multi choice questions in book Flashcards
(169 cards)
1
Q
Nurses and midwives should work with miler health-related departments because:
a) it is important to meet as many other health professionals as possible
b) everyone will be conducting the same research
c) this will help describe the common aspects Of patient care for the various disciplines
d) the hospital administrators will then know how much research is being conducted.
A
c) this will help describe the common aspects Of patient care for the various disciplines
2
Q
Research findings, no matter what the outcome, should be published because:
a) everyone wants to know what research has been done
b) everyone enjoys reading about the research findings c) all studies arc worth publishing
d) this is the best way for the nursing and midwifery communities to know what research has been done.
A
d) this is the best way for the nursing and midwifery communities to know what research has been done.
3
Q
Evidence-based nurses ask whether there is a scientific basis for the care they deliver in order to:
a) provide the most effective care for their clients
b) make certain they can evaluate findings correctly
c) convince their colleagues to change practice
d) change their practice regularly.
A
a) provide the most effective care for their clients
4
Q
Clinical governance was first described as:
a) a system designed to ensure research findings are being used
b) a system designed to ensure continuing education programs
c) a system designed to ensure continuous improvement of clinical practice
d) a system designed to ensure the immediate implementation of research findings in clinical practice
A
c) a system designed to ensure continuous improvement of clinical practice
5
Q
In the future nurses and midwives may overcome their funding disadvantage by
a) writing longer and more interesting proposals
b) working collaboratively with other health professionals c) working on a project as independent researchers
d) submitting their proposals to a larger number of funding agencies
A
b) working collaboratively with other health professionals
6
Q
Nursing and midwifery emphasise cultural aspects of nursing care because:
a) Australia and New Zealand are multicultural countries b) equity of access to healthcare for the whole community is a fundamental
c) not all cultures need the same services
d) many nurses and midwives come from culturally diverse backgrounds
A
b) equity of access to healthcare for the whole community is a fundamental
7
Q
The Royal College of Nursing Australia and the New Zealand Nurses Organisation:
a) want all nurses to conduct research
b) do not think that all research is important
c) think that all nurses should undertake higher degrees in nursing
d) want to promote research as an integral part of nursing practice.
A
d) want to promote research as an integral part of nursing practice.
8
Q
Nurses and midwives, whether consumers or producers of research or both:
a) need to recognise the research process as contributing to the professionalism of their discipline
b) need to understand that only senior nurses should be involved in research
c) want all research findings to be implemented in Practice
d) want every nurse and midwife to be involved in writing research proposals
A
a) need to recognise the research process as contributing to the professionalism of their discipline
9
Q
A research consumer is one who:
a) wants to join a research team to participate in the conduct of research
b) wants to change practice in the area clinical
c) wants to read critically and evaluate research findings for implementation into nursing practice
d) wants to conduct research in the clinical area.
A
c) wants to read critically and evaluate research findings for implementation into nursing practice
10
Q
Nurses and midwives do not always conduct research because:
a) they find it difficult to translate findings into practice
b) they think that their practice is good enough
c) they do not have the time to change their practice
d) they find it difficult to conduct research in the clinical area.
A
a) they find it difficult to translate findings into practice
11
Q
Research frameworks serve as a frame of reference from which researchers can either predict or explain their:
a) study methods
b) study designs
c) study inputs
d) study outcomes.
A
d) study outcomes.
12
Q
The first part of the research process involves:
a) identify-ring the problem/issue
b) critically searching and reviewing the available primary (research-based) and conceptual (theory-based} literature
c) identifying research ideas, questions, statements or hypotheses
d) all of the above
A
d) all of the above
13
Q
The term positivist or ‘positivism’ refers
a) philosophical position reflecting the traditional scientific approach of subjective observation and causal relationships
b) philosophical position reflecting the traditional scientific approach of objective observation and nursing relationships
c) philosophical position reflecting the traditional scientific approach of objective observation and causal relationships
d) philosophical position reflecting the traditional scientific approach of subjective observation and nursing relationships.
A
c) philosophical position reflecting the traditional scientific approach of objective observation and causal relationships
14
Q
Critical and interpretive research paradigms generally use:
a) qualitative methods to examine a phenomena of interest
b) quantitative methods to examine phenomena of interest
c) qualitative methods to examine hypotheses
d) quantitative methods to examine hypotheses.
A
a) qualitative methods to examine a phenomena of interest
15
Q
The most likely cause for ‘paradigm tension’ is:
a) a researcher feeling anxious about research
b) a representation that one research paradigm is more superior over another
c) when two different paradigms are used in one study
d) when only one paradigm is used.
A
b) a representation that one research paradigm is more superior over another
16
Q
The first step in becoming a knowledgeable research consumer involves:
a) understanding, how to conduct research
b) understanding the language’ of research
c) understanding how research works, its underpinning theories and what methods and processes it adopts
d) understanding how research impacts on nursing practice
A
c) understanding how research works, its underpinning theories and what methods and processes it adopts
17
Q
Research is guided by the following concepts (and related questions):
a) ontology, epistemology and methodology
b) ontology, epistemology and oncology
c) ontology, pedagogy and methodology
d) ontology, pedagogy and dermatology.
A
a) ontology, epistemology and methodology
18
Q
Further delineation of qualitative and quantitative research is outlined in a common classification of research paradigms. These being:
a) deductive, inductive and productive
b) positivist, critical and interpretive
c) negativist, uncritical and interpretive
d) positivist, critical and productive.
