepoint recycle bin and site collection bin
26
You are an administrator for the Contoso Corporation and a user cannot connect to Office 365. Describe your 3 step troubleshooting methodology.
1. Verify host settings with ipconfig
2. Use ping to gather to test dest address, loopback, local ip, remote gateway, remote computer
3. Identify each hop or router using. Tracert or pingpath
27
What does the netstat tool do?
Detect all ports that are being listened on by running apps
28
What are the dhcp commands
Ipconfig /renew or /release
29
If default gateway is invalid should you be able to communicate with internal/local hosts on same network
Yes
30
If DNS is wrong will you be able to resolve names?
No
31
If a computer is configured to receive IP from a DHCP server and gets no response what automatic IP will it use?
169.254.xxx.xxx mask: 255.255.0.0
32
What 3 things does ping help you test?
Reachability, name resolution, and delay
33
Name 5 options used with ping
- t ping until stopped
- a reverse name resolution on ip
- n number of times to ping
- 4 ipv4 protocol
- 6 ipv6 protocol
34
What does tracert do?
Traces the route a packet takes to destination, showing the routes/hops in the path
35
What protocol does tracert use?
ICMP
36
What is difference between tracrt and pathping?
Pathping shows more detail for the hops
37
Why might ICMP requests fail?
Some routers block ICMP traffic to prevent DOS attacks
38
What does nslookup do?
Troubleshoot name resolution. Enter a hostname to get ip or reverse
39
How do you view a dns cache or refresh it?
Ipconfig /flushdns and ipconfig /displaydns
40
What does NAT do?
Network address translation - maps local to global ip's and back
41
What are the Private IP ranges?
10. 0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255
192. 168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255
172. 16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255
42
When a proxy server is being used do Office 365, Intune and Azure traffic go through the proxy?
Yes
43
Name 3 possible sign-in and pwd issues with 365?
User name format: username@domainname.com or user@domain.onmicrosoft.com
15 min Lockout after 10 failed attempts
License not activated
44
Does Win64 support 32 bit and 16 bit programs?
Yes for 32 bit, no for 16 (use a 16 bit vm is workaround)
45
Does office 365 have OS requirements?
No
46
What Windows OS does Office 2016 365/Proplus support?
Windows 7 and higher
47
What tool do you use to fix Installation issues?
Office Repair
48
What is a common source of problems for Office issues?
Add-ins - check by disabling them
49
How is email and calendar info delivered to mobile or desktop apps?
ActiveSync
50
What protocol does office 365 desktop use to access email?
MAPI over http
51
What 4 things to check/try when troubleshooting Office 365 email issues?
- check if email is working in cloud (mail.office365.com)
- check if updates are needed
- repair outlook profile or create new profile and test
- use outlook connection status tool remote connection analyzer (testconnectivity.microsoft.com)
52
Can an outlook mailbox and a delegated mailbox share the same profile?
No, add the delegated mailbox as an additional mailbox
53
What technology does one drive for business use under the covers?
SharePoint
54
Sharepoint online has what limitations:
- per user?
- per site collection?
- personal site storage per user?
- items synced to library?
- file upload limit?
- how many subsites per collection?
- 500 MB per user
- 1 TB per site collection
- 1 TB personal site storage
- 5k items synced
- 2GB file size
- 2000 sub sites
55
How long are deleted files available for in OneDrive?
90 days
56
What are some of the 8 issues to check/try with OneDrive?
- try manual sync
- make sure user is signed in
- check one drive sync engine
- 10 GB file size limit
- download troubleshooter
- check files for unallowed chars
- blocked by group policy?
- exe /reset
57
Does Skype for business require unrestricted outgoing tcp access to all destination ports above 1024?
Yes
58
Mailboxes, resources, contacts and groups are examples of ?
Recipients
59
A ____________ is a mailbox that is associated with one or more users and is assigned an external email address.
Shared mailbox
60
Smartphones and tablets can connect to Exchange Online to get emails using an email application by using ____________.
ActiveSync
61
When a smartphone that retrieves email from Exchange Online is stolen, you can perform a ____________ command to remove corporate and user information stored on the device.
Wipe
62
Viruses, spyware, rootkits and Trojan horses are examples of ____________.
Malware
63
In SharePoint, a ____________ is a grouping of sites that have the same site owner and share the same administrative settings.
