Multiple Choice/EPPP Flashcards

1
Q

Animals in Research

A

Standard 8.09 requires psychologists to ‘acquire, care for, use, and dispose of animals in compliance with current federal, state, and local laws and regulations, and with professional standards’ and ‘to make reasonable efforts to minimize the discomfort, infection, illness, and pain of animal subjects.’ It also states that, ‘when it is appropriate that an animal’s life be terminated, psychologists proceed rapidly, with an effort to minimize the pain and in accordance with accepted procedures.

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2
Q

Collection Agencies

A

Standard 6.04 states that ‘if the recipient of services does not pay for services as agreed, and if psychologists intend to use collection agencies or legal measures to collect the fees, psychologists first inform the person that such measures will be taken and provide that person an opportunity to make prompt payment.’

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3
Q

Education and Supervision

A

Standards 7.01 through 7.06 address education and supervision and require psychologists to act competently and responsibly when teaching, supervising, and designing education and training programs and to avoid misrepresenting themselves or their work when performing these functions.

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4
Q

Informed Consent and Assent

A

Standard 3.10 states that ‘when psychologists conduct research or provide assessment, therapy, counseling, or consulting services in person or via electronic transmission or other forms of communication, they obtain the informed consent of the individual or individuals using language that is reasonably understandable to that person or persons.’ It also states that ‘for persons who are legally incapable of giving informed consent, psychologists nevertheless (1) provide an appropriate explanation, (2) seek the individual’s assent, (3) consider such persons’ preferences and best interests, and (4) obtain appropriate permission from a legally authorized person.’

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5
Q

Personal Problems

A

Standard 2.06 states: ‘(a) Psychologists refrain from initiating an activity when they known or should know that there is a substantial likelihood that their personal problems will prevent them from performing their work-related activities in a competent manner…[and] (b) When psychologists become aware of personal problems that may interfere with their performing work-related duties adequately, they take appropriate measures, such as obtaining professional consultation, or assistance, and determine whether they should limit, suspend, or terminate their work-related duties.’

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6
Q

Sexual Misconduct by Psychotherapists

A

Research on sexual misconduct has found that male therapists engage in sexual and other dual relationships with clients much more often than female therapists. The data also show that male therapists who engage in sexual misconduct are usually older than the female clients they become involved with, with the average therapist being between 42 and 44 and the client being between 30 and 33. No consistent relationship has been found between risk for sexual misconduct and theoretical orientation, professional experience, or education (Pope et al., 1993).

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7
Q

Avoiding Bias in Language

A

The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association provides guidelines for avoiding bias in language related to race/ethnicity, gender, age, and sexual orientation. For example, it recommends putting ‘people first’ (e.g., ‘clients with a disability’, rather than “disabled clients’); being specific when referring to race and avoiding using Whites as a comparison group; and using emotionally neutral terms (e.g., “people with a disease’ rather than ‘people afflicted by a disease’).

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8
Q

Competence

A

Standard 2.01 requires psychologists to ‘provide services, teach, and conduct research within populations and in areas only within the boundaries of their competence based on their education, training, supervised experience, consultation, study, or professional experience’.

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9
Q

EPPP

A

The EPPP (Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology) is a requirement for licensure in the United States and Canada. It is prepared by the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards (ASPPB) and is designed to assist the boards ‘in their evaluation of the qualifications of applicants for licensure and certification’ by assessing ‘the knowledge that the most recent practice analysis has determined as foundational to the competent practice of psychology’ (ASPPB, 2010).

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10
Q

Informed Consent for Research

A

Standard 8.02 states: ‘(a) When obtaining informed consent…, psychologists inform participants about (1) the purpose of the research, expected duration, and procedures; (2) their right to decline to participate and to withdraw from the research once participation has begun; (3) the foreseeable consequences of declining or withdrawing; (4) reasonably foreseeable factors that may be expected to influence their willingness to participate such as potential risks, discomfort, or adverse effects; (5) any prospective research benefits; (6) limits of confidentiality; (7) incentives for participation; and (8) whom to contact for questions about the research and research participants’ rights’.

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11
Q

Privilege and Holder of the Privilege

A

Privilege is a legal concept that protects a client’s confidentiality in the context of legal proceedings. Most jurisdictions have laws that establish privilege for communications between licensed mental health practitioners and their clients. The client is ordinarily the ‘holder of the privilege’, but a psychologist can claim the privilege on behalf of a client, and there are legally defined exceptions to privilege.

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12
Q

Sexual Relations with Students and Supervisees

A

Standard 7.07 states that ‘psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority’.

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13
Q

Client Access to Records

A

Client access to records is determined by law but, in general, the psychologist is the owner of the physical record while the client has the right to inspect the contents of the record.

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14
Q

Confidentiality

A

Confidentiality refers to the obligation of psychologists to protect clients from unauthorized disclosure of information revealed in the context of the professional relationship. Confidentiality is an ethical principle and, in some situations, a legal requirement.

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15
Q

General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services

A

The General Guidelines were adopted ‘as a means of self-regulation in the public interest’, and its provisions are general and aspirational. It delineates basic guiding principles for all providers of psychological services (except for those who teach psychology, conduct research, or write and edit scientific manuscripts), and its goal is to ‘improve the quality, effectiveness, and accessibility of psychological services.’

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16
Q

Interruption and Termination of Therapy

A

Standard 10.10 requires psychologists to ‘terminate therapy when it becomes reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service’ and, when doing so, to ‘provide pre termination counseling and suggest alternative service providers as appropriate.’ An exception to this general rule is provided in Standard 10.10(b), which states that pre termination counseling or referral is not necessary when a psychologist is terminating therapy with a client because the client or a person the client has a relationship with poses a threat to the psychologist.

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17
Q

Referral Fees

A

Standard 6.07 states: ‘When psychologists pay, receive payment from, or divide fees with another professional, other than in an employer-employee relationship, they payment to each is based on the services provided (clinical, consultative, administrative, or other) and is not based on the referral itself.’

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18
Q

Tarasoff Decision

A

The original Tarasoff decision established a ‘duty to warn’ an intended victim of a therapy client; however, in a rehearing of the case, this was changed to a ‘duty to protect’ and intended victim by warning them, notifying the police, or taking other steps. In most jurisdictions, the duty to warn/protect applies only when a client poses a clear and imminent danger to an identifiable victim or victims (although, in some jurisdictions, the duty has been expanded to include an identifiable ‘class of victims’).

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19
Q

Client Testimonials

A

Standard 5.05 states that ‘psychologists do not solicit testimonials from current therapy clients/patients or other persons who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence.’

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20
Q

Consultation

A

Standard 4.06 states that ‘when consulting with colleagues, (1) psychologists do not disclose confidential information that reasonably could lead to the identification of a client/patient, research participant, or other person or organization with whom they have a confidential relationship unless they have obtained the prior consent of the person or organization or the disclosure cannot be avoided, and (2) they disclose information only to the extent necessary to achieve the purposes of the consultation’.

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21
Q

Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings

A

The goal of the Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations is ‘to promote proficiency’ in the conduct of child custody evaluations, and it provides aspirational guidelines that are intended to ‘facilitate the continued systematic development of the profession and help facilitate a high level of practice by psychologists.’ It states that determining the ‘psychologist best interests’ of the child is the primary purpose of a child custody evaluation and that the child’s welfare is always of paramount importance.

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22
Q

Malpractice

A

For a client or other person to bring a claim of malpractice against a psychologist, four conditions must be met: (1) The psychologist must have had a professional relationships with the person that established a legal duty of care. (2) There must be a demonstrable standard of care that the psychologist has breached. (3) The person suffered harm or injury. (4) The psychologist’s breach of duty within the context of the standard of care was the proximate cause of the person’s harm or injury.

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23
Q

Responding to a Subpoena

A

(1) The first step is to determine if the subpoena is a legally valid demand. (2) If the subpoena is valid, a formal response is required, but the psychologist should first contact the client to discuss the implications of providing the requested information. (3) If the client consents to disclosure and there is no valid reason for withholding the information, the psychologist should provide the requested information. If the client does not consent, the psychologist or their attorney can attempt to negotiate with the party who issued the subpoena. (4) If the client does not consent and the requesting party continues to demand that the information be provided, the psychologist can seek guidance from the court informally through a letter or have their attorney file a motion to quash the subpoena or a motion for a protective order.

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24
Q

Test Data and Materials

A

Standard 9.04 defines test data as ‘raw and scaled scores, client/patient responses to test questions or stimuli, and psychologists’ notes and recordings concerning client/patient statements and behavior during an examination.’ It also states that ‘pursuant to a client/patient release, psychologists provide test data to the client/patient or other persons identified in the release’. Standard 9.11 requires psychologists to ‘make reasonable efforts’ to protect the integrity and security of test materials, which include ‘manuals, instruments, protocols, and test questions or stimuli.’

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25
Q

Barter

A

Standard 6.05 states that ‘psychologists may engage in barter for their services only when (1) it is not clinically contraindicated, and (2) the resulting arrangement is not exploitative.’

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26
Q

Competence to Stand Trial

A

Laws related to competence to stand trial were derived from the standard set forth in Dusky v. United States (1960), which defines a defendant as incompetent if, as the result of mental defect or illness, the defendant lacks ‘sufficient present ability to consult with his lawyer with a reasonable degree of rational understanding, and … a rational as well as a factual understanding of the proceedings against him.’

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27
Q

Ethical Violations by Colleagues

A

Standard 1.04 encourages psychologists to handle ethical violations informally by discussing the matter with the offender when an ‘informal resolution appears appropriate’, while Standard 1.05 states that psychologists make a formal report to the Ethics Committee, state licensing board, or other appropriate authority when the problem involves ‘substantial harm’ and is not appropriate for an informal resolution or has not been resolved satisfactorily by an attempt at an informal resolution. These Standards also require that, before psychologists take any action, they must consider the issue of client confidentiality.

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28
Q

Informed Consent for Therapy

A

Standard 10.01 states: ‘(a) When obtaining informed consent to therapy…, psychologists inform clients/patients are early as is feasible in the therapeutic relationship about the nature and anticipated course of therapy, fees, involvement of third parties, and limits of confidentiality and provide sufficient opportunity for the client/patient to ask questions and receive answers’.

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29
Q

Pro Bono Services

A

Although the term pro bono is not used in the Ethics Code, General Principle B (Fidelity and Responsibility) states that ‘psychologists strive to contribute a portion of their professional time for little or no compensation or personal advantage.’ Because pro bono services are addressed in the Ethics Code’s aspirational General Principles rather than in its mandatory Ethical Standards, this means that pro bono services are recommended by the Code but are not required.

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30
Q

Sliding Fee Scale

A

A sliding fee scale is not explicitly addressed by the Ethics Code but is generally considered acceptable as long as the scale is fair and serves the best interests of the client.

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31
Q

Child Abuse Reporting

A

Although the specific laws vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction, all jurisdictions require psychologists to report known or suspected cases of child abuse to the appropriate authorities.

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32
Q

Complainants and Respondents

A

Standard 1.08 states that ‘psychologists do not deny persons employment, advancement, admissions to academic or other programs, tenure, or promotion, based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint. This does not preclude taking action based upon the outcome of such proceedings or considering other appropriate information.’

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33
Q

Fact versus Expert Witness

A

A fact witness is a person ‘who testifies as to what they have seen, heard, or otherwise observed regarding a circumstance, event, or occurrence as it actually took place…Fact witnesses are generally not allowed to offer an opinion, address issues that they do not have personal knowledge of or respond to hypothetical situations’ (APA, 1998, p. 7). An expert witness is a person ‘who by reason of education or specialized experience possesses superior knowledge respecting a subject about which persons having no particular training are incapable of forming an accurate opinion or deducing correct conclusions’ (Nolan & Nolan-Haley, 1990, p. 578). A person who has been qualified as an expert witness by the court is allowed to offer opinions and provide testimony based on hypothetical scenarios.

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34
Q

Insanity

A

Insanity is a legal concept and most definitions reflect the rule set forth by the American Law Institute, which states that a person is not guilty by reason of insanity when, because of a mental disease or defect, ‘that person lacks substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of the act or lacks substantial capacity to behave according to the requirements of the law’ (Gutheil, 1995, p. 2764).

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35
Q

Publication Credit

A

Standard 8.12 states: ‘(a) Psychologists take responsibility and credit, including authorship credit, only for work they have actually performed or to which they have substantially contributed…[and] (b) Principal authorship and other publication credits accurately reflect the relative scientific or professional contributions of the individuals involved, regardless or their relative status.’

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36
Q

Speciality Guidelines for Forensic Psychology

A

The goals of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology ‘are to improve the quality of forensic psychological services; enhance the practice and facilitate the systematic development of forensics psychology; encourage a high level of quality in professional practice; and encourage forensic practitioners to acknowledge and respect the rights of those they serve.’ It provides guidelines on several issues encountered by practitioners of ‘forensic psychology’ (e.g., multiple relationships, fees, informed consent, and confidentiality), which it defines as ‘professional practice by any psychologist working within any sub-discipline of psychology (e.g., clinical, developmental, social, cognitive) when applying the scientific, technical, or specialized knowledge of psychology to the law to assist in addressing legal, contractual, and administrative matters.’

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37
Q

Client Welfare

A

Standard 3.04 addresses client welfare in a general way and states that psychologists ‘take reasonable steps’ to avoid and minimize harm to clients, students, research participants, and others with whom they work.

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38
Q

Cost Analysis

A

Cost analysis refers to techniques that are used to assess the costs of an intervention in order to facilitate decision-making about the intervention. Methods of cost analysis include cost-benefit, cost-effectiveness, cost-utility, cost-feasibility, cost-minimization analysis, and cost-offset analysis.

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39
Q

Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations

A

The Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations presents aspirational principles and guidelines for psychologists working with members of ethnic, linguistic, and culturally diverse populations. It emphasizes the importance of competence and presents recommendations for incorporating cultural issues and knowledge into practice.