A
b) positivist, critical and interpretive
19
Q
You find that most of the articles retrieved during an electronic search of the literature are not useful. Which of the following is the next best step to follow:
a) use the articles obtained, knowing that there has been little research in this area
b) change the keywords and do another search
c) change the study and focus of the literature review
d) use a print index to retrieve older papers
A
b) change the keywords and do another search
20
Q
The following words or phrases describe either primary or secondary sources. Place a P next to those describing primary sources and an S next to those describing secondary sources.
a) summaries of’ research studies
b) first-hand accounts of participant? interviews
c) biographies
d) textbooks
e) patient records
f) reports written by the researcher
g) doctoral or master’s theses.
A
a) summaries of’ research studies S
b) first-hand accounts of participant interviews P
c) biographies S
d) textbooks S
e) patient records P
f) reports written by the researcher P
g) doctoral or master’s theses. P
21
Q
A refereed journal:
a) publishes both articles and critiques of studies
b) is indexed in a bibliographic database
c) uses a panel of reviewers to review submitted papers for possible publication
d) is retrievable Online.
A
c) uses a panel of reviewers to review submitted papers for possible publication
22
Q
How many years is it necessary to go back in the literature for an evidence-based
project:
a) I year is sufficient
b) 5 years is preferred
c) 10 years is expected
d) all literature is to be included
A
b) 5 years is preferred
23
Q
CINAHL stands for:
a) Cumulative Indicators to Nursing and Allied Health Literature
b) Cumulative Index to Nursing and Aligned Health Literature
c) Comparative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature
d) Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature
A
d) Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature
24
Q
Impact factors (IF) are:
a) bibliometric measurement of citation rates
b) bibliometric measurements of factor rates
c) bibliometric measurements of article
rates
d) bibliometric measurements of standard rates.
A
a) bibliometric measurement of citation rates
25
A summary table assists in:
a) collecting a broad range of literature
b) summarising the weaknesses of studies
c) tracking the generalisability of studies
d) synthesising key characteristics from studies.
d) synthesising key characteristics from studies.
26
A systematic review is the most appropriate type of review to examine:
a) descriptive and exploratory studies
b) cause and effect experimental studies
c) studies in a meta-synthesis
d) level III studies.
b) cause and effect experimental studies
27
Which of the following is an example of 'grey literature': a) abstracts from an online bibliographical database
b) abstracts in a printed proceedings from a conference c) full-text papers in a published journal
d) an abstract of a primary study in a textbook.
b) abstracts in a printed proceedings from a conference
28
The characteristics of a literature review include:
a) evidence of a comprehensive search of the literature b) a review of mainly secondary sources of literature
c) summaries of overall strengths and weaknesses
d) a logical flow using themes or categories.
i a,b and c
ii. a, c and d
iii b, c and d
iv. . all of the above.
b) a review of mainly secondary sources of literature
29
Nursing and midwifery research studies should contribute to:
a) a list of the authors' publications
b) specific areas of practice they consider important
c) the faculty's research profile
d) the knowledge base of the discipline.
d) the knowledge base of the discipline.
30
A review of the literature is:
a) to identify' different ways of writing research studies
b) to find all the articles your colleagues have published
c) a systematic and critical review of published papers
d) a way of contacting authors
c) a systematic and critical review of published papers
31
Why is it that many clinical researchers experience problems in answering their research questions
a) They do not formulate them correctly in the first place. b) Because the researchers lack experience.
c) It isn't really necessary to have research questions in the first place.
d) They find it difficult to identify the appropriate question.
a) They do not formulate them correctly in the first place.
32
An operational definition:
a) explains how an operation is performed
b) specifies the measures, procedures and operations required to measure a concept
c) helps clarify the research problem
d) answers the research question.
b) specifies the measures, procedures and operations required to measure a concept
33
Hypothesis testing is used to answer such questions as:
a) Is there a reason for doing the research study?
b) Will the findings be valid?
c) Are the predictions reliable?
d) Is there a difference between the two groups?
d) Is there a difference between the two groups?
34
In qualitative studies the phenomena of interest are explored:
a) within an holistic and humanistic context
b) only in a community context
c) only in the clinical area
d) with a single focus group of people.
a) within an holistic and humanistic context
35
A research hypothesis is also known as:
a) directional hypothesis
b) a scientific hypothesis
c) a non-directional hypothesis
d) null hypothesis.
b) a scientific hypothesis
36
Research questions can be used instead of hypotheses in:
a) only qualitative studies
b) qualitative, exploratory and descriptive studies
c) only quantitative studies
d) any study where neither research questions nor hypotheses are needed.
b) qualitative, exploratory and descriptive studies
37
The wording of the research question should be different from:
a) the objectives of the study
b) a description of the design
c) the purpose or aim of the study
d) the context of the study.
c) the purpose or aim of the study
38
If a study does not show a statistical significance:
a) it should not be published
b) it can still contribute to the database of nursing and midwifery knowledge
c) the study should be replicated immediately
d) the findings should not be disclosed.
b) it can still contribute to the database of nursing and midwifery knowledge
39
When the researcher notifies a person of any proposed participation in research, which of the following ethical requirements is being met?
a) respect for justice
b) respect for privacy
c) beneficence
d) respect for autonomy.
d) respect for autonomy.