Site collection
64
A ____________ allows users to stay in tune with conversations between groups of people and to see updates about their activities.
Office 365 group
65
A ____________ defines the color schemes of a SharePoint site.
Theme
66
To simplify access to your OneDrive storage area on your computer running Windows 10, you should use the ____________.
One Drive desktop app
67
____________ enables users to use instant messaging with coworkers.
Skype
68
In Office 365, what is a shared workspace for email, conversations, files, and calendar events?
Office 365 group
69
What does SCL in email filtering stand for?
Spam Confidence Level
70
What are SCL number ranges that control spam?
```
1 = safe
0-1 = clean
5-6 = spam
9 = strait to junk
```
71
You notice that a lot of spam is coming from a specific IP address. Which feature blocks those spam messages on Exchange Online?
Configure a connection filter
72
Which of the following is offered by Office 365 as an upgrade to newsfeeds?
Yammer
73
When you share a SharePoint site in Office 365, what 2 methods can be used to share the site content?
share the whole site by sending invites to sign in with a Microsoft Account or an Office 365 user ID
share individual documents with external users by sending invites to sign in with a Microsoft Account or an Office 365 user ID.
74
If you have 100 users, what is the default allocated storage space for SharePoint Online?
60 GB
75
What is the formula for calculating amount of storage allocated for sharepoint site?
10 GB + 500 MB per user
76
Which browsers can be used when you are using Skype for Business through an authenticating HTTP proxy?
Internet Explorer 8 or later.
77
Mailboxes, resources, contacts and groups are examples of ?
Recipients
78
A ____________ is a mailbox that is associated with one or more users and is assigned an external email address.
Shared mailbox
79
Smartphones and tablets can connect to Exchange Online to get emails using an email application by using ____________.
ActiveSync
80
When a smartphone that that retrieves email from Exchange Online is stolen, you can perform a ____________ command to remove corporate and user information stored on the device.
Wipe
81
Viruses, spyware, rootkits and Trojan horses are examples of ____________.
Malware
82
In SharePoint, a ____________ is a grouping of sites that have the same site owner and share the same administrative settings.
Site collection
83
A ____________ allows users to stay in tune with conversations between groups of people and to see updates about their activities.
Office 365 group
84
A ____________ defines the color schemes of a SharePoint site.
Theme
85
To simplify access to your OneDrive storage area on your computer running Windows 10, you should use the ____________.
One Drive desktop app
86
____________ enables users to use instant messaging with coworkers.
Skype
87
In Office 365, what is a shared workspace for email, conversations, files, and calendar events?
Office 365 group
88
What does SCL in email filtering stand for?
Spam Confidence Level
89
What are SCL number ranges that control spam?
```
1 = safe
0-1 = clean
5-6 = spam
9 = strait to junk
```
90
You notice that a lot of spam is coming from a specific IP address. Which action blocks those spam messages on Exchange Online?
Configure a connection filter
91
Which of the following is offered by Office 365 as an upgrade to newsfeeds?
Yammer
92
When you share a SharePoint site in Office 365, what 2 methods can be used to share the site content?
share the whole site by sending invites to sign in with a Microsoft Account or an Office 365 user ID
share individual documents with external users by sending invites to sign in with a Microsoft Account or an Office 365 user ID.
93
If you have 100 users, which of the following is the default allocated storage space for SharePoint Online?
60 GB
94
What is the formula for calculating amount of storage allocated for sharepoint site?
10 GB + 500 MB per user
95
Which browsers can be used when you are using Skype for Business through an authenticating HTTP proxy?
Windows 7, Windows 8/8.1, Windows 10, Windows Server 2008 R2, or Windows
Internet Explorer 8 or later.
96
With Microsoft Intune, what is used to install a Windows Store application without using the Windows Store?
Side loading
97
What is deep-linking?
Provides a link directly to an app in the store
98
Multiple users are working from their home offices and thus are often not connected to the corporate network. What can be used to ensure that their computers have the necessary security updates from Microsoft?
Microsoft Intune
99
Which feature of Microsoft Intune is considered more effective than automatically installing updates using Windows Updates?
Microsoft Intune provides you with an opportunity to test the updates before pushing them to the clients.
100
After you create a shared mailbox, you need to change the password to Null?
False
101
If you are not a member of an Office 365 private group, you cannot send emails to the private group?