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40
Q

Multiple Relationships

A

Standard 3.05 states that ‘a psychologist refrains from entering into a multiple relationship if it could reasonably be expected to impair the psychologist’s objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing their functions as a psychologist, or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person with whom the professional relationship exists.’

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41
Q

Sexual Harassment

A

Standard 3.02 prohibits psychologists from engaging in sexual harassment, which it defines as ‘sexual solicitation, physical advances, or verbal or nonverbal conduct that is sexual in nature, that occurs in connection with the psychologist’s activities or roles as a psychologist, and that either (1) is unwelcome, is offensive, or creates a hostile workplace or educational environment, and the psychologist knows or is told this or (2) is sufficiently severe or intense to be abusive to a reasonable person in the context.’

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42
Q

Test Scoring and Interpretation Services

A

Standard 9.09 states: ‘(a) Psychologists who offer assessment or scoring services to other professionals accurately describe the purpose, norms, validity, reliability, and applications of the procedures and any special qualifications applicable to their use… [and] (c) Psychologists retain responsibility for the appropriate application, interpretation, and use of assessment instruments, whether they score and interpret such tests themselves or use automated or other services.’

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43
Q

Deception in Research

A

Standard 8.07 states that deception is acceptable only when the following conditions are met: (a) The use of deception is justified by the study’s significant prospective scientific, educational, or applied value and…effective non deceptive alternative procedures are not feasible’; (b) prospective participants are not deceived about conditions that can be ‘reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress’; and (c) participants will be debriefed ‘preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the data collection.’

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44
Q

In-Person Solicitation

A

Standard 5.06 states that ‘psychologists do no engage, directly or through agents, in uninvited in-person solicitation of business from actual or potential therapy clients/patients or other persons who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence.’ It also identifies two exceptions to this prohibition-I.e., making ‘collateral contacts for the purpose of benefiting an already engaged therapy client/patient… [and] providing disaster or community outreach services.’

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45
Q

Obsolete Tests

A

Standard 9.08 states that psychologists ‘do not base their assessment or intervention decisions or recommendations on data or test results that are outdated for the current purpose…[and] do not base such decisions or recommendations on tests and measures that are obsolete and not useful for the current purpose.’

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46
Q

Clients Receiving Services From Another Professional

A

Standard 10.04 states that ‘in deciding whether to offer or provide services to those already receiving mental health services elsewhere, psychologists carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client’s/patient’s welfare. Psychologists discuss these issues with the client/patient…and proceed with caution.’

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47
Q

Sexual Intimacies with Clients and Former Clients

A

Standard 10.05 explicitly prohibits psychologists from having sexual relationships with current clients, while 10.08 forbids a psychologist from having a sexual relationship with a former client for at least two years after cessation of therapy. The latter Standard also states that, even after the two-year limit has passed, a relationship may be acceptable only in the ‘most unusual circumstances.’ Standard 10.07 prohibits psychologists from providing therapy to people with whom they have had sexual relationships in the past.

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48
Q

Vicarious Liability

A

Under certain circumstances, supervisors and employers may be legally responsible for the actions of their supervisees and employees. This is referred to as vicarious liability (respondeat superior).

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49
Q

Communication/Interaction Family Therapy (Symmetrical vs. Complementary Communication)

A

The communication/interaction approach is associated with Jackson, Satir, Haley, and others and focuses on the impact of communication on family and individual functioning. It distinguishes between two communication patterns: Symmetrical communication occurs between equals but may escalate into a competitive one-upsmanship game, and complementary communication occurs between individuals who are unequal and emphasizes their differences.

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50
Q

Emic vs. Etic Orientation

A

Emic and etic refer to different oritentations to understanding and describing cultures. An Emic orientation is culture-specific and involves understanding the culture from the perspective of members of that culture. An etic orientation is culture-general and assumes that universal principles can be applied to all cultures.

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51
Q

Group Therapy (Formative Stages, Cohesiveness, Premature Termination)

A

According to Yalom, therapy groups typically pass through three formative stages- (1) orientation, participation, search for meaning, and dependency; (2) conflict, dominance, and rebellion; and (3) development of cohesiveness. Yalom describes cohesiveness as the most important curative factor provided by group therapy and the group therapy analog for the therapist-client relationship in individual therapy. He proposes that prescreening of potential group members and post-selection preparation can reduce premature termination from group therapy and enhance therapy outcomes.

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52
Q

Prevention (Primary, Secondary, Tertiary)

A

Methods of prevention are classified as primary, secondary, or tertiary: Primary preventions make an intervention available to all members of a target group or population in order to keep them from developing a disorder. Secondary preventions identify at-risk individuals who are showing early signs of a disorder and offer them appropriate interventions. Tertiary preventions are designed to reduce the duration and consequences of an illness that has already occurred.

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53
Q

Mental Health Consultation (Caplan)

A

Caplan distinguished between four types of mental health consultation: (1) Client-centered case consultation focuses on helping the consultee work more effectively with a particular client. (2) Consultee-centered case consultation focuses on enhancing the consultee’s ability to deliver services to a particular group or population of clients. (3) Program-centered administrative consultation involves working with one or more administrators (consultees) to resolve problems related to a particular program. (4) Consultee-centered administrative consultation involves enhancing the ability of administrators to develop, implement, and evaluate programs.

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54
Q

Healthcare Systems

A

Healthcare systems are the collaborative effort between institutions and professionals to provide serves to the public.

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55
Q

Cultural Competence

A

Sue and Sue (2003) describe cultural competence as involving three competencies: the therapist’s awareness of their cultural assumptions, values and beliefs; knowledge about the worldviews of culturally diverse clients; and skills that enable them to provide interventions that are appropriate and effective for culturally different clients.

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56
Q

Existential Therapy

A

The existential therapies are derived from existential philosophy and share an emphasis on personal choice and responsibility for developing a meaningful life. They describe maladaptive behavior as the result of an inability to cope authentically with the ultimate concerns of existence-I.e, death, freedom, existential isolation, and meaninglessness.

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57
Q

Health Belief Model

A

The health belief model proposes that health behaviors are influenced by (1) the person’s readiness to take a particular action, which is related to their perceived susceptibility to the illness and perceived severity of its consequences; (2) the person’s evaluation of the benefits and costs of making a particular response; and (3) the internal and external ‘cues to action’ that trigger the response.

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58
Q

Motivational Interviewing (Oars)

A

Motivational interviewing was developed specifically for clients who are ambivalent about changing their behavior and combines the trans theoretical (stages of change) model with client-centered therapy and the concept of self-efficacy. The specific techniques of motivational interviewing are open-ended questions, affirmations, reflective listening, and summaries (OARS).

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59
Q

Psychiatric Inpatients (Demographic Characteristics)

A

Research on the utilization rates of mental health services has provided the following information about the demographic characteristics of psychiatric inpatients: (1) For both men and women, admission rates into psychiatric hospitals are lowest among the widowed, intermediate for those who are married or divorced/separated, and highest for the never married. (2) Although Whites represent the largest number of psychiatric inpatients, when population proportions are taken into account, patients from other races are overrepresented. (3) For both men and women, the largest proportion of admissions is in the 25 to 44 age range.

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60
Q

Strategic Family Therapy (Paradoxical Interventions)

A

Haley’s strategic family therapy focuses on transactional patterns and view symptoms as interpersonal events that serve to control relationships. Therapy focuses on symptom relief (rather than insight); and involves the use of specific strategies, especially paradoxical interventions (e.g., ordeals, prescribing the symptom, reframing) that are designed to alter the behavior of family members by helping them see a symptom in an alternative way or recognize they have control over their behavior or by using their resistance in a constructive way.

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61
Q

Solution-Focused Therapy (Questions)

A

Solution-focused therapists focus on solutions to problems rather than on the problems themselves. In therapy, the client is viewed as the ‘expert’ while the therapist acts as a consultant/collaborator who poses questions designed to assist the client in recognizing and using their strengths and resources to achieve specific goals (e.g., the miracle question, exception questions, scaling questions).

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62
Q

Evidence-Based Treatments (EBTs)

A

The integration of the best available research within clinical expertise in the context of patient characteristics, culture, and preferences (APA Policy Statement on Evidence-Based Practice in Psychology, 2005).

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63
Q

Acculturation (Berry)

A

According to Berry, a person’s level of acculturation can be described in terms of four categories that reflect the person’s adoption of their own culture and the culture of the dominant group-I.e., integration (adopt cultural norms of dominant group while maintaining their culture of origin), assimilation (adopt cultural norms of dominant group over their original culture), separation (reject the cultural norms of dominant group in favor of their original culture), or marginalization (reject both culture of origin and dominant group culture).

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64
Q

Cybernetics (Positive and Negative Feedback Loops)

A

Cybernetics is concerned with communication and processes and distinguishes between negative and positive feedback loops. A negative feedback loop reduces deviation and helps a system maintain the status quo, while a positive feedback loop amplifies deviation or change and thereby disrupts the system.

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65
Q

Feminist Therapy (Nonsexist Therapy, Self-in-Relation Theory)

A

Feminist therapy is based on the premise that ‘the personal is political’. It focuses on empowerment and social change and acknowledges and minimizes the power differential inherent in the client-therapist relationship. Self-in-relation theory applies feminism to object relations theory and proposes that many gender differences can be traced to differences in the early mother-daughter and mother-son relationship. Feminist therapy must be distinguished from nonsexist therapy, which focuses more on the personal causes of behavior and personal change.

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66
Q

Howard and Colleagues (Dose Dependent Effect; Phase Model)

A

Howard et al., (1996) identified a dose dependent effect of psychotherapy-I.e, about 75% of patients show measurable improvement at 26 sessions and that this number increases to only about 85% at 52 sessions. They also identified a phase model, which predicts that the effects of psychotherapy are related to the number of sessions and distinguishes between three phases: remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation.

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67
Q

Object-Relations Family Therapy (Projective Identification, Multiple Transferences)

A

For object relations family therapists, maladaptive behavior is the result of both intrapsychic and interpersonal factors. A primary source of dysfunction is projective identification, which occurs when a family member projects old introjects onto another family member and then reaches to that person as though they actually have the projected characteristics or provokes the person to act in ways consistent with those characteristics. The primary goal of therapy is to resolve each family member’s attachment to family introjects and involves addressing multiple transferences (I.e, transferences of one family member to another, transferences of each member to the therapist, and transferences of the family as a whole to the therapist).

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68
Q

Separation-Individuation (Mahler’s)

A

Mahler’s version of object relations theory focuses on the processes by which an infant assumes their own physical and psychological identity, and her model of early development involves several phases. The development of object relations occurs during the separation-individuation phase, which begins at four to five months of age. According to Mahler, adult psychopathology can be traced to problems that occurred during separation-individuation.

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69
Q

Transtheoretical Model (Stages of Change)

A

Prochaska and DiClemente’s (1992) transtheoretical model of behavior change proposes that the change process involves six stages (precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, termination) and that interventions are most effective when they match the person’s stage of change-e.g., consciousness raising, dramatic relief, and environmental reevaluation are useful for helping clients transition from the precontemplation to the contemplation stage.

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70
Q

Triangular Model

A

A form of supervision that emphasizes providing service to clients that includes organizational policies, professional knowledge, and the supervisory relationship.

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71
Q

Adler’s Individual Psychology

A

Adler’s personality theory and approach to therapy stress the unity of the individual and the belief that behavior is purposeful and goal-directed. Key concepts are inferiority feelings, striving for superiority, and style of life (which unifies the various aspects of an individual’s personality). Maladaptive behavior represents a mistaken style of life that reflects inadequate social interest. Adler’s teleological approach regards behavior as being largely motivated by a person’s future goals rather than determined by past events.

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72
Q

Diagnostic Overshadowing

A

Diagnostic overshadowing was originally used to describe the tendency of health professionals to attribute all of a person’s psychiatric symptoms to their intellectual disabilities. Subsequent research found that diagnostic overshadowing applies to other conditions and diagnoses.

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73
Q

Freudian Psychoanalysis

A

According to Freud,, when the ego is unable to ward off danger (anxiety) through rational, realistic means, it may resort to one of its defense mechanisms (e.g., repression, reaction formation) which share two characteristics: They operate on an unconscious level and they serve to deny or distort reality. In psychoanalysis, the analysis of free associations, dreams, resistances, and transferences consists of a combination of confrontation, clarification, interpretation, and working through.

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74
Q

Hypnosis (Repressed Memories)

A

Orne and Dinges propose that hypnosis involves experiencing alterations of memory, perception, and mood in response to suggestions and characterize its essential features as ‘subjective experiential change’ (1989, p. 1503). Although hypnosis has been used to help people recover repressed memories, the research suggests that it does not seem to enhance the accuracy of memories, may produce more pseudomemories (inaccurate or confabulated memories) than accurate memories, and may exaggerate a person’s confidence in the validity of uncertain memories, especially for those that are inaccurate.

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75
Q

Parallel Process

A

Parallel process occurs in clinical supervision when the therapist (supervisee) behaves toward their supervisor in ways that mirror how the client is behaving toward the therapist.

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76
Q

Sexual Minorities (Internalized homophobia, coming out)

A

Issues faced by lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transsexual (LGBT) individuals include internalized homophobia and coming out: Internalized homophobia occurs when LGBT individuals accept negative stereotypes about sexual minorities and incorporate them into their self-concept. Consequences include low self-esteem, self-doubt, and self-destructive behavior. Coming out (disclosing one’s sexual orientation) to family members, friends, and others is associated with rejection and other negative consequences as well as with higher levels of self-esteem and positive affectivity, lower levels of anxiety, and other positive consequences. Research suggests that the age of coming out is about the same for gay males and lesbians.

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77
Q

Treatment Manuals

A

Treatment manuals were originally developed to standardize psychotherapeutic treatments so their effects could be empirically evaluated and to provide guidelines for training therapists. They specify the theoretical underpinnings of the treatment along with treatment goals and specific therapeutic guidelines and strategies. A potential limitation of treatment manuals is that they may oversimplify the therapeutic process.