40
The qualitative researcher used pseudonyms when quoting the participant's narrative in the published study so met the requirement for:
a) respect for justice and equity
b) respect for privacy
c) beneficence
d) respect for autonomy.
b) respect for privacy
41
By selecting only unemployed men for the study and promising to pay them a substantial amount of money to be in the experimental group, the researcher did not meet the requirement for:
a) respect for justice and equity
b) respect for privacy
c) beneficence
d) respect for autonomy.
a) respect for justice and equity
42
The researcher acknowledged in the information sheet that talking about experiences of the death of a child might he emotionally painful. By setting up access to counselling services for participants, the researcher met the requirement for:
a) respect for autonomy
b) respect for justice
c) beneficence
d) respect for privacy.
c) beneficence
43
The main of an institutional or regional ethics committee in Australia or New Zealand is to:
a) protect research participants from harm
b) protect the institutions involved from adverse publicity c) protect the researchers from criticism
d) Protect the funding authority of the research.
b) protect the institutions involved from adverse publicity
44
The statement about vulnerable participants that is not true ts:
a) vulnerable participants are less able to understand what is involved if they take part in the study
b) vulnerable participants find it difficult to understand how risky the study may be
c) vulnerable participants cannot communicate their wishes about taking part in the study
d) vulnerable participants are those people less likely to be harmed.
d) vulnerable participants are those people less likely to be harmed.
45
Research involving indigenous people has special ethical concerns because:
a) such groups arc a different culture from the rest of the population
b) such groups have been exploited by researchers in the past
c) such groups have leaders who may refuse
access to participants
d) such groups tend to live in remote areas.
b) such groups have been exploited by researchers in the past
46
Research misconduct refers mainly to:
a) a study that has been poorly conducted
b) a study that is unscientific
c) errors in data analysis or interpretation
d) fabrication or falsification of research results.
d) fabrication or falsification of research results.
47
Therapeutic research is
a) research that may benefit future patients but not those acting as research participants
b) research investigating different forms of treatment that ranks the most effective (therapeutic) to the least effective
c) research that gives the patient an opportunity to receive experimental treatment that may have beneficial effects
d) the therapeutic effect experienced by participants sharing distressing experiences in qualitative research
c) research that gives the patient an opportunity to receive experimental treatment that may have beneficial effects
48
Informed consent in research involves:
a) a person being informed that they ate study participant and about the nature of the study
b) a person agreeing to participate in a study after receiving information about the nature of the study and being told the experimental drug may cure them
c) a person signing a consent form for a research study after receiving information about the nature of the study and what it mill involve for them personally
d) a person freely agreeing to participate in a study after receiving information about the nature of the study and what it will involve for them personally.
d) a person freely agreeing to participate in a study after receiving information about the nature of the study and what it will involve for them personally.
49
Qualitative research's main aim is to
a) investigate issues that quantitative research is unable to
b) understand naturally occurring social phenomena
c) include participants in the research
d) determine what patients think about nurses
b) understand naturally occurring social phenomena
50
Qualitative research, by its nature, is usually:
a) deductive, emic, naturalistic and holistic
b) interpretive, etic, naturalistic and holistic
c) interpretive, emic, naturalistic and holistic
d) deductive, etic, naturalistic and holistic.
c) interpretive, emic, naturalistic and holistic
51
According to many, the main advantage of qualitative descriptive exploratory approaches to research is:
a) they are easier to manage
b) they don't use complicated terminology
c) they do not limit the researcher to a particular philosophical worldview
d) they can incorporate a variety of different perspectives.
c) they do not limit the researcher to a particular philosophical worldview
52
Husserlian phenomenology is associated with:
a) lebenswelt, epistemology bracketing, descriptive phenomenology
b) lebenswelt, ontology, bracketing, interpretive phenomenology
c) dasein, epistemology, bracketing, descriptive phenomenology
d) dasein, ontology, bracketing, interpretive phenomenology.
d) dasein, ontology, bracketing, interpretive phenomenology.
53
Heideggerian phenomenology is associated with:
a) lebenswelt, epistemology, descriptive phenomenology
b) lehenswelr, ontology, interpretive phenomenology
c) dasein, epistemology, descriptive phenomenology
d) dasein, ontology, interpretive phenomenology.
d) dasein, ontology, interpretive phenomenology.
54
The hermeneutic circle describes:
a) the fact that life experiences go around and around
b) the fact that life cycles go around and around
c) the historical, cultural and personal preconceptions from which understanding is developed
d) the process by which all life is understood
c) the historical, cultural and personal preconceptions from which understanding is developed
55
Grounded theory aims to:
a) develop a well-rounded theory for use later research b) develop theoretical explanation for socially constructed events and ideally generate hypothesis for further research
c) develop a rationale for linking qualitative findings to quantitative findings
d) develop theoretical explanation for experimentally constructed events and ideally generate hypothesis for further research.
b) develop theoretical explanation for socially constructed events and ideally generate hypothesis for further research
56
Grounded theory originates from and has been further developed by:
a) Strauss and Corbin
b) Strauss and Chopin
c) Glaser and Corbin
d) Glaser and Strauss.
d) Glaser and Strauss.