False
102
By default, when email is identified as spam based on the SCL value, that email is sent to the junk email folder.
True
103
What is EOP and what 5 benefits does it provide?
Exchange Online Protection
- Malware filtering
- Outbound spam control
- Spam quarantine
- Connection filtering
- Content filtering
104
What 4 features does Skype for business online offer?
- instant messaging
- Voice over IP
- video conferencing
- can use contacts available from Microsoft Outlook/Microsoft Exchange Servers)
105
If you forget to include a file within your synch folder how can you retrieve it?
Fetching
106
What is Intune endpoint protection (3 items)?
real‐time protection against malware threats,
keeps malware definitions up‐to‐date,
automatically scans computers.
107
What is SharePoint?
Suite of services that provides a web site/portal
| allows users to organize, retrieve, collaborate
108
What is a connection filter?
Email filtering based on IP addresses with separate allow and block lists.
109
What is a content filter ?
automatically add spam processing headers and assign a spam confidence level to the messages before delivery to user mailboxes.
110
What does EOP do to an email message?
Inserts an X‐Forefront‐Antispam‐Report header (X‐header) into the message to show how the email message was processed.
111
What is a malware filter/policy?
In Office 365, a malware policy defines:
- what happens when malware is detected
- malware rule that defines who the policy applies to
112
Name 4 type of mail enabled Active Directory objects
- mailboxes, shared mailboxes
- resources
- groups
- contacts
113
Do shared mailboxes have usernames and passwords?
No
114
What type of objects represent a resource mailbox?
Conference room or projector
115
What are the 2 types of groups?
- distribution group
| - security group
116
What is an office 365 group?
Shared workspace for files, email conversations, and calendar. Can be public or private
117
What type of protocol does ActiveSync use?
Xml over https
118
How do you set up a spam filter?
Point dns at dedicated filter device
119
What is RBL?
Realtime black list, uses a reverse lookup to check email origin using the DNS PTR record
120
What is SPF?
Sender Policy Framework, while list of safe IP's
121
What are the 2 components of Intune?
- web based admin console
| - Intune client
122
Intune Admin console allows creation and deployment of what control feature?
Policies
123
What type of reports can you run with Intune?
- computer Inventory
| - detected software
124
What is default frequency of intune software updates?
8 hours (up to 22 max)
125
When using Office 365, ____________ is used for identity management and access control.
Azure Active Directory
126
The ____________ has full access to all administrative features in Office 365.
Global Administrator
127
When you would like a Microsoft partner to manage Office 365, the partner becomes a ?
Delegated Administrator
128
The easiest way to manage Office 365 issues is to subscribe to the ____________.
RSS feed
129
What is the url for managing Microsoft Intune?
manage.microsoft.com
130
____________ rights allow the administrator to reset passwords and manage user accounts and groups.
User Management Administrator
131
____________ provides information about software installed on computers in your organization.
Intune
132
In Office 365, the ____________ includes accounts created manually with the Office 365 Admin Portal.
Online Identity
133
In Microsoft Intune, to enroll Windows devices, you must deploy the Windows Phone 8 ?
Intune client software
134
Skip
?
135
Which tool should be used to ensure that your Active Directory users are available in Office 365?
DirSync
136
Before users can enroll their devices, they must be members of a Microsoft Intune user group?
True
137
What are the 5 Office 365 roles?
- Global Administrator: Has access to all administrative features.
• Billing Administrator: Manages purchases, support tickets, and subscriptions; monitors the overall health of the services.
• Password Administrator: Manages requests for services, resets passwords, and monitors the overall health of the services. Users in this role can reset passwords only for users and other Password Administrators.
• Service Administrator: Manages service requests and monitors overall health of services.
• User Management Administrator: Manages user accounts and user groups, resets passwords, and manages service, monitor the overall health of services.
138
What 4 types of groups does office 365 offer?
GMSD
- Groups
- Mail‐enabled security groups
- Security groups
- Distribution lists
139
To authenticate through Azure AD, what are the 3 web‐authentication protocols?
(SOW)
SAML
OAuth 2
WS-Federation
140
To integrate with an on‐premises Active Directory environment, you can use one of 3 methods?
- DirSync
- AD FS
- AD DS (Directory Services)
141
What url do you use to administer office 365?
https://portal.office.com/Admin
142
What is the most common form of authentication?