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78
Q

Telepsychology

A

The use of the telephone, text, e-mail, chats, interactive tele-video conferencing technologies, or virtual reality for mental health assessment and treatment.

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79
Q

Cultural Encapsulation (Wrenn)

A

Culturally encapsulated counselors interpret everyone’s reality through their own cultural assumptions and stereotypes and disregard cultural differences and their own cultural biases.

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80
Q

Extended Family Systems Therapy (Differentiation, Emotional Triangle, Genogram)

A

Bowen’s approach to family therapy extends general systems theory beyond the nuclear family. Key terms include differentiation of self and emotional triangles: Differentiation refers to a person’s ability to separate their intellectual and emotional functioning, which helps keep the person from becoming ‘fused’ with the emotions that dominate the family. An emotional triangle develops when a two-person system attempts to reduce instability or stress by recruiting a third person into the system. Therapy often begins with the construction of a genogram, which depicts the relationships between family members, the dates of significant life events, and other important information. The therapist often sees two members of the family (spouses) and forms a therapeutic triangle in which the therapist comes into emotional contact with the family members but avoids becoming emotionally triangled. The goal is to increase the differentiation of all family members.

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81
Q

High vs. Low Context Communication

A

Members of many culturally diverse groups in America exhibit high-context communication, which relies on shared cultural understanding and nonverbal cues. It helps unify a culture and is slow to change. In contrast, Anglos are more likely to exhibit low-context communication, which relies primarily on the verbal message, is less unifying than high-context communication, and can change rapidly and easily. Differences in communication style can lead to misunderstandings in cross-cultural therapy.

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82
Q

Multisystems Model (Boyd—Franklin)

A

Boyd-Franklin’s multisystems model is an eco structural approach for African American families that addresses multiple systems, intervenes at multiple levels, and empowers the family by utilizing its strengths. Systems that may be incorporated into treatment include the extended family and non blood kin, the church and other community resources, and social service agencies.

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83
Q

Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model

A

The RacialCultural Identity Development Model (Atkinson, Morten, & Sue, 1993) distinguishes between five stages that people experience as they attempt to understand themselves in terms of their own minority culture, the dominant culture, and the oppressive relationship between the two cultures. The five stages are conformity (positive attitudes for the dominant group), dissonance (confusion and conflict over contradictory attitudes), resistance and immersion (active rejection of the dominant group), introspection (uncertainty about the rigidity of Stage 3 beliefs), and integrative awareness (adoption of a multicultural perspective).

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84
Q

Structural Family Therapy (Boundaries, Rigid Triads, Joining)

A

Minuchin’s structural family therapy emphasizes altering the family’s structure in order to change the behavior patterns of family members. Boundaries (rules that determine the amount of contact that is allowed between family members) are one element of the family structure: When boundaries are overly rigid, family members are disengaged and when they are too diffuse or permeable, family members are enmeshed. Minuchin distinguished between three chronic boundary problems, or rigid triads: detouring, stable coalition, and triangulation.

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85
Q

Resilience

A

Resilience is the psychological capacity to cope with socio-environmental challenges.

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86
Q

Cultural vs. Functional Paranoia

A

Ridley described non disclosure by African American therapy clients as being due to two types of paranoia: A client is exhibiting cultural paranoia (which is a healthy reaction to racism) when they do not disclose to a white therapist due to a fear of being hurt or misunderstood. A client is exhibiting functional paranoia (which is due to pathology) when they are unwilling to disclose to any therapist, regardless of race or ethnicity, as a result of mistrust and suspicion.

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87
Q

Eysenck

A

Eysenck was a British psychologist known for his factor analysis of personality traits, contributions to behavior therapy, and 1952 review of psychotherapy outcome studies in which he found that 72% of untreated neurotic individuals improved without therapy, while 66% of patients receiving eclectic psychotherapy and 44% receiving psychoanalytic psychotherapy showed a substantial decrease in symptoms. Based on these findings, Eysenck concluded that any apparent benefit of therapy is due to spontaneous remission.

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88
Q

Homosexual (Gay/Lesbian) Identity Development Model

A

Troiden’s (1988) model of homosexual identity development distinguishes between four stages-sensitization/feeling different, self-recognition/identity confusion, identity assumption, and commitment/identity commitment.

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89
Q

Network Therapy

A

Network therapy has been identified as an effective intervention for American Indian clients and is often used as a treatment for alcohol and drug abuse. It is a multimodal treatment that incorporates family and community members into the treatment process and situates an individual’s problems within the context of their family, workplace, community, and other social systems.

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90
Q

Reality Therapy

A

Glasser’s reality therapy is based on choice theory, which assumes that people are responsible for the choices they make and focuses on how people make choices that affect the course of their lives. It proposes that people have five basic innate needs (survival, love and belonging, power, freedom, and fun) and that a person adopts a success (versus failure) identity when they fulfill these needs in a responsible way.

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91
Q

Therapist-Client Matching

A

Research on therapist-client matching in terms of race, ethnicity, or culture has produced inconsistent results. However, matching may reduce premature termination for members of some groups (e.g, Asian and Hispanic/Latino). Some research suggests that other factors (e.g., similarity in values and worldview) are more important than similarity in terms of race, ethnicity, or culture.

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92
Q

Health Promotion

A

Health promotion involves several different methods of encouraging healthy behaviors, such as advertising and increased education.

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93
Q

Alloplastic vs. Autoplastic Interventions

A

In the context of psychotherapy, alloplastic and autoplastic refer to the focus of an intervention with regard to the environment. The goal of an alloplastic intervention is to make changes in the environment so it better accommodates the individual, while the goal of an autoplastic intervention is to change the individual so that they are better able to function effectively in their environment.

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94
Q

Double-Bind Communication

A

As originally defined by Bateson, Jackson, Haley, and Weakland (1956), double-bind communication is an etiological factor for schizophrenia and involves conflicting negative interjunctions-e.g., ‘do that and you’ll be punished’ and ‘don’t do that and you’ll be punished’-with one injunction often being expressed verbally and the other non verbally. In addition, the recipient of the contradictory injunctions is not allowed to comment on them or seek help from someone else.

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95
Q

General Systems Theory

A

General systems theory defines a system as an entity that is maintained by the mutual interactions of its components and assumes that the actions of interactions are best understood by studying them in their context. Consistent with general systems theory, family therapists view the family as primarily an open system that continuously receives input from and discharges output to the environment and is adaptable to change. The influence of general systems theory on family therapy is evident in the concept of homeostasis, which is the tendency for a family to act in ways that maintain the family’s equilibrium or status quo.

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96
Q

Interpersonal Therapy (Primary Problem Areas)

A

Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a brief manual-based therapy that was originally developed as a treatment for depression, but it has since been applied to a number of other conditions. IPT focuses on symptom reduction and resolving one or more primary areas of interpersonal functioning-unresolved grief, interpersonal role disputes, role transitions, and interpersonal deficits.

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97
Q

Person-Centered Therapy (Facilitative Conditions)

A

Rogers’ person-centered therapy is based on the assumptions that people possess an inherent ability for growth and self-actualization and that maladaptive behavior occurs when ‘incongruence between self and experience’ disrupts this natural tendency. The therapist’s role is to provide the client with three facilitative conditions (empathy, genuineness, and unconditional positive regard) that enable the client to return to their natural tendency for self-actualization.

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98
Q

Sexual Stigma, Heterosexism, and Sexual Prejudice (Herek)

A

Herek (2004) argues that the term homophobia is ambiguous and imprecise and proposes that it be replaced with sexual stigma, heterosexism, and sexual prejudice. Sexual stigma refers to ‘the shared knowledge of society’s negative regard for any nonheterosexual behavior, identity, relationship, or community’ (p. 15). Heterosexism refers to cultural ideologies, which are ‘systems that provide the rationale and operating instructions’ (p. 15) that promote and perpetrate antipathy, hostility, and violence against homosexuals. Sexual prejudice refers to negative attitudes that are based on sexual orientation, whether the target is homosexual, bisexual, or heterosexual. Herek found higher levels of sexual prejudice among heterosexual men (versus heterosexual women) and among individuals who are older, have lower levels of education, live in Southern or Midwestern states or in rural areas, or have limited personal contact with homosexuals.

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99
Q

White Racial Identity Development Model

A

According to Helms (1990), White racial identity development involves two phases: abandoning racism (statuses 1-3) and developing a non racist white identity (statuses 4-6). Her White Racial Identity Development Model involves six statuses (stages): contact (little awareness of racism), disintegration (increasing awareness of race and racism which leads to confusion and conflict), reintegration (idealization of White society and denigration of members of minority groups), pseudo-independence (questioning of racist views), immersion-emersion (confrontation of own biases), and autonomy (internalization of a non racist White identity).

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100
Q

Black Racial (Nigrescence) Identity Development Model

A

Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model consists of four stages: During the pre-encounter stage, race and racial identity have low salience. In the encounter stage, the person has greater racial/cultural awareness and is interested in developing a Black identity. In the immersion/emersion stage, race and racial identity have high salience and the person moves from intense Black involvement (immersion) to strong anti-White attitudes (emersion). Finally, during the internalization stage, race continues to have high salience and the person adopts an Afrocentric, biculturist, or multiculturist orientation.

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101
Q

Gestalt Therapy (Boundary Disturbance, Transference, Awareness)

A

Gestalt therapy views ‘awareness’ (a full understanding of one’s thoughts, feelings, and actions in the here-and-now) as the primary curative factor and defines neurosis as a ‘growth disorder’ that is often attributable to a boundary disturbance (e.g., introjection) that leads to an abandonment of the self for the self image. Gestaltians regard a client’s transference to be counterproductive and respond to it by helping the client recognize the difference between their ‘transference fantasy’ and reality.

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102
Q

Jung’s Analytical Psychotherapy

A

Analytical psychotherapy views behavior as being determined by both conscious and unconscious factors, including the collective unconscious which is the repository of latent memory traces that have been passed down from one generation to the next. Included in the collective unconscious are archetypes (primordial images) that cause people to experience certain phenomena in universal ways. Therapeutic strategies include the interpretation of dreams and transferences (which reflects projections of both the personal and collective unconscious). A key concept in Jung’s personality theory is individuation, which refers to an integration of the conscious and unconscious aspects of the psyche that occurs in the later years and leads to a unique identity and the development of wisdom.

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103
Q

Efficacy vs. Effectiveness Research

A

An ongoing debate on psychotherapy outcome research is over the best way to evaluate the effects of psychotherapy. On one side of the argument are experts who support efficacy studies (clinical trials); on the other are those who prefer effectiveness studies, which are correlational or quasi-experimental in nature.

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104
Q

Personal Construct Therapy

A

George Kelly’s personal construct therapy focuses on how the client experiences the world. It assumes that a person’s psychological processes are determined by the way they ‘construe’ (perceives, interprets, and predicts) events, with construing involving the use of personal constructs, which are bipolar dimensions of meaning (e.g., happy/sad, competent/incompetent) that begin to develop in infancy and may operate on an unconscious or conscious level. The goal of therapy is to help the client identify and revise or replace maladaptive personal constructs so that the client is better able to ‘make sense’ of their experiences.

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105
Q

Smith, Glass, and Miller (Meta-Analysis/Effect Size)

A

Smith et al. used meta-analysis to combine the results of the psychotherapy outcome studies and found, contrary to Eysenck, that psychotherapy does have substantial benefits. In one study, they obtained an average effect size of .85, which indicates that the typical therapy client is better off than 80% of individuals who need therapy but are untreated.

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106
Q

Worldview (Sue)

A

As defined by Sue (1978), a person’s worldview is affected by their cultural background and is determined by two factors-locus of control and locus of responsibility. Differences in worldview can affect the therapeutic process. For example, White middle-class therapists typically have an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility (IC-IR) and are likely to have problems working with an African-American client with an internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility (IC-ER) who may challenge the therapist’s authority and trustworthiness and be reluctant to self-disclose.

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107
Q

Bipolar I Disorder

A

A diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder requires at least one manic episode that lasts for at least one week, is present most of the day nearly every day, and includes at least three characteristic symptoms-e.g., inflated self-esteem or grandiosity; decreased need for sleep; flight of ideas. Symptoms must cause marked impairment in social or occupational functioning, require hospitalization to avoid harm to self or others, or include psychotic features. This disorder may include one or more episodes of hypomania or major depression. Treatment usually includes lithium or an anti-seizure medication and cognitive-behavior therapy or other form of therapy.

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108
Q

Cyclothymic Disorder

A

Cyclothymis Disorder is characterized by multiple periods of hypomanic symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode and multiple episodes of depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode. Symptoms must last for at least two years in adults and one year in children and adolescents.

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109
Q

Alcohol-Induced Disorders (Withdrawal, Korsakoff Syndrome, Sleep Disorder)

A

Alcohol Withdrawal is diagnosed in the presence of at least two characteristic symptoms within several hours to a few days following cessation or reduction of alcohol consumption; autonomic hyperactivity; hand tremor; insomnia; nausea or vomiting; transient illusions or hallucinations; anxiety; psychomotor agitation; generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The DSM-5 distinguishes between two types of Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocogntive Disorder-nonamnestic-confabulatory type and amnestic-confabulatory type. The amnestic-confabulatory type is also known as Korsakoff Syndrome, and it is characterized by anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation and has been linked to a thiamine deficiency. Alcohol-Induced Sleep Disorder is usually of the insomnia type and can be the result of either Intoxication or Withdrawal.

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110
Q

Dopamine Hypothesis

A

The dopamine hypothesis attributes Schizophrenia to elevated levels of or oversensitivity to dopamine.

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111
Q

Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder

A

This disorder is diagnosed in the presence of persistent difficulties involving at least one of the following: vaginal penetration during intercourse; Genito-pelvic pain during intercourse or penetration attempts; anxiety about Genito-pelvic pain before, during, or as a result of vaginal penetration; tensing of pelvic floor muscles during attempted vaginal penetration.