57
Ethnography has its origins in:
a) quantitative research
b) feminist research
c) historical research
d) anthropology
d) anthropology
58
Ethnography typically includes:
a) the study of cultures, fieldwork, surveys, insider/outsider reality
b) the study of cultures, fieldwork, observation, insider/outsider reality
c) the study of individuals, fieldwork, observation, insider/outsider reality
d) the study of individuals, laboratory work, observation, insider/outsider reality.
b) the study of cultures, fieldwork, observation, insider/outsider reality
59
In sampling, the inclusion criteria indicate:
a) characteristics or properties of the chosen sample that the researcher would not want them to possess
b) characteristics or properties of the chosen sample that the researcher would most want them to possess
c) characteristics or properties of the sample that the researcher would find most attractive
d) characteristics or properties of the chosen sample that the researcher would find most attractive
b) characteristics or properties of the chosen sample that the researcher would most want them to possess
60
What is the most common method used for collecting qualitative data:
a) questionnaire
b) interview
c) observation
d) survey.
b) interview
61
Which group of participants below would represent a judgement sample
a) all the people working in a hospital
b) specialist nurses recommending other specialist nurses
c) specialist nurses working in intensive care
d) all in patients in a hospital
c) specialist nurses working in intensive care
62
when sampling methods are applied to data already collected, this is called:
a) data sampling
b) information sampling
c) theoretical sampling
d) non-theoretical sampling
c) theoretical sampling
63
When interviewing, starting off with simple and broad questions to help case the participant into the process is referred to as:
a) nurturing
b) channeling
c) funneling
d) easing
c) funneling
64
Observational methods can employ which of the following approaches:
a) in place participant; participant as observer; observer as participant; and absolute observer
b) complete participant; participant as observer; observer as participant; and absolute observer
c) absolute participant; participant as observer; observer as participant; and in place observer
d) complete participant; in place observer; in place participant; and complete observer
b) complete participant; participant as observer; observer as participant; and absolute observer
65
A. qualitative researcher knows that it is not useful to collect any further data:
a) when they sense that this is the case
b) when the participants say that they have nothing more to say
c) when data saturation/redundancy of data is reached
d) when data overload is reached.
c) when data saturation/redundancy of data is reached
66
A form of methodological triangulation applies when:
a) participants are mixed up
b) different methods for collecting data art employed in the same study
c) different methods for collecting data are employed in different studies
d) the data collection methods are mixed up
b) different methods for collecting data art employed in the same study
67
The Hawthorne effect, in observational research, is when:
a) participants behave in different ways than they would normally
b) participants are observed when the research is concealed from them
c) the researcher becomes totally integrated into the community being researched
d) there is more than one observer and observations are integrated for objectivit
a) participants behave in different ways than they would normally
68
observation techniques are most commonly used in
a) phenomenology
b) grounded theory
c) historical research
d) ethnography
d) ethnography
69
Constant comparative data analysts involves:
a) collection of all data then analysis of that delta
b) sequential segments of data collection and data analysis
c) analysis of data during the collection of data
d) cyclical collection of data by one method, then analysis of that data collection of data by another method, then analysis of that data, and so on.
d) cyclical collection of data by one method, then analysis of that data collection of data by another method, then analysis of that data, and so on.
70
The term 'theoretical saturation' means:
a) the use of several theories to validate the research approach
b) using too many theories during data analysis
c) developing ,hill testing a theory
d) a process associated with grounded theory in which further data collection produces no new insights.
d) a process associated with grounded theory in which further data collection produces no new insights.
71
Which of the following may be the focus of discourse analysis:
a) the content and structure of language
b) how discourses influence our understanding of the world
c) social practices and power relationships
d) all of the above.
b) how discourses influence our understanding of the world
72
Data analysis in ethnography primarily uses
a) open. axial and selective-coding
b) constant comparison
c) participant observation
d) holistic description and thematic analysis.
d) holistic description and thematic analysis.
73
In grounded theory data analysis, the which allows formation of a theory- with Validated relationships among concepts including selection and refinement of a core category is called:
a) axial-coding
b) theoretical saturation
c) selective-coding
d) open-coding.
c) selective-coding
74
A subsidiary process of qualitathe data analysis is making notes as the data are examined. This is:
a) coding
b) transcribing the data
c) diagramming
d) memoing
d) memoing
75
Methods to avoid an overly biased interpretation of the data may include
a) asking peers external to the study to review the analysis
b) providing an audit trail that allows others to draw conclusions about the data
c) providing examples from the original data to illustrate the identified themes when writing up
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
76
Meta-synthesis of qualitative research results is NOT:
a) the process of developing new knowledge through rigorous analysis of existing qualitative research findings
b) a method where differences are retained and complexity highlighted
c) an evolving methodological approach to qualitative research findings
d) a meta-summary that aggregates the findings of a range of studies in a target field of research.
d) a meta-summary that aggregates the findings of a range of studies in a target field of research.
77
The purpose of qualitative data is to
a) establish cause and effect relationships
b) order the data to enhance understanding
c) manipulate the data to answer the research question
d) all of the above
b) order the data to enhance understanding
78
Which of the following may characterise qualitative data
a) unorganised
b) rich, thick descriptions
c) voluminous
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
79
Quantitative research uses numbers, counts and statistical. tests. True / False
True
80
A study using questionnaires with numerical scores to examine feelings, perceptions and social effects is a qualitative study. True / False
False
81
Administration of an intervention to one group of participants and not another is an experimental study. True / False
True
82
Bias is introduced when factors extraneous to the study influence the findings.