Password
143
Office 365 supports what 3 sign-in/identity models?
OSF
- Online identity (Also known as account identity): Accounts are created manually with the Office 365 Admin Center
- Synchronized identity: Accounts are based on an on‐premises directory, such as Active Directory, and are synchronized with directory sync/password sync.
- Federated identity: Accounts are based on an on‐premises directory, such as Active Directory, but user passwords are verified by the on‐premises identity provider.
144
Should you install DirSYNC on a domain controller?
No
145
When can you specify a user location in Office 365?
- on creation
| - when editing license
146
How many days of health info can you see in 365?
7 days initial, click to see 30 days and planned maintenance
147
Are Intune groups the same as AD groups?
No
148
Skip
Skip
149
What os does intune run on?
Xp, vista,win 7,8,10
150
Does self enroll in intune require user admin priveleges?
Yes
151
What must you do before you can enroll mobile devices in intune?
Select MDMA (mobile device management authority)
152
What are 3 methods of setting up intune group?
DCM (doves cry)
Direct
Criteria
Mixed
153
When deploying intune policies should you make sure clients dont receive conflicting GPO SETTINGS?
Yes
154
Where are subscriptions managed in intune?
Account portal
| account.manage.microsoft.com
155
In the AD Federated model do you need to sync passwords as well?
No, federated identity model requires a synchronized identity, but user passwords are verified by the on‐premises identity provider.
156
What are the 3 ways to create users in office 365?
Admin Portal
Windows PowerShell
CSV
157
What is Proplus licensing?
Adds up to 5 macs or pcs
158
Which type of group is used to send emails to multiple users at once without giving security access to other objects?
Distribution list
159
In Microsoft Intune, you want the helpdesk personnel to manage service requests and to reset passwords. Which role should be assigned to the helpdesk personnel?
User management role
160
Which two object types can be added to Microsoft Intune groups?
Users and devices (never in same group)
161
Which 3 options are available to deploy the Microsoft Intune client?
USA
Using an image
Self enrollment through company portal
Administrative deployment
162
In Microsoft Intune, which administrator manages subscriptions and purchases?
Billing admin
163
Which policy allows you to make a PIN mandatory for smartphones managed by Microsoft Intune?
Mobile device security policy
164
In Office 365, which identity model has accounts in Active Directory but user passwords are verified by the local domain controllers?
Federated identity
165
Intune supports 2 types of admin roles which are ?
- Tenant Administrator: Has full control and rights regarding the Admin Console. (create at least 2)
- Service Administrator: Has full access to the Microsoft Intune Admin Console and can perform all operations, including adding or deleting another Service Administrator account. They cannot modify data in the console
166
Several users are unable to connect to Office 365, but you are able to log on to Office 365. What is the fastest action that should be taken to check for issues?
Sign up for rss feed to quickly look at subscription status
167
When a user is removed from Office 365, the data is retained for ? days before it is permanently deleted.
30 days
168
The Microsoft Intune Tenant Administrator has full control of Microsoft Intune.
True
169
To open a support request for Microsoft Intune, you should always use the Microsoft Intune Admin Console.
False, other methods such as phone as well
170
If you want Microsoft Office, SharePoint, Exchange, voicemails, and Skype for Business Online, for your large corporation, you will need to use the ____________ licensing plan.
E4
171
Does 365 support IPv6?
Although Office 365 does support IPv6, not all Office 365 features are fully enabled using IPv6.
172
What 3 tools are helpful in determining the bandwidth requirements for deploying 365?
- Exchange Client Network Bandwidth Calculator: Used predict the network bandwidth requirements for a specific set of clients.
- OneDrive for Business Synchronization Calculator: A calculator used to estimate the bandwidth that a OneDrive for Business client deployment will require.
- Office 365 Network Analysis Tool: Helps analyze network‐related issues prior to deploying Office 365 services.
173
Name 5 office 365 plans
- Personal: Includes Word, Excel, PowerPoint, OneNote, Outlook, Publisher, and Access for home/non‐commercial use on one computer (PC or Mac) plus access to premium features on one tablet or phone. It also gives 1 TB of additional OneDrive storage and 60 minutes of Skype international calls per month.
* Home: Targeted for mainstream consumers and families. It has the same features as Personal except that it can be used on as many as five devices by up to five users.
* ProPlus: Offers access to the Office 2016 Professional Plus applications for up to 25 users on up to five devices per user.