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112
Q

Major Depressive Disorder with Seasonal Pattern

A

The seasonal pattern specifier is applied to Major Depressive Bipolar I disorder, and Bipolar II Disorder when there is a temporal relationship between the onset of a mood episode and a particular time of the year. This condition is also known as Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and, in the Northern Hemisphere, most commonly occurs during the winter months. People with SAD usually experience hypersomnia, increased appetite and weigh gain, and a craving for carbohydrates.

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113
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

A

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is characterized by a persistent preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control that severely limits the individual’s flexibility, openness, and efficiency. At least four characteristic symptoms must be present-e.g., exhibits perfectionism that interferes with task completion; is excessively devoted to work and productivity to the exclusion of leisure activities and friendships; is reluctant to delegate work to others unless they are willing to do it their way; adopts a miserly spending style toward self and others.

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114
Q

Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

A

The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence; presence of at least one intrusion symptom related to the event; persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the event; negative changes in cognition or mood associated with the event; and marked change in arousal and reactivity associated with the event. Symptoms must have a duration of more than one month and must cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning. The treatment-of-choice is a comprehensive cognitive-behavioral intervention that incorporates exposure, cognitive restructuring, and anxiety management or similar techniques.

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115
Q

Schizotypal Personality Disorder

A

Schizotypal Personality Disorder is diagnosed in the presence of (a) pervasive social and interpersonal deficits involving acute discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships and (b) eccentricities in cognition, perception, and behavior as manifested by the presence of at least five symptoms-e.g., ideas of reference; odd beliefs or magical thinking that influence behavior; bodily illusions and other unusual perceptions; is suspicious or has paranoid ideation; inappropriate or constricted affect; lacks close friends or confidants other than first-degree relatives; excessive social anxiety.

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116
Q

Tobacco Withdrawal

A

Tobacco Withdrawal is characterized by the development of at least four characteristic symptoms within 24 hours of abrupt cessation or reduction in the use of tobacco-i.e., irritability or anger, anxiety, impaired concentration, increased appetite, restlessness, depressed mood, insomnia.

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117
Q

Anorexia Nervosa

A

The essential features of Anorexia Nervosa are (a) a restriction of energy intake that leads to a significantly low body weight; (b) an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat or behavior that interferes with weight gain; (c) a disturbance in the way the person experiences their body weight or shape or a persistent lack of recognition of the seriousness of their low body weight.

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118
Q

Bipolar II Disorder

A

A diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder requires at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode. A hypomanic episode lasts for at least four consecutive days and involves at least three symptoms that are also associated with a manic episode but are not severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning or require hospitalization. A major depressive episode lasts for at least two weeks and involves at least five characteristics symptoms, at least one of which must be a depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure.

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119
Q

Delirium

A

A diagnosis of Delirium requires (a) a disturbance in attention and awareness that develops over a short period of time, represents a change from baseline functioning, and tends to fluctuate in severity over the course of a day and (b) an additional disturbance in cognition (e.g., impaired memory, disorientation, impaired language, deficits in visuospatial ability, perceptual distortions). Symptoms must not be due to another Neurocognitive Disorder and must not occur during a severely reduced level of arousal (e.g., during a coma), and there must be evidence that symptoms are the direct physiological consequence of a medical condition, substance intoxication or withdrawal, and/or exposure to a toxin.

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120
Q

DSM-5

A

The DSM-5 utilizes a categorical approach that divides the mental disorders into types that are defined by a set of diagnostic criteria and requires the clinician to determine whether or not a client meets the minimum criteria for a given diagnosis. To allow for individual differences, it includes a polythetic criteria set for most disorders that requires a client to present with only a subset of characteristics from a larger list. It provides a nonaxial assessment system in which all mental and medical diagnoses are listed together with the primary diagnoses listed first.

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121
Q

Histrionic Personality Disorder

A

Histrionic Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of emotionality and attention-seeking as manifested by at least five characteristic symptoms-e.g., discomfort when not the center of attention; inappropriately sexually seductive or provocative; rapidly shifting and shallow emotions; consistent use of physical appearance to gain attention; considers relationships to be more intimate than they are.

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122
Q

Malingering

A

Malingering is included in the DSM-5 with Other Conditions that May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention. It involves the intentional production, faking, or gross exaggeration of physical or psychological symptoms to obtain an external reward (e.g., to avoid criminal prosecution or obtain financial compensation).

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123
Q

Opioid Withdrawal

A

Opioid Withdrawal occurs following cessation or reduction in the use of an opioid following prolonged or heavy use or administration of an opioid antagonist following a period of opioid use. The diagnosis requires at least three characteristic symptoms: dysphoric mood; nausea or vomiting; muscle aches; lacrimation or rhinorrhea; pupillary dilation; piloerection, or sweating; diarrhea; yawning; fever; insomnia.

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124
Q

Premature Ejaculation

A

Premature Ejaculation is diagnosed in the presence of a persistent or recurrent pattern of ejaculation during partnered sexual activity within about one minute of vaginal penetration or before the person desires it. The disturbance must have been present for at least six months, be experienced on all or almost all occasions of sexual activity, and cause clinically significant distress. Treatment often includes use of the start-stop or squeeze technique.

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125
Q

Separation Anxiety Disorder

A

Separation Anxiety Disorder involves developmentally inappropriate and excessive fear or anxiety related to separation from home or attachment figures as evidenced by at least three symptoms-e.g., recurrent excessive distress when anticipating or experiencing separation from home or major attachment figures; persistent excessive fear of being alone; repeated complaints of physical symptoms when separation from an attachment figure occurs or is anticipated. The disturbance must last at least four weeks in children and adolescents or six months in adults and must cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning.

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126
Q

Tourette’s Disorder

A

Tourette’s Disorder is characterized by the presence of at least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics that may appear simultaneously or at least different times, may wax and wane in frequency, have persisted for more than one year, and began prior to age 18.

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127
Q

Acupuncture

A

Acupuncture is a traditional Asian method for restoring health and involves stimulating specific anatomical points on the body, usually with a thin metallic needle. The traditional explanation for its effects is that illness is due to a blockage of qi (vital life energy) and that acupuncture unblocks the flow of qi along the pathways through which it circulates in the body. Research suggests that its benefits may be due to the release of pain-suppressing substances or to an alteration in blood flow in areas around the needle or in certain regions of the brain.

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128
Q

Autism Spectrum Disorder

A

For a diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder, the individual must exhibit (a) persistent deficits in social communication and interaction across multiple contexts as manifested by deficits in social-emotional reciprocity, nonverbal communication, and the development, maintenance, and understanding of relationships; (b) restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, and activities as manifested by at least two characteristic symptoms (e.g., stereotyped or repetitive motor movements, use of objects, or speech; inflexible adherence to routines, or ritualized patterns of behavior); (c) the presence of symptoms during the early developmental period; and (d) impaired functioning as the result of symptoms. The best outcomes are associated with an ability to communicate by age 5 or 6, an IQ over 70, and a later onset of symptoms.

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129
Q

Bulimia Nervosa

A

Bulimia Nervosa is characterized by (a) recurrent episodes of binge eating that are accompanied by a sense of a lack of control; (b) inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain (e.g., self-induced vomiting, excessive exercise); and (c) self-evaluation that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.

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130
Q

Depressive Cognitive Triad

A

According to Beck, the cognitive profile for depression involves a cognitive triad-i.e., negative beliefs about oneself, the world (situation), and the future.

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131
Q

Expressed Emotion and Schizophrenia

A

A high level of expressed emotion by family members toward the member of Schizophrenia is associated with a high risk for relapse and rehospitalization. High expressed emotion is characterized by open criticism and hostility toward the patient or, alternatively, overprotectiveness and emotional over involvement.

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132
Q

Learned Helplessness Model

A

Seligman’s learned helplessness model proposes that depression is due to exposure to uncontrollable negative events and internal, stable, and global attributions for those events. A reformulation of the theory by Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy emphasizes the role of hopelessness.

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133
Q

Narcolepsy

A

Narcolepsy is characterized by attacks of an irrepressible need to sleep with lapses into sleep or daytime naps that occur at least three times per week and have been present for at least three months. The diagnosis also requires episodes of cataplexy, a hypocretin deficiency, or a rapid eye movement latency less than or equal to 15 minutes.

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134
Q

Panic Disorder

A

Panic Disorder is characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks with at least one attack being followed by one month of persistent concern about having additional attacks or about their consequences and/or involving a significant maladaptive change in behavior related to the attack. Cognitive behavioral interventions that incorporate exposure are the treatment-of-choice for this disorder.

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135
Q

Risk Factors for Suicide

A

High risk for suicide is associated with a warning; previous attempts; a plan (especially one involving a lethal weapon); male gender; being divorced, separate, or widowed; and feelings of hopelessness. For most age groups, the rates are highest for Whites; an exception is for American-Indian/Alaskan Native individuals ages 15 to 34 who have a rate 2.5 times higher than the national average for this age group. Of the mental disorders, the highest risk is associated with Major Depression and Bipolar Disorder. Suicide attempters (vs. completers) are most likely to be female.

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136
Q

Specific Phobia

A

Specific Phobia is characterized by intense fear of or anxiety about a specific object or situation, with the individual either avoiding the object or situation or enduring it with marked distress. The fear or anxiety is not proportional to the danger posed by the object or situation, is persistent (typically lasting for at least 6 months), and causes clinically significant. distress or impaired functioning. The treatment-of-choice is exposure with response prevention (especially in vivo exposure).

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137
Q

Acute Stress Disorder

A

The diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder requires the development of at least nine symptoms following exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation in at least one of four ways (direct experience of the event; witnessing the event in person as it happened to others; learning that the event occurred to a close family member or friend; repeated or extreme exposure to aversive details of the event). Symptoms can be from any of five categories (intrusion, negative mood, dissociative symptoms, avoidance symptoms, arousal symptoms), have a duration of three days to one month, and cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning.

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138
Q

Avoidant Personality Disorder

A

Avoidant Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation, as indicated by at least four characteristic symptoms-e.g., avoids work activities involving interpersonal contact due to a fear of criticism, rejection, or disapproval; is unwilling to get involved with people unless certain of being liked; is preoccupied with concerns about being criticized or rejected; views self as socially inept, inferior, or unappealing to others.

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139
Q

Concordance Rates for Schizophrenia

A

The rates of schizophrenia are higher among individuals with genetic similarity, and, the greater the similarity, the higher the concordance rates: For example, for biological siblings, the rate is 10%; and, for identical (monozygotic) twins, the rate is 48%.

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140
Q

Diagnostic Uncertainty

A

When using the DSM-5, diagnostic uncertainty about a client’s diagnosis is indicated by coding one of the following: Other specified disorder is coded when the clinician wants to indicate the reason why the client’s symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis, while unspecified disorder is coded when the clinician does not want to indicate the reason why the client’s symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis.

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141
Q

Factitious Disorder

A

Individuals with Factitious Disorder imposed on Self falsify physical or psychological symptoms that are associated with their deception, present themselves to others as being ill or impaired, and engage in the deceptive behavior even in the absence of an obvious external reward for doing so. Individuals with Factitious Disorder imposed on Another falsify physical or psychological symptoms in another person, present that person to others as being ill or impaired, and engage in the deceptive behavior even in the absence of an external reward. For both types of Factitious Disorder, falsification of symptoms can involve feigning, exaggeration, simulation, or induction (e.g., by ingestion of a substance or self-injury).

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142
Q

Major and Mild Neurocognitive Disorder

A

Major Neurocognitive Disorder (formerly Dementia) is diagnosed when there is evidence of significant decline from a previous level of functioning in one or more cognitive domains that interferes with the individual’s independence in everyday activities and does not occur only in the context of Delirium. Mild Neurocognitive Disorder (formerly Cognitive Disorder NOS) is the appropriate diagnosis when there is evidence of a modest decline from a previous level of functioning in one or more cognitive domains that does not interfere with the individual’s independence in everyday activities and does not occur only in the context of Delirium. Subtypes are based on etiology and include Major and Mild Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Alzheimer’s disease, Vascular Disease, Traumatic Brain Injury, HIV infection, Parkinson’s disease, and Huntington’s Disease.

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143
Q

Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Alzheimer’s Disease

A

This disorder is diagnosed when the criteria for Major or Mild Neurocognitive Disorder are met, there is an insidious onset and gradual progression of impairment in one or more cognitive domains (or at least two domains for Major Neurocognitive Disorder), and the criteria for probably or possible Alzheimer’s disease are met. It involves a slow, progressive decline in cognitive functioning that can be described in terms of the following stages: Stage 1 (1 to 3 years) involves anterograde amnesia (especially for declarative memories); deficits in visuospatial skills (wandering); indifference, irritability, and sadness; and anomia. Stage 2 (2 to 10 years) is characterized by increasing retrograde amnesia; flat or labile mood; restlessness and agitation; delusions; fluent aphasia; acalculia; and ideomotor apraxia (inabilities to translate an idea into movement). Stage 3 (8 to 12 years) entails severely deteriorated intellectual functioning; apathy; limb rigidity; and urinary and fecal incontinence.

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144
Q

Paranoid Personality Disorder

A

Paranoid Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of distrust and suspiciousness that entails interpreting the motives of others as malevolent. The diagnosis requires the presence of at least four characteristic symptoms-e.g., suspects that others are exploiting, harming, or deceiving them without a sufficient basis for doing so; reads demeaning content into benign remarks or events; persistently bears grudges; is persistently suspicious about the fidelity of their spouse or sexual partner without justification.

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145
Q

Schizoid Personality Disorder

A

Schizoid Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of detachment from interpersonal relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression in social settings with at least four characteristic symptoms-doesn’t desire or enjoy close relationships; almost always chooses solitary activities; has little interest in sexual relationships; takes pleasure in few activities; lacks close friends or confidants other than first-degree relatives; seems indifferent to praise or criticism; exhibits emotional coldness or detachment.