True / False
True
83
Non-experimental correlation studies are used frequently in nursing and midwifery research so that the findings from this design can be generalised to larger populations
True / False
False
84
A time series design has two groups identical to the true experimental design plus an experimental after-group and a control after-group.
True / False
True
85
A true experiment design includes three properties randomisation, control and manipulation.
True / False
True
86
Control is implemented in the design of a study by manipulation of the outcome variable
True / False
False
87
A randomised controlled trial is the most powerful type, of design for examining cause-and-effect relationships.
True / False
True
88
When data are collected multiple times before and after the introduction of the intervention, the study is a non-equivalent control group design.
True / False
False
89
In quasi-experimental designs, one of the characteristics of a true experimental design is lacking.
True / False
True
90
Loss to follow-up is one of the potential disadvantages of longitudinal studies.
True / False
True
91
The purpose of sampling is to: .
a) make predictions about the study
b) generalise the findings to the population
c) increase the efficiency of a research study
d) recruit as any participants as possible.
c) increase the efficiency of a research study
92
Eligibility criteria reflect the:
a) randomness of a sample
b) population criteria
c) number of participants in a study
d) willingness of people to participate in a study
b) population criteria
93
The population criteria establish the:
a) way a sample is drawn
b) representativeness of a sample
c) number of participants in a study
d) target population.
d) target population.
94
A convenience sample:
a) allows generalisability of the findings to the population b) gives everyone an opportunity to participate in a study c) is made up of the most readily available and accessible persons
d) is made up of people who enjoy being part of a research study
c) is made up of the most readily available and accessible persons
95
Sample size is determined: -
a) while recruitment of participants is taking place
b) after the study has started
c) once the consent forms have been signed
d) prior to commencement of the study.
d) prior to commencement of the study.
96
primary characteristic of probability sampling
a) the random selection of elements fro the population b) the opportunity to generalise the findings of the study to the Population
c) to select participants who meet the criteria of the study d) to ensure the findings will be credible.
a) the random selection of elements fro the population
97
stratified random sampling divides the population into strata that are:
a) heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) purposefully chosen for the study
d) different for each conceptual category
b) homogeneous
98
The study criteria identify:
a) the group of people who want to participate in the study
b) the target population
c) all the participants already enrolled in the study
d) The specific characteristics required for participants.
d) The specific characteristics required for participants.
99
Criteria for inclusion/exclusion in a stud are designed to: a) control for any bias or extraneous variability
b) keep the wrong people out of the stud
c) get the best people into the study
d) control for a confounding effect on the dependent variable.
a) control for any bias or extraneous variability
100
Random allocation or assignment:
a) allows participants to choose the group they want to join
b) places participants in specific groups based on age, gender and education
c) participants are randomly assigned to a treatment or control group
d) excludes some participants from the study
c) participants are randomly assigned to a treatment or control group
101
Which of the following is not consistent with a Likert Scale:
a) it contains close-ended items.
b) it contains open-ended items
c) it contains lists of statements
d) items are evaluated on the amount of a.greement.
b) it contains open-ended items
102
Controlling for extraneous variables and eliminating potential alternative explanations for study findings means eliminating:
a) threats to validity.
b) independent variables
c) a priori Control
d) randomisation of participants
a) threats to validity.
103
```
Which of the following are most likely operational definitions of variables: .
a) verbalised satisfaction with care received
b) health-related quality of life
c) pain rated on a scale of 1 to 10
d) heart function.
i a and b
ii. a and c
iii. b and c
iv. a and d
```
b) health-related quality of life
104
A researcher used an instrument to measure self-esteem in adolescent mothers. To measure the validity of this second instrument known to measure self--esteem in adult women was also being used What type of validity was being tested
a) predictive validity
b) face validity
c) concurrent validity
d) hypothesis-testing .
c) concurrent validity
105
A Cronbach's alpha co-efficient of 0.80 indicates that the:
a) frequency in each category V is different from what would be expected by chance
b) instrument actually measure the concepts it was intended to measure
c) instrument is consistent, that is data are collected consistently.
c) instrument is consistent, that is data are collected consistently.
106
The degree of consistency in data collection between two researchers is called:
a) inter-rater reliability
b) reactivity
c) de-briefing
d) cross-rater validity.
a) inter-rater reliability
107
Either random error (R) or systemic error (S) may occur in a research study. For each of the following examples, identify the type of measurement error and how the error might be corrected.
a) The scale used to obtain daily weights was inaccurate by 500 g less than actual weight.
b) Students chose the socially acceptable responses on an instrument to assess attitudes towards AIDS patients.
c) Confusion existed among the evaluators on how to score the wound healing.
d) Participants were nervous about taking the psychological tests.
Either random error (R) or systemic error (S) may occur in a research study. For each of the following examples, identify the type of measurement error and how the error might be corrected.
a) The scale used to obtain daily weights was inaccurate by 500 g less than actual weight. S
b) Students chose the socially acceptable responses on an instrument to assess attitudes towards AIDS patients S
c) Confusion existed among the evaluators on how to score the wound healing. R
d) Participants were nervous about taking the psychological tests. R
108
Homogencity is a measure. of internal consistency. All items on an instrument should be complementary and measure the same characteristics or concepts. For each of the following examples, identify which of the following tests for homogeneity are described:
- Item--total correlation
- Split-hall reliability
- Cronbach's alpha.
a) The odd items of the test have a high correlation with the even numbers of the test.
b) Each item on the test using a 5-point Likert Scale had a moderate correlation with every other item on the test. c) Each item on the test ranged in correlation from 0.62 to 0.89 with the total.
d) Each item on the true--false test had a moderate correlation with ever t other item on the test.