* Business Essentials: Targeted for small businesses. It offers access to hosted Exchange, SharePoint, and Skype for Business Online services only.
* Business: Offers desktop apps for both Macs and PCs for as many as five computers per users.
* Business Premium: Combines Business Essentials and Business to include hosted Exchange, SharePoint and Skype for Business Online services, with desktop apps for Macs and PCs.
* Enterprise (E3): Offers access to all Office applications, hosted Exchange, and SharePoint, with enterprise‐specific legal compliance features and support.
* Enterprise (E4): Offers everything that E3 offers as well as Enterprise voice/enterprise calling capabilities.
174
When you sign up with the service, you start with two initial domains, what are they?
Onmicrosoft.com and a sharepoint domain
175
What plans are required to use your own domain name?
requires a Small Business, Midsize Business, or Enterprise version of Office 365.
176
What is the url to manage 365?
(https://portal. office.com)
177
What port does DNS use?
53
178
DNS is a hierarchical system consisting of a tree of domain names. At the top of the tree is ?
Root zone
179
How many domains are allowed in each dns zone?
One or many and can be served by a name server
180
Can the administrative responsibility for a zone be delegated?
The administrative responsibility over any zone can be delegated or divided by creating a subdomain, which can be assigned to a different name server and administrative entity.
181
Each node or leaf in the tree is called ?
A resource record RR
182
What is an A (AAAA) record do?
Holds the host name and associated ip address
183
A domain name consists of one or more labels. Each label can be up to ? characters.
63
184
The fully qualified domain name cannot exceed a total length of ? characters
253
185
The right‐most label in a domain name designates ?
The top level domain
186
The hierarchy of domains descends in which direction?
Right to left
187
Each label to the left in a domain name specifies ?
a subdomain of the domain or label on the right
188
Second‐level domains are registered to ?
individuals or organizations
189
Second‐level DNS domains can have ?
many subdomains, and any domain can have hosts
190
What is a host?
A host is a specific computer or other network device in a domain. Which has one or more ip addresses
191
Break down the following domain name into its components: server1.corporate.contoso.com
Com = root domain
192
Breakdown server1.corporate.contoso.com
```
Com = root domain
Contoso = company sub domain of root
Corporate = sub domain of contoso
Server1 = host of sub domain
```
193
What does each resource record contain?
Each record has a type, an expiration time limit, and some type‐specific data.
194
When you create a new zone, which two types of records are automatically created?
- Start of Authority (SOA) record: Specifies authoritative information about a DNS zone, including the primary name server, the e‐mail of the domain administrator, the domain serial number, and the expiration and reload timers of the zone
- Name Server (NS) record: Specifies an authoritative name server for the host.
195
What are 5 of the most common resource records?
- Host (A and AAAA) record: Maps a domain/host name to an IP address
- Canonical Name (CNAME) record: Sometimes referred to as an Alias, maps an alias DNS domain name to another primary
- Pointer (PTR) record: Maps an IP address to a domain/host name
- Mail Exchanger (MX) record: Maps a DNS domain name to the name of a computer that exchanges or forwards e‐mail for the domain
- Service Location (SRV) record: Maps a DNS domain name to a specified list of host computers that offer a specific type of service, such as Active Directory domain controllers
196
What is the only record in the reverse zone?
PTR record
197
What is subscription model of intune
Per user
198
What 3 configurations can intune be deployed ?
- Stand‐Alone Cloud Configuration
• Microsoft Intune Cloud + On‐premise
• Microsoft Intune + System Center Configuration Manager
199
What communication requirements does intune have so it can manage devices?
Microsoft Intune requires that your firewalls will pass communications between the managed devices and your Microsoft Intune services.
200
What Os can you install Intune?
Windows Vista Business, Enterprise and Ultimate • Windows 7 Professional, Enterprise or Ultimate • Windows 8/8.1 Pro or Enterprise • Windows 10 Pro or Enterprise
201
What browsers does the intune portal support?
Internet Explorer 9 or later • Google Chrome • Mozilla Firefox
202
If you sign up for intune and specify a company name of contoso what will be the domain name?
contoso.onmicrosoft.com
203
What 2 users are created when you sign up for Intune?
tenant administrator and service administrator
204
What are the 2 admin sites created for intune?