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146
Q

Substance Use Disorders

A

The Substance Use Disorders are characterized by a ‘cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating that the individual continues using the substance despite significant substance-related problems’ (APA, 2013, p. 483) as manifested by at least two symptoms during a 12-month period-e.g., substance used in larger amounts or for a longer period of time than intended; persistent desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down or control use; craving for the substance; recurrent substance use despite persistent social problems caused or worsened by substance use; recurrent substance use in situations in which it is physically dangerous to do so; tolerance; withdrawal.

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147
Q

Antisocial Personality Disorder

A

Antisocial Personality Disorder is characterized by a pattern of disregard for an violation of the rights of others that has occurred since age 15 and involves at least three characteristic symptoms-e.g., failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behavior; deceitfulness; impulsivity; reckless disregard for the safety of self and others; lack of remorse. The person must be at least 18 years old and have a history of Conduct Disorder before 15 years of age.

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148
Q

Borderline Personality Disorder

A

The essential feature of Borderline Personality Disorder is a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect, and marked impulsivity. At least five characteristic symptoms must be present-e.g., frantic efforts to avoid abandonment; pattern of unstable, intense interpersonal relationships that are marked by fluctuations between idealization and devaluation; an identity disturbance involving a persistent instability in self-image or sense of self; recurrent suicide threats or gestures; transient stress-related paranoid ideation or severe dissociative symptoms.

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149
Q

Delusional Disorder

A

Delusional Disorder involves one or more delusions that last at least one month. Overall psychosocial functioning is not markedly impaired, and any impairment is directly related to the delusions. The DSM-5 distinguishes between the following subtypes: erotomanic, grandiose, jealous, persecutory, somatic, mixed, and unspecified.

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150
Q

Enuresis

A

Enuresis involves repeated voiding of urine into the bed or clothes at least twice a week for three or more consecutive months. Urination is usually involuntary but can be intentional and is not due to substance use or a medical condition. Enuresis is diagnosed only when the individual is at least five years old or the equivalent developmental level. The bell-and-pad (urine alarm) is the most common treatment.

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151
Q

Insomnia Disorder

A

Insomnia Disorder is characterized by dissatisfaction with sleep quality or quantity that is associated with at least one characteristic symptom-difficulty initiating sleep; difficulty maintaining sleep; early morning awakening with an inability to return to sleep. The sleep disturbance occurs at least three nights each week, has been present for at least three months, occurs despite sufficient opportunities for sleep, and causes significant distress or impaired functioning.

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152
Q

Marlatt and Gordon/Relapse Prevention Therapy

A

Marlatt and Gordon view addiction as an ‘overlearned maladaptive habit pattern’, and their relapse prevention therapy focuses on identifying circumstances that increase the risk for relapse and implementing cognitive and behavioral strategies that help the client prevent and cope effectively with lapses.

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153
Q

Oppositional Defiant Disorder

A

Oppositional Defiant Disorder involves a recurrent pattern of an angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness as evidence by at least four characteristic symptoms that are exhibited during interactions with at least one person who is not a sibling-e.g., often loses temper; often argues with authority figures; often actively refuses to comply with requests from authority figures or with rules; often blames others for their mistakes.

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154
Q

Prognosis for Schizophrenia

A

A better prognosis for schizophrenia is associated with good premorbid adjustment, an acute and late onset, female gender, the presence of a precipitating event, a brief duration of active-phase symptoms, insight into the illness, a family history of a mood disorder, and no family history of schizophrenia.

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155
Q

Social Anxiety Disorder

A

Social Anxiety Disorder involves intense fear or anxiety about one or more social situations in which the individual may be exposed to scrutiny by others. The individual fears that they will exhibit anxiety symptoms in these situations that will be negatively evaluated; they avoid the situations or endure them with intense fear or anxiety; and their fear or anxiety is not proportional to the threat pose by the situations. The fear, anxiety, and avoidance are persistent and cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning. Exposure with response prevention is an effective treatment, and its benefits may be enhanced when it is combined with social skills training or cognitive restructuring and other cognitive techniques.

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156
Q

Uncomplicated Bereavement

A

Uncomplicated Bereavement is included in the DSM-5 with Other Conditions that May Be a Focus of Treatment and is described as ‘a normal reaction to the death of a loved on’ (APA, 2013, p. 716). Uncomplicated bereavement may include symptoms of a major depressive episode, but the individual usually experiences the symptoms as normal and may be seeking treatment for insomnia, anorexia, or other associated symptoms.

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157
Q

Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder

A

ADHD is the appropriate diagnosis when the individual has at least six symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity and symptoms had an onset prior to 12 years of age, are present in at least two settings (e.g., home and school), and interfere with social, academic, or occupational functioning. About 15% of children with ADHD continue to meet the full diagnostic criteria for the disorder as young adults and another 60% meet the criteria for ADHD in partial remission. In adults, inattention predominates the symptom profile.

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158
Q

Brief Psychotic Disorder

A

Brief Psychotic Disorder is characterized by the presence of one or more of four characteristic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior) with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech. Symptoms are present for at least one day but less than one month with an eventual return to full premorbid functioning.

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159
Q

Dependent Personality Disorder

A

Dependent Personality Disorder involves a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, which leads to submissive, clinging behavior and a fear of separation as manifested by at least five symptoms-e.g., has difficulty making decisions without advice and reassurance from others; fears disagreeing with others because it might lead to a loss of support; has difficulty initiating projects on their own; goes to great lengths to gain nurturance and support from others; is unrealistically preoccupied with fears of being left to care for themselves.

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160
Q

Erectile Disorder

A

A diagnosis of Erectile Disorder requires the presence of at least one of three symptoms (marked difficulty in obtaining an erection during sexual activity, marked difficulty in maintaining an erection until completion of sexual activity, marked decrease in erectile rigidity) on all or almost all occasions of sexual activity.

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161
Q

Intellectual Disability

A

Intellectual Disability is diagnosed in the presence of (a) deficits in intellectual functions (e.g., reasoning, problem solving, abstract thinking); (b) deficits in adaptive functioning that result in a failure to meet community standards of personal independence and social responsibility and impair functioning across multiple environments in one or more activities of daily life; and (c) an onset of intellectual and adaptive functioning deficits during teh developmental period. Four degrees of severity (mild, moderate, severe, and profound) are based on adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.

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162
Q

Narcissistic Personality Disorder

A

Narcissistic Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy as indicated by at least five characteristic symptoms-e.g., has a grandiose sense of self-importance; is preoccupied with fantasies of unlimited success, power, beauty, love; believes they are unique and can be understood only by other high-status people; requires excessive admiration; has a sense of entitlement; lacks empathy; is often envious of others or believes others are envious of them.

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163
Q

Outline for Cultural Formulation

A

The DSM-5’s Outline for Cultural Formulation provides guidelines for assessing four factors: the client’s cultural identity; the client’s cultural conceptualization of distress; the psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the client’s vulnerability and resilience; and cultural factors relevant to the relationship between the client and therapist.

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164
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder

A

Reactive Attachment Disorder is characterized by a pattern of inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers as manifested by a lack of seeking or responding to comfort when distressed and a persistent social and emotional disturbance. The diagnosis requires evidence that the child has experienced extreme insufficient care that is believed to be the cause of the disturbed behavior. Symptoms must be apparent before the child is five years of age, and the child must have a developmental age of at least nine months.

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165
Q

Specific Learning Disorder

A

Specific Learning Disorder is diagnosed when a person exhibits difficulties related to academic skills as indicated by the presence of at least one characteristic symptom that persists for at least six months despite the provision of interventions targeting those difficulties. The diagnosis requires that the individual’s academic skills are substantially below those expected for their age, interfere with academic or occupational performance or activities of daily living, began during the school-age years, and are not better accounted for by another condition or disorder or other factor such as uncorrected visual or auditory impairment or psychosocial adversity.

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166
Q

Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder

A

Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder is diagnosed when the criteria for Major or Mild Neurocognitive Disorder are met, the clinical features are consistent with a vascular etiology, and there is evidence of cerebrovascular disease from the individual’s history, a physical examination, and/or neuroimaging that is considered sufficient to account for their symptoms. This disorder often has a stepwise, fluctuating course with a patchy pattern of symptoms that is determined by the location of the brain damage.

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167
Q

Adjustment Disorders

A

The Adjustment Disorders involve the development of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to one or more identifiable psychosocial stressors within three months of the onset of the stressor(s). Symptoms must be clinically significant as evidenced by the presence of marked distress that is not proportional to the severity of the stressor and/or significant impairment in functioning, and they must remit within 6 months after termination of the stressor or its consequences.

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168
Q

Behavioral Pediatrics (Hospitalization, Compliance)

A

Hospitalized children are at increased risk for emotional and behavioral problems, and children ages one to four tend to have the most negative reactions to hospitalization. Children and adolescents with chronic medical conditions have higher rates of school-related problems (e.g., CNS irradiation and intrathecal chemotherapy for leukemia have been linked to impaired neurocognitive functioning and learning disabilities). Compliance with medical regimens is a particular problem for adolescents.

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169
Q

Conduct Disorder

A

The diagnosis of Conduct Disorder requires a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others and/or age-appropriate social norms or rules as evidenced by the presence of at least three characteristic symptoms during the past 12 months and at least one symptom in the past six months. Symptoms are divided into four categories: aggression to the people and animals; destruction of property; deceitfulness or theft; and serious violation of rules. Symptoms must cause significant impairment in functioning, and the disorder cannot be assigned to individuals over age 18 who meet the criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder.

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170
Q

Dialectical Behavior Therapy

A

Linehan’s (1987) Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) was designed as a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder and incorporates three strategies: (a) group skills training to help clients regulate their emotions and improve their social and coping skills; (b) individual outpatient therapy to strengthen clients’ motivation and newly-acquired skills; and (c) telephone consultations to provide additional support and between-sessions coaching. Research has confirmed that it reduces premature termination from therapy, psychiatric hospitalizations, and parasuicidal behaviors.

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171
Q

Gender Dysphoria

A

For Gender Dysphoria in Children, the diagnostic criteria are a marked incongruence between assigned gender at birth and experienced or expressed gender as evidenced by a strong desire to be the opposite sex and at least five symptoms-e.g., strong preference for wearing clothes of the other gender; strong preference for cross-gender roles during play; strong preference for toys and activities typically used or engaged in by the other gender; strong preference for playmates of the opposite gender; strong desire for primary and/or secondary sex characteristics of one’s experience gender. For Gender Dysphoria in Adolescents and Adults, the marked incongruence between assigned gender and experienced or expressed gender must be manifested by at least two symptoms-e.g., marked incongruence between one’s primary and/or secondary sex characteristics and one’s experienced or expressed gender; strong desire for the primary and/or secondary sex characteristics of the opposite gender; strong desire to be of the opposite gender; strong conviction that one has the feelings and reactions that are characteristic of the opposite gender. For both disorders, symptoms must have a duration of at least six months and cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning.

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172
Q

Major Depressive Disorder

A

A diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder requires the presence of at least five symptoms of a major depressive episode nearly everyday for at least two weeks, with at least one symptoms being depressed mood or loss of interest or pleasure. Symptoms are depressed mood (or, in children and adolescents, a depressed or irritable mood); markedly diminished interest or pleasure in most or all activities; significant weight loss when not dieting or weight gain or a decrease or increase in appetite; insomnia or hypersomnia; psychomotor agitation or retardation; fatigue or loss of energy; feelings or worthless or excessive guilt; diminished ability to think or concentrate; recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation, and a suicide attempt. Symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning. Treatment usually includes cognitive-behavioral therapy and an SSRI or other antidepressant.

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173
Q

Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorders

A

This disorder involves recurrent episodes of incomplete awakening that usually occur during the first third of the major sleep episode and are accompanied by sleepwalking (getting out of bed during sleep and walking around) and/or sleep terror (an abrupt arousal from sleep that often begins with a panicky scream and is accompanied by intense fear and signs of autonomic arousal). The individual has limited or no recall of an episode upon awakening, and the disturbance causes significant distress or impaired functioning.

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174
Q

Paraphilic Disorders

A

The Paraphilic Disorders include Voyeuristic, Exhibitionistic, Frotteuristic, Sexual Sadism, Pedophilic, Fetishistic, and Tranvestic Disorders. These disorders are characterized by an ‘intense and persistent sexual interest other than sexual interest in genital stimulation or preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature, consenting human partners… [that] is currently causing distress or impairment to the individual or … has entailed personal harm, or risk of harm, to others’ (APA, 2013, pp. 685-686).

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175
Q

Schizophrenia

A

A diagnosis of schizophrenia requires the presence of at least two active phase symptoms-i.e., delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized behavior, negative symptoms-for at least one month with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucination, or disorganized speech. There must be continuous signs of the disorder for at least six months, and symptoms must cause significant impairment in functioning. Treatment usually includes an antipsychotic drug, cognitive-behavioral therapy, psychoeducation, social skills training, supported employment, and other interventions for the individual with schizophrenia and psychosocial interventions for their family.

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176
Q

Substance-Induced Disorders

A

The Substance-Induced Disorders include Substance Intoxication, Substance Withdrawal, and Substance/Medication-Induced Mental Disorders. The latter ‘are potentially severe, usually temporary, but sometimes persisting central nervous system (CNS) syndromes that develop in the context of the effects of substances of abuse, medications, or toxins (APA, 2013, p. 487) and include Substance/Medication-Induced Psychotic Disorder, Substance/Medication-Induced Depressive Disorder, and Substance/Medication-Induced Neurocognitive Disorders.

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177
Q

Agoraphobia

A

A diagnosis of Agoraphobia requires the presence of marked fear of or anxiety about at least two of five situations (using public transportation, being in open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, standing in line or being part of a crowd, and being outside the home alone). The individual fears or avoids these situations due to a concern that escape might be difficult or help will be unavailable in case they develops incapacitating or embarrassing symptoms; and the situations nearly always provoke fear or anxiety and are actively avoided, require the presence of a companion, or are enduring with intense fear or anxiety. The fear or anxiety is persistent, is not proportional to the threat posed by the situations, and causes clinically significant distress or impaired functioning.