C-Item--total correlation
A-Split-hall reliability
B-Cronbach's alpha.
109
```
Tests that are used to estimate the stability
of an instrument include:
a) test—retest reliability
b) parallel reliability
c) Cronbach's alpha.
i. a and b
ii. a and c
iii.b and c
iv. a and d.
```
b) parallel reliability
110
In reliability testing, what test is used for items with a dichotomous response format:
a) Cronbach's alpha
b) hypothesis-testing
c) alternate-form
d) Kuder-Richardson.
d) Kuder-Richardson.
111
When a variety of measurement strategies is used. to examine the relationships between instruments that purport to measure the same construct and between those that should. measure different ?constructs, this approach is called a:
a) contrasted groups approach
b) convergent approach
c) multi-trait multi-method approach
d) divergent approach
c) multi-trait multi-method approach
112
The distribution of sample means will approximate to the:
a) population mean
b) curve of the distribution
c) normal distribution
d) sample mean
c) normal distribution
113
Variance is a measure of variability that includes
a) every score in the distribution
b) the highest scores
c) the lowest scores
d) most of the scores in the distribution
a) every score in the distribution
114
A non-parametric test can Operate:
a) when measurements assume a normal curve
b) without the assumptions about the normality of the distributions
c) with any measurement of central tendency
d) only when means and SDs are calculared.
b) without the assumptions about the normality of the distributions
115
parametric tests are not
a) used with ordinal scale measurements
b) more robust than non-parametric measurements
c) more likely to reject the null hypothesis
d) more accurate at identifying significant differences
a) used with ordinal scale measurements
116
if measurements were at the interval level what test of difference would be used to analyse the data
a) the sign tests
b) chi-square tests
c) t test
d) median test
c) t test
117
If the power of a study is low, what could the researcher manipulate to improve power:
a) increase the sample size
b) decrease the effect size
c) decrease the sample size
d) alter the significance level from 0.05 to 0.01.
a) increase the sample size
118
Power is a measure of:
a) the probability of making a type 1 error
b) the probability of making a type II error
c) the probability of accepting the null hypothesis
d) die probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true.
b) the probability of making a type II error
119
If measurements were at the ordinal level, what test of difference would be used to compare two independent groups:
a) chi-square
b) one-way analysis of variance
c) t test
d) Mann-Whitney U test
d) Mann-Whitney U test
120
Correlation is a measure of association, but does not determine:
a) the magnitude of the relationship
b) the direction of the relationship
c) cause and effect relationships
d) the significance of the relationship
c) cause and effect relationships
121
Multivariate analyses are used to establish relationships between several variables based on:
a) common variance shared amongst variables
b) error variance of each variable
c) unique variance of each variable
d) bivariate relationships.
a) common variance shared amongst variables
122
The main value of using mixed-methods research in nursing is it:
a) allows the researcher to understand a wider range of research methods
b) helps researchers champion particular research paradigms
c) offers a higher probability that the conducted research will be viewed as complete and comprehensive
d) assists in reducing research error.
c) offers a higher probability that the conducted research will be viewed as complete and comprehensive
123
Data triangulation involves:
a) prioritising data into discrete groups in a single study b) using a variety of data sources in a single study
c) differentiating between data sources in a single study
d) using specific data sources in a single study.
b) using a variety of data sources in a single study
124
A mixed-methods research study that sought to initially identify the lived health. related experiences of a group of patients and follow this up by using a tool to measure the extent of those health-related of the
experiences, would be using which following combinations:
a) simultaneous — qualitative and quantitative
b) simultaneous ----- quantitative and qualitative
c) sequential qualitative
d) sequential qualitative leading to quantitative.
d) sequential qualitative leading to quantitative.
125
Conventional Delphi studies have the following properties:
a) use experts, quantitative first-rounds qualitative second-round, consensus
b) use clients, qualitative first-round, quantitative second-round, consensus
c) use experts, qualitative first-round, quantitative second-round. consensus
d) use clients, qualitative first-round, quantitative second-round, non-consensus.
c) use experts, qualitative first-round, quantitative second-round. consensus
126
With the Delphi technique, how many questionnaire rounds are most likely to occur
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
b) 2
127
The main features of action research are:
a) mixed-methods, participation, randomisation, change cycles
b) mixed methods, change cycles, participation, empowerment
c) participation, mixed methods, empowerment, organisational
d) change cycles, socio-community, mixed methods, empowerment.
b) mixed methods, change cycles, participation, empowerment
128
An action research cycle or spiral would typically contain the stages:
a) diagnosis, data collection and analysis, feedback, actioning, reflection and evaluation, and further change cycles
b) diagnosis, evaluation, feedback, actioning, and further change cycles
c) diagnosis, data collection and analysis, feedback, actioning, reflection and evaluation
d) diagnosis, data collection and analysis, feedback, reflection and evaluation, and further change cycles.
a) diagnosis, data collection and analysis, feedback, actioning, reflection and evaluation, and further change cycles
129
Action research studies mainly focus on one of two broad areas. These being:
a) organisational development/operational development
b) organisational development/community development
c) procedural development/community development
d) organisational development/procedural development.
b) organisational development/community development
130
With a case study, the phenomenon of interest can be:
a) an individual/s, a group or community, a conference, a process, an event
b) an individual/s, a nation, an
organisation, a process, an event
c) an individual/s, a culture, an organisation, a process, an event
d) an individual/s, a group or community, an organisation, a process, an event.
d) an individual/s, a group or community, an organisation, a process, an event.