Microsoft Intune Account Portal and the Microsoft Intune Admin Console.
205
Where is the hypervisor sit in between when installed?
hypervisor is installed between the hardware and the operating system and is the main component that manages the virtual computers
206
What is a partition
A partition is a logical unit of storage in which operating systems are hosted.
207
What 3 files does each virtual machine use?
- A virtual machine configuration (.xml) file in XML format that contains the virtual machine configuration information, including all settings for the virtual machine
- One or more virtual hard disk (.vhd or .vhdx) files to store the guest operating system, applications, and data for the virtual machine
- A virtual machine may also use a saved‐state (.vsv) file, if the machine has been placed into a saved state.
208
What is the Microsoft Azure Fabric Controller (FC)?
is responsible for provisioning and monitoring Azure compute instances.
209
What is the combined azure sla?
entire application is 99.65%, which gives you 151 minutes of downtime per month.
210
What is azure site recovery?
Microsoft Azure Site Recovery is a software component used to orchestrate protection for virtual machines that are located on on‐premises Hyper‐V host servers located in the VMM cloud.
211
If you want Microsoft Office, SharePoint, Exchange, voicemails, and Skype for Business Online, for your large corporation, you will need to use the ____________ licensing plan.
E4
212
The subscription funding model is the same as ?
Pay as you go
213
If you want to monitor your cloud applications from multiple locations, you should use the?
Global SCOM (Systems Center Operations Manager)
214
The ? service model provides the hardware for servers, storage, and networking—usually in the form of a standardized virtual server environment.
IAAS
215
? Service model allows several companies to use the same cloud products.
Paas
216
Which type of cloud service is Office 365?
Productivity Services
217
Which pay model should be used with Office 365?
Pay as you go
218
You need to purchase several servers. Which funding model should be used for your corporation?
CapEx
219
Which of the following allows you to change the cloud resources based on the required workload?
Elasticity
220
Which type of cloud is delivered on a physical infrastructure that is used by a single organization?
Dedicated public cloud
221
The SLA will specify the limitation of liability for a cloud provider.
True
222
What is EMS?
Enterprise Mobility Suite
- AAD
- INTUNE
- Azure rights management rms
223
What is capex and opex?
Capex - funds use for physical assetts like server, hardware...
Opex - funds used for business operations like employees, office space
224
What is Public Cloud?
Web based service outside of an org
225
What is shared public cloud?
Service shared by multiple companies or tenants
226
Private cloud?
Services contained within corporate network
227
Hosted private cloud?
Colocation
228
Hybrid cloud?
Mixed public and private
229
Name 6 concerns for Managing data privacy
Back that ass up Dre!
- Backed up and where
- Accessed
- Stored
- Security breaches
- DR and BC
- Legal and compliance
230
What is difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption ?
Symmetric - single key used to encrypt and decrypt
| Asymmetric - used a public key to encrypt and a private key to decrypt
231
How long should the encryption keys be for data at rest?
2048 min to 4096 ideal (store keys offsite)
232
TLS encryption is an extension of what?
SSL 3.0
233
5 Security Basics for cloud dilligence considerations
P2P
- Perimeter
- Hypervisor
- Storage
- Change management
- Policy (audit)
234
What are 2 Microsoft cloud monitoring tools?
- SCOM
| - System Center global service monitor
235
Name some of the 10 Considerations for moving to public cloud?
CC-DD-OPM-SSS
- Compliance costs
- Customization and Integration costs
- Data transfer costs
- Data Center infrastructure costs/savings
- Operational support costs/savings
- Platform costs, licensing, middleware
- Managing multiple environments
- Storage costs
- Software maint costs
- Server costs or savings
236
What are 5 steps for moving to cloud?
1, Assess your current IT strategy
2. Future technology needs
3. Explore cloud options
4. Create hybrid cloud strategy/plan
5. Plan for implementation
237
When you move to the cloud, you will need to determine which of 3 types of cloud deployment you want to use (?) and which of the 3 service model that you want to implement (?).
Public, Private, or Hybrid
| SaaS, PaaS, or IaaS
238
Although the cloud has been available for some time and the cloud capabilities are still growing, there have been some significant outages from big cloud providers. Therefore, you need to thoroughly review the agreement between your organization and the cloud provider.
True
239
Cloud computing takes the next step; instead of virtualizing servers, it virtualizes datacenters.
True