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178
Q

Behavioral Theory of Depression (Lewinsohn)

A

Lewinsohn’s behavioral theory attributes depression to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement.

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179
Q

Conversion Disorder

A

The symptoms of Conversion Disorder involve disturbances in voluntary motor or sensory functioning and suggest a serious neurological or other medical condition (e.g, paralysis, seizures, blindness, loss of pain sensation) with evidence of an incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological or other medical conditions.

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180
Q

Dissociative Amnesia

A

A diagnosis of Dissociative Amnesia requires an inability to recall important personal information that cannot be attributed to ordinary forgetfulness and causes clinically significant distress or impaired functioning. It is often related to exposure to one or more traumatic events. The most common forms of amnesia are localized and selective.

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181
Q

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

GAD involves excessive anxiety and worry about multiple events or activities, which are relatively constant for at least six months, the person finds difficult to control, and cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning. Anxiety and worry must include at least three characteristic symptoms (or at least one symptom for children)-restlessness or feeling keyed up or on edge; being easily fatigued; difficulty concentrating; irritability; muscle tension; sleep disturbance. Treatment usually involves cognitive-behavioral therapy or a combination of cognitive-behavioral therapy and pharmacotherapy.

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182
Q

Major Depressive Disorder with Peripartum Onset

A

The peripartum onset specifier is applied to Major Depressive Disorder, Bipolar I Disorder, and Bipolar II Disorder when the onset of symptoms is during pregnancy or within four weeks postpartum. Symptoms may include anxiety and a preoccupation with the infant’s well-being or, in extreme cases, delusional thoughts about the infant.

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183
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

A

OCD is characterized by recurrent obsessions and/or compulsions that are time-consuming or cause clinically significant distress or impairment in functioning. Obsessions are persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that the person experiences as intrusive and unwanted and that they attempt to ignore or suppress, and compulsions are repetitious and deliberate behaviors or mental acts that the person feels driven to perform either in response to an obsession or according to rigid rules. A combination of exposure with response prevention and the tricyclic clomipramine or an SSRI is usually the treatment of choice for OCD.

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184
Q

Persistent Depressive Disorder

A

Persistent Depressive Disorder is characterized by a depressed mood (or in children and adolescents, a depressed or irritable mood) on most days for at least two years in adults or one year in children and adolescents as indicated by the presence of at least two characteristic symptoms-poor appetite or overeating; insomnia or hypersomnia; low energy or fatigue; low self-esteem; poor concentration or difficulty making decisions; feelings of hopelessness. During the two- or one-year period, the individual has not been symptom-free for more than two months, and symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning.

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185
Q

Schizophreniform Disorder

A

The diagnostic criteria for schizophreniform disorder are identical to those for schizophrenia except that the disturbance is present for at least one month but less than six months and impaired social or occupational functioning may occur but is not required.

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186
Q

Tobacco Use Disorder/Smoking Cessation Interventions

A

Interventions for Tobacco Use Disorder are most likely to lead to long-term abstinence when they include three elements: (a) nicotine replacement therapy; (b) multicomponent behavior therapy that includes, for example, skills training, relapse prevention, stimulus control, and/or rapid smoking; and (c) support and assistance from a clinician.

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187
Q

Adolescent Egocentrism (Elkind)

A

Adolescent egocentrism appears at the beginning of the formal operational stage. As defined by Elkind, its characteristics include the personal fable and the imaginary audience.

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188
Q

Childhood (Infantile) Amnesia

A

Studies investigating episodic (autobiographical) memory have found that adults are usually able to recall very few of the events they experienced prior to age three or four. This is referred to as childhood or infantile amnesia.

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189
Q

Early Reflexes

A

Reflexes are unlearned responses to particular stimuli in the environment. Early reflexes include the Babinski reflex (toes fan out and upward when soles of the feet are tickled) and the Moro reflex (flings arms and legs outward and then towards the body in response to a loud noise or sudden loss of physical support).

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190
Q

Gay and Lesbian Parents

A

The research on gay and lesbian parenting suggests that the nature of the parent-child relationship is more important than a parent’s sexual orientation. Overall, children of gay and lesbian parents are similar to children of heterosexual parents in terms of social relations, psychological adjustment, cognitive functioning, gender identity development, and sexual orientation.

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191
Q

Internal Working Model (Bowlby)

A

Bowlby distinguished between four stages of attachment development that occur during the first two years of life-preattachment, attachment-in-the-making, clearcut attachment, and the formation of reciprocal relationships. According to Bowlby, as a result of experiences during these stages, a child develops an internal working model, which is a mental representation of self and others that influences the child’s future relationships.

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192
Q

Niche Picking

A

Niche-picking is also known as active genotype-environment correlation and occurs when individuals deliberately seek environments that are consistent with their genetic make-up

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193
Q

Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive Development

A

According to Piaget, cognitive development involves four universal and invariant stages: During the sensorimotor stage (birth to two years), the child learns about objects and other people through the sensory information they provide and the actions that can be performed on them. A key accomplishment of the preoperational stage (ages 2 to 7) is the development of the symbolic (semiotic) function, which is an extension of representational thought and permits the child to learn through the use of language, mental images, and other symbols. Limitations of this stage include pre causal reasoning and egocentrism. Children in the concrete operational stage (ages 7 to 11) are capable of mental operations, which are logical rules for transforming and manipulating information. As a result, they are able to classify in more sophisticated ways, seriate, understand part-whole relationships in relational terms, and conserve. Finally, a person in the formal operational stage (age 11+) is able to think abstractly and is capable of hypothetico-deductive reasoning.

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194
Q

Sexual Activity in Late Adulthood

A

The research has generally confirmed that sexual activity in mid-life and earlier is a good predictor of sexual activity in late adulthood. For example, Landau et al. (2007) found that sexually active adults 57 to 85 years of age reported a frequency of sexual activity similar to the frequency reported in an earlier study of adults ages 18 to 59. However, their survey results also indicated that the number of older adults identifying themselves as “sexually active” decreased with increasing age.

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195
Q

Turner Syndrome

A

Turner syndrome occurs in females and is caused by the presence of a single X chromosome. Females with Turner syndrome are short in stature, have characteristic physical features (e.g., drooping eyelids, webbed neck), have delayed or absent development of the secondary sex characteristics, and may exhibit certain cognitive deficits.

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196
Q

Adult Attachment Interview

A

Adult Attachment Interview (AAI0 has confirmed a relationship between parents’ own attachment experiences and the attachment patterns of their children. For example, children of adults classified as dismissing on the AAI often exhibit an avoidant attachment pattern in the Strange Situation.

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197
Q

Coercive Family Interaction Model (Patterson)

A

Patterson et al’s coercive family interaction model proposes that children initially learn aggressive behaviors from their parents who rarely reinforce prosocial behaviors, rely on harsh discipline to control their children’s behavior, and reward their children’s aggressiveness with approval and attention and that, over time, aggressive parent-child interactions escalate. They developed the Oregon model of parent management training (PMTO) to help stop this coercive cycle by teaching parents effective parenting skills and providing parents with therapy to help them cope more effectively with stress.

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198
Q

Effects of Age on Memory

A

Several aspects of memory show age-related declines, especially recent long-term (secondary) memory. Deficits in secondary memory are believed to be due primarily to a reduced spontaneous use of effective encoding strategies.The working memory aspect of short-term memory also exhibits substantial age-related decline.

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199
Q

Gender Identity (Kohlberg, Bem)

A

According to Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory, the development of a gender-role identity involves a sequence of stages that parallels cognitive development: By age 2 or 3, children acquire a gender identity; that is, they recognize that they are either male or female. Soon thereafter, they realize that gender identity is stable over time (gender stability). By age 6 or 7, children understand that gender is constant over situation and know that people cannot change by superficially altering their external appearance or behavior (gender constancy). Bem’s gender schema theory attributes the acquisition of a gender-role identity to a combination of social learning and cognitive development. According to Bem, children develop schemas of masculinity and femininity as the result of their sociocultural experiences. These schemas then organize how the individual perceives and thinks about the world.

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200
Q

Klinefelter Syndrome

A

Klinefelter syndrome occurs in males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes along with a single Y chromosome. A male with this disorder has a small penis and testes, develops breasts during puberty, has limited interest in sexual activity, is often sterile, and may have learning disabilities.

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201
Q

Object Permanence

A

According to Piaget, an important accomplishment of the sensorimotor stage is the development of object permanence (the “object concept”), which allows the child to recognize that objects and people continue to exist when they are out of sight.

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202
Q

Precausal Reasoning (Magical Thinking/Animism)

A

As described by Piaget, the preoperational stage of cognitive development is characterized by precausal (transductive) reasoning, which reflects an incomplete understanding of cause and effect. One manifestation of precausal reasoning is magical thinking (the belief that thinking about something will cause it to occur); another manifestation is animism (the tendency to attribute human characteristics to inanimate objects).

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203
Q

Sibling Relationships

A

Most interactions between young siblings involve pro social, play-oriented behaviors. However, middle-childhood is usually marked by a paradoxical combination of closeness/conflict and cooperation/competition. During this period, sibling rivalry increases and is most intense among same-gender siblings who are 1-1/2 to 3 years apart in age and whose parents provide inconsistent discipline. In adolescence, siblings spend less time together, their relationship becomes less emotionally intense and more distant, and the friction between them usually declines as they begin to view one another as equals.

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204
Q

Under extension/Overextension

A

During the course of language development, children exhibit a number of errors including underextension and overextension. Underextension occurs when a child applies a word too narrowly to objects or situations, while overextension occurs when a child applies a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate.

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205
Q

Bilingualism and Bilingual Education

A

Bilingualism has been linked with several benefits including higher scores on measures of cognitive flexibility, cognitive complexity, analytical reasoning, and meta linguistic awareness. There is some evidence, however, that these benefits are temporary and that, by adolescence, bilingual and monolingual speakers are indistinguishable in terms of these characteristics.

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206
Q

Contact Comfort (Harlow)

A

Research by Harlow with rhesus monkeys indicated that an infant’s attachment to their mother is due, in part, to contact comfort, or the pleasant tactile sensation that is provided by a soft, cuddly parent.

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207
Q

Empty Nest Syndrome

A

Contrary to what is commonly believed, adults do not usually experience distress and a sense of loss (i.e., the ‘empty nest syndrome’) when all of their children come of age and leave home. Instead, the studies suggest that they usually experience an increase in marital satisfaction and other positive changes.

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208
Q

Heteronomous versus Autonomous Morality (Piaget)

A

Piaget distinguished between two stages of moral development. The stage of heteronomous morality (or morality of constraint) extends from about age 7 through age 10. During this stage, children believe that rules are set by authority figures and are unalterable. When judging whether an act is “right” or “wrong”, they consider whether a rule has been violated and what the consequences of the act are. Beginning at about age 11, children enter the stage of autonomous morality (or morality of cooperation). Children in this stage view rules as being arbitrary and alterable when the people who are governed by them agree to change them. When judging an act, they focus more on the intention of the actor than on the act’s consequences.

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209
Q

Maternal Depression

A

Children of depressed mothers are at higher risk for emotional and behavioral problems, although the exact nature and severity of the problems depend on several factors including genetic predisposition and the quality of early mother-child interactions. There is evidence that the physiological signs of distress in children associated with maternal depression (e.g., elevated heart rate, greater right frontal lobe asymmetry) are apparent by the time the child is three months of age. In addition, studies of toddlers have linked maternal depression (especially chronic, severe depression) to passive noncompliance and higher than normal rates of aggressiveness when interacting with peers.

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210
Q

Perception in Newborns (Vision, Pain)

A

Of the senses, vision is least well developed at birth. At birth, the newborn sees at 20 feet what normal adults see at about 200 to 400 feet; but, by about six months, the infant’s visual acuity is probably very close to that of a normal adult. With regard to specific types of visual stimuli, newborns prefer to look at high-contrast patterns (e.g., a bold black-and-white checkerboard), and their preference for more complex patterns increases with increasing age. The research has confirmed that newborns are sensitive to pain. For example, male newborns who are circumcised without anesthesia often reach with a loud cry, a facial grimace, and an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and muscle tension. There is evidence that exposure to severe pain as a newborn can impact later reactions (e.g., in some cases, can increase sensitivity to pain).

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211
Q

Remarriage (Child’s Age, Stepfathers)

A

Although there is evidence that, when compared to children in intact biological families, children in stepfamilies have more adjustment problems, the differences between the two groups of children are generally small. Problems are often most severe when remarriage occurs when children are in early adolescence, and this is particularly true for girls residing with a biological mother and stepfather. In terms of parenting style, the typical stepfather tends to be distant and disengaged from his stepchild.

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212
Q

Socioemotional Selectivity Theory (Carstensen)

A

An assumption underlying socioemotional selectivity theory is that social goals have two primary functions-the acquisition of knowledge and the regulation of emotion-and it predicts that social goals correspond to perceptions of time left in life as being limited or unlimited. According to this theory, older adults perceive time as limited and, consequently tend to prefer emotionally close partners.

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213
Q

Brain Development (Cerebral Cortex)

A

The cerebral cortex is largely underdeveloped at birth but shows dramatic growth during the first two years of life as the result of an increase in the size of existing neurons, more extensive dendritic branching, and increasing myelinization. The frontal lobes continue to mature into adolescence and the early 20s.

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214
Q

Critical and Sensitive Periods

A

A critical period is a time during which an organism is especially susceptible to positive and negative environmental influences. A sensitive period is more flexible than a critical period and is not limited to a specific chronological age. Some aspects of human development may depend on critical periods, but, for many human characteristics and behaviors, sensitive periods are probably more applicable.