131
With Q methodology, participants are instructed how to rank-order the set of Q sample statements or materials. This process is called the:
a) Q-filter technique
b) Q-sort technique
c) Q-sieve technique
d) Q-sift technique.
b) Q-sort technique
132
Nurses and midwives need to be able to critically read research articles because:
a) all nurses and midwives should conduct research
b) all nurses and midwives enjoy reading
c) the knowledge will enhance their practice
d) they will be able to base their practice on research evidence and improve patient care.
d) they will be able to base their practice on research evidence and improve patient care.
133
When planning your research study, a literature search is undertaken
a) to identify gaps and limitations in the published research
b) to find a research topic
c) because. it is important to read many articles
d) to see if other researchers like your topic
a) to identify gaps and limitations in the published research
134
Synthesis understanding refers to:
a) preliminary understanding
b) seeing parts of the study in relation to the whole
c) combining parts into a complex whole
d) breaking the content into parts or sections.
c) combining parts into a complex whole
135
Understanding a research article and seeing the terms in relation to the context relate to:
a) preliminary understanding
b) comprehensive understanding
c) analysis understanding
d) synthesis understanding
b) comprehensive understanding
136
The highest level of evidence for a therapy question is:
a) a randomised controlled trial
b) a descriptive design
c) a correlational design
d) a qualitative approach
a) a randomised controlled trial
137
Ethical clearance from an HREC is necessary before commencing a study because:
a) the HREC wants to know what your research is about b) the HREC wants to know when you intend to begin Your research
c) participants in the study can feel confident that they will be treated ethically if your study has been passed by a Human Research Ethics Committee
d) participants want to tell their friends that they are taking part in a study.
c) participants in the study can feel confident that they will be treated ethically if your study has been passed by a Human Research Ethics Committee
138
Evidence-based practice is a quality improvement process because:
a) you have critically analysed many research articles
b) you have learned how to skim when reading research articles
c) trial and error is still important in clinical practice d
d) evidence-based practice is a key factor contributing to accountability and benchmarking.
d) evidence-based practice is a key factor contributing to accountability and benchmarking.
139
Stating recommendations for research is important because
a) It indicates that you understand that further research would enhance the knowledge base of nursing or midwifery in that area
b) it shows that you recognise the limitations of your research
c) readers like to get ideas about topics from research studies
d) readers will think your research design was poor
a) It indicates that you understand that further research would enhance the knowledge base of nursing or midwifery in that area
140
Writing about the implications of your study for healthcare is important because
a) readers like to knew about health problems in the community
b) a well-planned nursing or midwifery research study should have implications for healthcare
c) it indicates a lack of careful planning before conducting the research
d) people need to know what healthcare is about.
b) a well-planned nursing or midwifery research study should have implications for healthcare
141
Providing an audit trail when analysing data is important because:
a) it shows that you an audit your research
b) it is useful to provide a trail for readers to follow
c) it gives the reader information about the method by which data were analysed
d) it makes the study more interesting
c) it gives the reader information about the method by which data were analysed
142
1. What are the three components of the PARIHS framework:
a) evidence, cost and implementation
b) evidence, patients and evaluation
c) evidence, context and facilitation
d) evidence, practice and facilitation.
c) evidence, context and facilitation
143
What are the reasons for knowledge transfer:
a) saving costs
b) to speed up seeing the health improvements benefits of research
c) facilitate more effective services
d) to strengthen the healthcare system
e) all of the above.
c) facilitate more effective services
144
Which database is best for sourcing mental health related evidence:
a) CINAHL
h) MEDLINE
c) Psych INFO
d) DARE.
c) Psych INFO
145
Mode 2 thinking is related most closely to:
a) knowledge transfer
b) practice development
c) patient's knowledge
d) expert knowledge
b) practice development
146
When appraising any type of primary research evidence, what key questions need answering:
a) do the results come from the use of sound methods?
b) do the study results have the potential to impact on practice?
c) can the results be applied to a specific clinical setting?
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above.
147
The central focus of PD is:
a) competent practitioners
b) staff development
c) patient-centred care.
c) patient-centred care.
148
"Which of these activities could be described as 'technical practice development':
a) changing the way that intravenous fluid, are administered through a staff training:
b) developing of intensive care nurses a shared vision for practice
c) `introducing a best practice statement developed by the Joanna Briggs Institute through workshops and clinical audit.
c) `introducing a best practice statement developed by the Joanna Briggs Institute through workshops and clinical audit.
149
If your team had developed a shared vision for practice, which of the following facilitation processes would reflect an emancipatory PD approach to the implementation of the shared vision:
a) engaging in reflective activities with staff in order to understand the factors that hindered them from practising according to their espoused vision
b) teaching staff about the importance of effectiveness in practice and using the vision as a benchmark to evaluate progress with implementing changes in practice that are consistent with the shared vision
c) as a facilitator, working alongside staff in practice and asking reflective questions
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above.