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215
Q

Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development

A

Erikson’s theory of personality development proposes that the individual faces different psychosocial crises at different points throughout the lifespan. These are: trust vs. mistrust; autonomy vs. shame and doubt; initiative vs. guilt; industry vs. inferiority; identity vs. role confusion; intimacy vs. isolation; generativity vs. stagnation; and integrity vs. despair.

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216
Q

Horizontal Decalage

A

As described by Piaget, horizontal decalage refers to the gradual development of an ability (e.g., conservation) within a particular stage of development.

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217
Q

Memory Strategies of Children

A

Preschoolers sometimes use non-deliberate memory strategies but do so in an ineffective way, while children in the early elementary school years use somewhat more effective techniques but are often distracted by irrelevant information. In addition, when taught rehearsal or other memory strategies, young children may apply them to the immediate situation but do not subsequently use them in new situations. By age nine or ten, children begin to regularly use rehearsal, elaboration, and organization, and in adolescence, these strategies are “fine-tuned” and used more deliberately and selectively.

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218
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

A

PKU is caused by a pair of recessive genes and produces mental retardation unless the infant is placed on a diet low in phenylalanine soon after birth.

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219
Q

Rutter’s Indicators

A

Rutter argued that the greater the number of risk factors a baby is exposed to, the greater the risk for negative outcomes. He concluded that the following 6 family risk factors are particularly accurate predictors of child psychopathology: severe marital discord, low socioeconomic status, overcrowding or large family size, parental criminality, maternal psychopathology, and the placement of a child outside the home.

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220
Q

Stages of Grief (Kubler-Ross)

A

Kubler-Ross (1969) concluded that people progress through the following five stages of grief when facing their own death or other important loss: (a) denial and isolation (this isn’t happening to me), (b) anger (why me), (c) bargaining (not until my grandchild is born), (d) depression (yes, me), and (e) acceptance (my time is close and that’s alright).

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221
Q

Androgyny

A

The research has found that, for both males and females, androgyny (which combines masculine and feminine characteristics and preferences) and, to a lesser degree, masculinity were associated with higher levels of self-esteem than was femininity. Androgyny has also been linked to greater flexibility when coping with difficult situations, higher levels of life satisfaction, and greater comfort with one’s sexuality.

222
Q

Compensatory Preschool Programs

A

Research evaluating the effects of Head Start and other compensatory preschool programs has found that, while initial IQ test score gains produced by these programs are often not maintained, children who attend these programs tend to obtain higher scores on achievement tests, have better attitudes toward school, and are less likely to be retained in a grade, be placed in special education classes, and drop out of high school than their peers who do not attend such programs.

223
Q

Effects of Divorce on Children (Child’s Age, Sleeper Effect, Parental Conflict)

A

The effects of divorce are moderated by several factors including the child’s age and gender. With regard to age, preschool children exhibit the most problems immediately after the divorce, but long-term consequences may be worse for children who were in elementary school at the time of the divorce. Boys exhibit more problems than girls initially, but there may be a “sleeper effect” for girls who may develop symptoms in adolescence. The negative consequences of divorce are reduced when the conflict between parents is minimized.

224
Q

Genotype versus Phenotype

A

Genotype refers to a person’s genetic make-up; phenotype refers to observable characteristics, which are due to a combination of genetic and environmental factors.

225
Q

Kohlberg’s Levels of Moral Development

A

According to Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory, moral development coincides with changes in logical reasoning and social perspective-taking and involves three levels that each include two stages: preconventional (punishment and obedience; instrumental hedonism); conventional (good boy/good girl; law and order); and post conventional (morality of contract, individual rights, and democratically-accepted laws; morality of individual principles of conscious).

226
Q

Parenting Style

A

Baumrind and colleagues distinguish between four parenting styles that reflect various combinations of responsivity and demandingness: authoritarian, authoritative, permissive, and rejecting-neglecting. High parental responsivity combined with moderate control (an authoritative style) is associated with the best outcomes for children and adolescents, including greater self-confidence and self-reliance, achievement-orientation, and social responsibility.

227
Q

Rejected and Neglected Children

A

A distinction is made between rejected and neglected children; and the studies have found that, overall, outcomes are worse for children who are actively rejected by their peers: Rejected children express greater loneliness and peer dissatisfaction and are less likely to experience an improvement in peer status when they change social groups.

228
Q

Signs of Attachment

A

Obvious signs of attachment to a primary caregiver are usually not apparent until about six months of age. These include social referencing, separation anxiety, and stranger anxiety.

229
Q

Visual Changes in Adulthood

A

After age 65, most individuals experience visual changes that interfere with reading, driving, and other aspects of daily life. In addition to presbyopia (loss of near vision), common changes include loss of visual acuity, reduced perception of depth and color, increased light sensitivity, and deficits in visual search, dynamic vision (perceiving the details of moving objects), and speed in processing what is seen.

230
Q

Behavioral Inhibition

A

Karan (1989) found evidence of both a biological contribution and stability for the temperament trait of behavioral inhibition. His study demonstrated that children identified as either inhibited or uninhibited at 21 months of age can be similarly categorized at 5-1/2 and 7-1/2 years and that level of inhibition is related to physiological responsivity.

231
Q

Conservation

A

As defined by Piaget, conservation is the ability to understand that the physical characteristics of an object remain the same, even when the outward appearance of that object changes. Conservation depends on the operations of reversibility and decentration and develops gradually during the concrete operational stage, with conservation of number occurring first, followed by conservation of liquid, length, weight, and then displacement volume.

232
Q

Effects of Maternal Employment

A

Research investigating the effects of maternal employment has found it to be associated with greater personal satisfaction for the working mother (especially when she wants to work) and, in terms of the children, with fewer sex-role stereotypes and greater independence. For lower-SES boys, maternal employment is associated with better performance on measures of cognitive development; but for upper SES boys, it may result in lower scores on IQ and achievement tests.

233
Q

Goodness of Fit Model (Thomas and Chess)

A

According to Thomas and Chess’s goodness of fit model, behavioral and adjustment outcomes are best for children when parents’ caregiving behaviors match their child’s temperament.

234
Q

Malnutrition During Prenatal Development

A

Malnutrition during prenatal development is associated with miscarriage, stillbirth, and low birth weight and may result in suppression of the immune system, intellectual disability, and other serious problems. Severe malnutrition in the third trimester (especially protein deficiency) is particularly detrimental for the developing brain and can lead to a reduced number of neurons, reduced myelinization, and neurotransmitter abnormalities.

235
Q

Patterns of Attachment (Ainsworth)

A

Research using Ainsworth’s Strange Situation has revealed four patterns of attachment: secure, insecure/ambivalent, insecure/avoidant, and disorganized/disoriented. Each pattern is associated with different caregiver behaviors and different personality and behavioral outcomes. For example, infants who exhibit a disorganized attachment pattern are at an increased risk for aggressive behavior problems in childhood.

236
Q

Relational Crisis (Gilligan)

A

Gilligan proposed that, in early adolescence, girls experience a relational crisis due to pressures to conform to cultural stereotypes of femininity. As a result, they become disconnected from themselves (e.g., they experience a “loss of voice”).

237
Q

Social-Cognitive Factors and Aggression

A

Perry, Perry, and Rasmussen (1986) found that aggressive children differ from their less aggressive peers in terms of two beliefs (a) self-efficacy beliefs (they are more likely to say that it is easy to perform aggressive acts but difficult to inhibit aggressive impulses), and (b) beliefs about the outcomes of their behaviors (they expect that aggression will be followed by positive consequences including reduced aversive treatment by others). Other studies have linked aggression to a tendency to misinterpret the positive or ambiguous acts of others as intentionally hostile (e.g., Dodge et al., 1990).

238
Q

Vygotsky’s Sociocultural Theory (Zone of Proximal Development, Scaffolding)

A

Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory proposes that cognitive development is always first interpersonal (when the child interacts with an adult or other teacher) and then intrapersonal (when the child internalizes what they have learned). According to Vygotsky, cognitive development is facilitated when instruction falls within the child’s zone of proximal development, which refers to the discrepancy between a child’s current developmental level (the level at which the child can function independently) and the level of development that is just beyond their current level but can be reached when an adult or more experienced peer provides appropriate scaffolding (instruction, assistance, and support)

239
Q

Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological Model

A

Bronfenbrenner described development as involving interactions between the individual and their context or environment, and his ecological model describes the context in terms of five environmental systems or levels: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.

240
Q

Divorce and Diminished Capacity to Parent

A

Divorced parents often experience emotional distress and changes in functioning that include a diminished capacity to parent. For example, custodial mothers may be uncommunicative, impatient, and less warm and loving toward their child (especially sons), and they monitor their children’s activity less closely and are less consistent but more authoritarian in terms of punishment.

241
Q

Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder

A

Prenatal exposure to alcohol can produce a variety of physical, behavioral, and cognitive symptoms that, in terms of severity, depend on the amount of alcohol consumed by the pregnant woman. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is characterized by facial deformities, mental retardation, growth retardation, physical defects, and behavioral problems. The symptoms of fetal alcohol effects (FAE) are less severe and usually do not include facial deformities and mental retardation. The symptoms of both disorders are largely irreversible.

242
Q

Identity Statuses (Marcia)

A

Marcia proposes that the achievement of an identity (including values, beliefs, and goals) involves four identity stages (statuses) that reflect the degree to which the individual has experienced an identity crisis and is committed to an identity: diffusion, foreclosure, moratorium, and achievement.

243
Q

Montessori Method

A

The Montessori Method is an approach to education that emphasizes child-centered, experiential learning and sense of discrimination (I.e., learning through seeing, hearing, smelling, and touching).

244
Q

Phonemes versus Morphemes

A

Phonemes are the smallest units of sound that are understood in a language. The English language has 45 phonemes-for example, b, p, f, v, and th. Morphemes (e.g., un and ing) are the smallest units of sound that convey meaning. Morphemes are made up of one or more phonemes.

245
Q

Self Fulfilling Prophecy Effect

A

Research by Rosenthal and Jacobson found that teachers’ expectations about students can have a “self-fulfilling prophecy effect” on their academic performance, motivation, and self-esteem of students

246
Q

Stages of Language Acquisition (Crying, Babbling, First Words, Telegraphic Speech)

A

Language development occurs in a predictable series of stages. Infants initially produce three distinct patterns of crying: a basic (hunger) cry, an anger cry, and a pain cry. Babbling begins at about four months of age and consists of the repetition of simple consonant and vowel sounds (e.g., bi-bi-bi). Early babbling includes sounds from all languages, but, between nine and 14 months of age, babies narrow their repertoire of sounds to those of their native language. Most infants speak their first words between the ages of 10 and 15 months, and, by 18 months, speak about 50 words. First words are most often nominals, or labels for objects, people, or events, although action words, modifiers, and personal-social words (e.g., please) also occur. By 18 to 24 months of age, children exhibit telegraphic speech-I.e., they string two or more words together to make a sentence (e.g., me go, more juice). While these phrases initially contain only nouns, verbs, and adjectives, by 27 months, prepositions and pronouns have been added.

247
Q

Adaptation (Assimilation and Accommodation)

A

According to Piaget, cognitive development occurs when a state of disequilibrium brought on by a discrepancy between the person’s current understanding of the world and reality is resolved through adaptation, which entails two complementary processes: Assimilation is the incorporation of new knowledge into existing cognitive schemas, while accommodation is the modification of existing schemas to incorporate new knowledge.

248
Q

Child Sexual Abuse

A

In terms of the outcomes of child sexual abuse for male and female victims, some studies have found no consistent gender differences; but, when differences are found, the outcomes are worse for females than for males. The research has also found that the effects of sexual abuse tend to be less severe when the abuse was committed by a stranger than by a family member or other familiar person.

249
Q

Down Syndrome

A

Down syndrome is caused by an extra number 21 chromosome. It is characterized by mental retardation, retarded physical growth and motor development, distinctive physical characteristics, and increased susceptibility to Alzheimer’s dementia, leukemia, and heart deficits.

250
Q

Freud’s Stages of Psychosexual Development

A

Freud’s theory of personality development proposes that development involves five invariant stages (oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital), in which the libido shifts from one area of the body to another.

251
Q

Information Processing Theories

A

Information processing theories describe cognitive development as involving increasing information processing capacity and efficiency. For example, improvements in memory are due to increased memory capacity, enhanced processing speed, and greater automaticity. In contrast to Piagetians, information processing theorists focus on development within specific cognitive domains such as attention, memory, and reasoning rather than on identifying global principles of development.

252
Q

Nativist Approach to Language Acquisition (Chomsky)

A

The nativist approach to language acquisition stresses the role of biological mechanisms (e.g., Chomsky’s language acquisition device) and universal patterns of development.

253
Q

Physical Maturation in Adolescence

A

Early and late physical (sexual) maturation in adolescence has been associated with several consequences. For example, early maturation has mixed consequences for boys. It has been linked to greater popularity with peers and superior athletic skills but also to dissatisfaction with body image and increased risk for drug and alcohol use, delinquency, and depression. For girls, early maturation has been linked primarily to negative consequences: Early maturing girls tend to have a poor self-concept, be unpopular with peers, be dissatisfied with their physical development, have low academic achievement, be more likely to engage in sexually precocious behavior and drug and alcohol use, and be at increased risk for depression and eating disorders.

254
Q

Semantic and Syntactic Bootstrapping

A

Semantic and syntactic bootstrapping are mechanisms that facilitate early language development. Semantic bootstrapping refers to using knowledge of the meaning of a word to infer its syntactical category; while syntactical bootstrapping refers to using syntactical knowledge to deduce the meaning of an unfamiliar word.

255
Q

Teacher Feedback

A

The research indicates that teachers tend to respond differently to boys and girls. Boys generally receive more correction, criticism, praise, and help than girls do. Moreover, the nature of the feedback is gender-related; e.g., boys are more often criticized for sloppiness and inattention, girls for inadequate intellectual performance.