150
EPIQ stands for:
a) effective practice, informatics and quality
improvement
b) effective practice, information and quality improvement
c) effective practice, information and quality implementation
d) effective practice, informatics and quality implementation.
a) effective practice, informatics and quality
| improvement
151
Which of the following are key skills to use in holistic facilitation:
a) reflective questioning
b) giving and receiving feedback
c) integration of policy within practice
d) feedback from evaluation
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
152
Some procedures for protecting the rights of your participants are:
a) assuring them that you will not publish their data
b) a letter of explanation, informed consent, ethics approval for the study
c) being friendly and honest with them
d) telling them that information about them will be kept in a locked room somewhere.
b) a letter of explanation, informed consent, ethics approval for the study
153
The funding agency needs to be persuaded that you:
a) enjoy reading and writing proposals
b) think research is an important academic activity
c) are qualified to carry out your research design
d) can get time off work to do the research.
c) are qualified to carry out your research design
154
Two key preliminary steps in writing a research proposal are:
a) spending a lot of time reading
b) attending conferences and talking to colleagues
c) finding aims and operationalising objectives to fit your research design
d) identifying a feasible research question and finding a design that will answer the research question.
d) identifying a feasible research question and finding a design that will answer the research question.
155
Committees usually make decisions about proposals on the basis of:
a) how long they rake to read them
b) their purpose, clarity. logic, standard and appropriateness
c) how important they think your topic is
d) how relevant the research problem is to the faculty's strategic research plan.
b) their purpose, clarity. logic, standard and appropriateness
156
A literature review of your topic should be conducted:
a) only if 'you dont know enough about your topic
b) once you have identified your research problem/topic c) after you have written your proposal
d) after you have sought permission from faculty to proceed.
b) once you have identified your research problem/topic
157
How will a literature review support your argument that your topic should he investigated?
a) Nothing has been written on your proposed topic.
b) It will convince the committee that you have the capability to do research.
c) the literature review will help you to find aims and objectives.
d) the literature review will identify shortcomings and limitations in published works.
d) the literature review will identify shortcomings and limitations in published works.
158
What does operationalising objectives mean:
a) providing definitions for the concepts
b) translating objectives into measurable and observable phenomena
c) identifies the feasibility and potential value of a study d) supports your research plan
b) translating objectives into measurable and observable phenomena
159
A pilot study is done because:
a) it's a compulsory requirement for a larger study
b) it saves you undertaking a literature review
c) it tests the feasibility of doing a larger study
d) you don't have to write a proposal.
c) it tests the feasibility of doing a larger study
160
A plain language statement is written because:
a) no one on the committee knows anything about your topic
b) it provides the rationale and justification for undertaking the project
c) it is an ethical requirement
d) the committee members are not researchers and don't understand the format of a proposal.
b) it provides the rationale and justification for undertaking the project
161
A well-written literature review:
a) uses mainly old, well-reviewed and refereed-journal articles
b) uses a lot of nursing jargon
c) demonstrates your knowledge of the research problem
d) demonstrates good writing and reading skills.
c) demonstrates your knowledge of the research problem
162
Which of the following is NOT considered when planning a recruitment strategy:
a) should minority representation be incorporated into the study
b) are there any language requirements, for example English literacy, necessary for study participants
c) designing a researcher safety protocol
d) the likely number of study participants who will meet the enrolment criteria.
c) designing a researcher safety protocol
163
Team meetings are used to address:
a) monitoring participant recruitment, management and retention and management and analysis of data
b) examining areas of the study progress that are proving problematic
c) monitoring of staff issues, including need for additional staff and leave coverage
d) monitoring compliance with reporting commitments.
i. a, b and c
ii. a, b and d
iii. b, c and d
iv. a, b, c and d
d) monitoring compliance with reporting commitments.
164
The role of an associate investigator in a research team is to provide:
a) strategic direction and operational support
b) specialist expertise or experience
c) input into specific aspects of a study as part of a training program
d) study site project management.
b) specialist expertise or experience
165
The advantages of the direct approach for participant recruitment do not include:
a) providing a forum to correct misunderstandings regarding the study
b) able to target specific sub-groups
c) being inexpensive and time-efficient
d) being able to increase or decrease the rate of recruitment as needed.
c) being inexpensive and time-efficient
166
The disadvantages of telephone contact for participant recruitment do not include:
a) time-consuming
b) requires participants to contact researchers
c) many people not at home when a call is made
d) many other unsolicited callers; therefore, calls may be screened.
b) requires participants to contact researchers
167
The final stage of the research process is
a) reading as many research articles as possible
b) conducting research
c) disseminating research findings,
d) talking to fellow clinicians.
c) disseminating research findings,
168
Many potential nurse and midwife researchers appear reluctant to write up their research for publication, mostly because:
a) they do not write well
b) they have already presented their findings at a clinical forum
c) they can contribute to he clinical area in other ways
d) they fear rejection of their article
d) they fear rejection of their article
169
Other reasons why researchers may be reluctant to write up their research findings are:
a) they fear that their results may be incorrect, or incomplete
b) they lack confidence and fear public scrutiny
c) they worry that they might not have chosen the correct research method
d) they do not see how their findings will benefit others
b) they lack confidence and fear public scrutiny