256
Q

Classical Conditioning

A

In classical conditioning, a neutral (conditioned) stimulus is repeatedly paired with an unconditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus alone eventually elicits the response that is naturally elicited by the unconditioned stimulus. In Pavlov’s original studies, the meat powder was the unconditioned stimulus and salivation was the unconditioned response. A tone was the conditioned stimulus; and, as a result of its pairing with meat powder, the tone eventually elicited a conditioned response of salivation.

257
Q

In Vivo Aversion Therapy/Covert Sensitization

A

In vivo aversion therapy utilizes counterconditioning to reduce the attractiveness of a stimulus or behavior by repeatedly pairing that stimulus or behavior in ‘real life’ (in vivo) with a stimulus that produces an undesirable or unpleasant response. Pairing alcohol consumption with electric shock to reduce alcohol use is an example of in vivo aversive counterconditioning. In this situation, the alcohol is the CS, the electric shock is the US, and fear or discomfort is the UR/CR. Covert sensitization is similar to in vivo aversion therapy except that the CS and US are presented in imagination.

258
Q

Levels of Processing Model

A

The levels of processing model proposes that differences in memory are not due to different stores or stages but to different levels of processing. The model distinguishes between three levels-structural, phonemic, and semantic. The semantic level is the deepest level of processing and leads to the best retention.

259
Q

Positive Reinforcement (Thinning, Satiation)

A

Positive reinforcement occurs when the application of a stimulus following a behavior increases the occurrence of the behavior. The establishment of a new behavior is usually most rapid when positive reinforcement is applied on a continuous schedule, while maintenance of the behavior (resistance to extinction) is maximized when the behavior is reinforced on an intermittent schedule. Consequently, the best procedure is to begin with a continuous schedule of reinforcement and to change to an intermittent schedule once the behavior is well-established. The process of reducing the proportion of reinforcements is referred to as thinning. Up to a point, the greater the amount of positive reinforcement, the greater its effectiveness. However, past that point, satiation may occur, which means that the reinforcer has lost its reinforcing value.

260
Q

Response Cost

A

Response cost is a form of negative punishment that involves removing a reinforcer (e.g., a specific number of tokens or points) following a behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior).

261
Q

Stimulus Discrimination and Experimental Neurosis

A

In classical conditioning, stimulus discrimination training is used to reduce stimulus generalization by teaching the organism to respond with a CR only in the presence of the original CS. When discriminations are difficult, the organism may exhibit experimental neurosis-i.e., it may perform unusual behaviors such as restlessness, aggressiveness, or fear.

262
Q

Classical Extinction and Spontaneous Recovery

A

Classical extinction is the elimination of a classically conditioned response by repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. Often, an extinguished conditioned response shows spontaneous recovery-i.e., it recurs in response to the CS following extinction without additional pairing of the CS and US.

263
Q

In Vivo Exposure with Response Prevention/Flooding

A

In vivo exposure with response prevention is a classical extinction technique that involves exposing the individual in ‘real life’ (in vivo) to anxiety-arousing stimuli (the CS) without the original US while preventing the individual from making their usual avoidance response. Flooding is a type of exposure that involves exposing the individual to the most anxiety-arousing stimuli for an extended period of time.

264
Q

Matching Law

A

When using concurrent schedules of reinforcement, there are two or more simultaneous and independent schedules of reinforcement, each for a different response. According to the matching law, in this situation, the organism will match its relative frequency of responding to the relative frequency of reinforcement for each response.

265
Q

Premack Principle

A

The Premack Principle is an application of positive reinforcement that involves using a high-frequency behavior as a positive reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior.

266
Q

Schedules of Reinforcement (Continuous and Intermittent)

A

Continuous reinforcement follows each target response. It yields rapid response acquisition with high susceptibility to satiation and extinction. Intermittent schedules of reinforcement are: fixed intervals that provide reinforce at predetermined time intervals in which the individual makes at least 1 response; variable intervals that provide reinforcement at varying times with a predetermined average time interval; fixed ratios that provide reinforcement after a predetermined number of responses; and variable ratios that provide reinforcement after a varying number of responses with the average number being predetermined. The variable ratio schedule yields high, stable response rates and greatest resistance to extinction.

267
Q

Stimulus Generalization

A

In operant and classical conditioning, stimulus generalization refers to responding with a particular response to similar stimuli. In classical conditioning, it refers to responding to stimuli similar to the CS with the CR; in operant conditioning, it refers to responding to stimuli similar to the discriminative stimulus with the target behavior.

268
Q

EMDR (Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing)

A

EMDR was originally developed as an intervention for PTSD but has since been applied to other disorders. It combines rapid lateral eye movements with exposure and other techniques drawn from cognitive, behavioral, and psychodynamic approaches. Some research suggests that its effectiveness is not due to rapid eye movements but, instead, to exposure to the feared event (i.e., to extinction).

269
Q

Interference Theory (Retroactive and Proactive Interference)

A

Interference theory proposes that the inability to learn or recall information is due to the disruptive effects of previously or subsequently learned information. Retroactive interference occurs when newly learned information interferes with the recall of previously learned information, while proactive interference occur when prior learning interferes with the learning or recall of subsequent information.

270
Q

Observational Learning (Guided Participation, Self-Efficacy)

A

Bandura’s observational learning theory predicts that behaviors can be acquired simply by observing someone else (a model) perform those behaviors and that observational learning is cognitively mediated and involves four processes: attention, retention, production, and motivation. Research on observational learning found that participant modeling, which combines modeling with guided participation, is the most effective type of observational learning, especially for treating phobic reactions. Bandura’s theory predicts that self-efficacy beliefs (belief’s about one’s ability to perform a behavior or achieve a goal) are a primary source of motivation.

271
Q

Prospective Memory

A

Prospective memory is considered by some researchers to be an aspect of long-term memory and is responsible for the ability to ‘remember to remember’ (e.g., to remember a future appointment).

272
Q

Serial Position Effect

A

Research on the serial position effect has found that, when people are asked to recall a list of unrelated items immediately after reading the list, the items in the beginning and end of the list are recalled much better than those in the middle. Apparently, the ‘primacy effect’ occurs because items in the beginning of the list have already been rehearsed and stored in long-term memory, while the ‘recency effect’ occurs because items at the end of the list are still in short-term memory.

273
Q

Time-Out

A

Time-out is a form of negative punishment in which the individual is removed from all opportunities for reinforcement for a prespecified period of time following a misbehavior in order to decrease the occurrence of that behavior.

274
Q

Behavioral Model/Lewinsohn

A

Lewinsohn’s behavioral model attributes depression to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement due to inadequate reinforcing stimuli in the environment and/or the individual’s lack of skill in obtaining reinforcement.

275
Q

Escape and Avoidance Conditioning

A

Escape conditioning is an application of negative reinforcement in which the target behavior is an escape behavior-i.e., the organism engages in the behavior in order to escape the negative reinforcer. Avoidance conditioning combines classical conditioning with negative reinforcement. With avoidance conditioning, a cue (positive discriminative stimulus) signals that the negative reinforcer is about to be applied so that the organism can avoid the negative reinforcer by performing the target behavior in the presence of the cue.

276
Q

Latent Learning/Tolman

A

Tolman’s model of latent learning proposes that learning can occur without reinforcement and without being manifested in performance improvement. Tolman’s research showed that rates formed ‘cognitive maps’ of mazes without being reinforced for doing so.

277
Q

Operant Conditioning/Skinner (Reinforcement and Punishment)

A

According to Skinner, most complex behaviors are voluntarily emitted or not emitted as the result of the way they ‘operate’ on the environment (i.e., as the result of the consequences that follow them). Skinner distinguished between two types of consequences: Reinforcement is a consequence that increases the likelihood that a behavior with recur, while punishment is a consequence that decreases the likelihood that a behavior will recur. He also distinguished between positive and negative reinforcement and punishment, with ‘positive’ referring to the application of a stimulus (consequence) following a behavior and ‘negative’ referring to the withdrawal or termination of a stimulus (consequence) following a behavior.

278
Q

Punishment/Habituation

A

Punishment occurs when the application or withdrawal of a stimulus following a behavior decreases the occurrent of that behavior. A major disadvantage of punishment is that it suppresses (rather than eliminates) a behavior. Punishment is usually most effective when it is initially applied in moderation. Initially administering punishment in a weak form and then gradually increasing its intensity increases the likelihood of habituation, which occurs when a punishment loses its effectiveness.

279
Q

Shaping vs. Chaining

A

Shaping and chaining are both used to establish complex voluntary behaviors. However, shaping (successive approximation training) involves teaching a new behavior through prompting and reinforcing behaviors that come closer and closer to the target behavior, while chaining involves establishing a sequence of responses (a ‘behavior chain’). With shaping, only the final behavior is of concern; but with chaining, the entire sequence of responses is important.

280
Q

Trace Decay Theory

A

Trace decay theory proposes that loss of memory (forgetting) is due to the gradual decay of memory traces (engrams) over time as the result of disuse.

281
Q

Cognitive Therapy/Beck (Schemas, Automatic Thoughts, Collaborative Empiricism, Socratic Dialogue)

A

Beck’s cognitive therapy (CT) attributes depression and other psychopathology to certain cognitive phenomena including dysfunctional cognitive schemas (underlying cognitive structures), automatic thoughts (surface level cognitions), and cognitive distortions (systematic errors in information processing). CT is referred to as ‘collaborative empiricism’ because of its emphasis on a collaborative relationship between therapist and client. Cognitive therapists often use Socratic dialogue (questioning) to help clients reach logical conclusions about problems and their consequences.

282
Q

Information Processing Model (Sensory Memory, STM, LTM)

A

The information processing (multi-store) model describes memory as consisting of three separate, but interacting, stores: sensory memory (sensory register), short-term memory (STM), and long-term memory (LTM). Sensory memory seems to be capable of storing a great deal of information, but the information is retained for no more than a few seconds. Information in sensory memory is transferred to STM when it becomes the focus of attention. STM holds a limited amount of information, and, without rehearsal, information begins to fade within 30 seconds. Information is likely to be transferred from STM to LTM when it is encoded, especially when encoding involves elaborative rehearsal (relating new information to existing information). The capacity of LTM seems to be unlimited.

283
Q

Mnemonic Devices (Method of Loci, Keyword Method, Acronym, Acrostic)

A

Mnemonic devices are formal strategies for improving memory. The method of loci is a mnemonic that employs imagery in which items to be remembered are mentally placed, one by one, in pre-memorized (familiar) locations; and recall involves mentally ‘walking through’ the location and retrieving the items. The keyword method is another imagery technique and is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked. Acronyms and acrostics are verbal mnemonics that are both useful for memorizing a list of words or phrases. An acronym is a word that’s formed using the first letter of each item, while an acrostic is a phrase or rhyme that is constructed from the first letter of each word.

284
Q

Procedural and Declarative Memory

A

Long-term memory is conceptualized as consisting of procedural and declarative components: Procedural memory stores information about how to do things (‘learning how’). Declarative memory mediates the acquisition of facts and other information (‘learning that or what’) and is subdivided into semantic and episodic memory. Semantic memory includes memories for general knowledge that is independent of any context and is responsible for the storage of facts, rules, and concepts; while episode memory consists of information bout events that have been personally experienced.

285
Q

Self-Control Therapy/REHM

A

Self-control therapy is a brief form of therapy that is based on the assumption that deficits in three aspects of self-control increase a person’s vulnerability to depression and make it difficult to deal effectively with depressive symptoms. The three aspects are self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

286
Q

Stress Inoculation

A

Stress inoculation is a cognitive-behavioral technique that is used to help individuals cope with stressful and other aversive states by enhancing their coping skills. It consists of three overlapping phases: cognitive preparation (conceptualization), skills acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through.

287
Q

Differential Reinforcement

A

Differential reinforcement (e.g., DRA, DRO, and DRI) is an operant technique that combines positive reinforcement and extinction. During a specified period of time, the individual is reinforced when they engage in a behavior other than the target behavior.

288
Q

Insight Learning/Kohler

A

Insight learning (the ‘aha’ experience) refers to the apparent sudden understanding of the relationship between elements in a problem-solving situation. Insight learning was originally described by Kohler as a result of his research with chimpanzees.

289
Q

Multi-Component Model/Badeley and Hitch

A

According to the multi-component model, working memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems-the phonological loop, the visuospatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer. The central executive is the primary component of working memory and serves as an ‘attentional control system’. It’s responsible for directing attention to relevant information, suppressing irrelevant information, and coordinating the three subsystems.

290
Q

Prompts/Fading

A

Prompts are verbal or physical cues that facilitate the acquisition of a new behavior, and the gradual removal of a prompt is referred to as fading. (Note that the term fading is also used to describe the procedure that is used to eliminate an inappropriate stimulus-response connection by gradually replacing the inappropriate stimulus with appropriate stimuli so that the response becomes associated with the latter).

291
Q

Self-Instructional Training

A

Self-instructional training is a cognitive-behavioral technique in which the individual learns to modify maladaptive thoughts and behaviors through the use of covert self-statements. It was originally developed as a way to help impulsive and hyperactive children slow down their behaviors and guide themselves through academic and other types of tasks.

292
Q

Systematic Desensitization

A

Systematic desensitization was developed by Wolpe as an application of counterconditioning (reciprocal inhibition) for eliminating anxiety responses and involves pairing hierarchically arranged anxiety-evoking stimuli with relaxation. Research using the dismantling strategy suggests that extinction (rather than counterconditioning) is responsible for its effectiveness.

293
Q

Biofeedback

A

Biofeedback provides the individual with immediate and continuous feedback about an ongoing physiological process (e.g., muscle tension, blood pressure) with the goal of enabling the individual to exercise voluntary control over that process. For many disorders (e.g., hypertension, tension headaches), relaxation is about equally effective as biofeedback. However, thermal biofeedback is a treatment-of-choice for Raynaud’s disease, and thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is an effective treatment for migraine headaches.

294
Q

Functional Behavioral Assessment

A

A functional behavioral assessment (FBA) is used to clarify the characteristics of a target behavior and determine its antecedents and consequences in order to identify an alternative behavior that serves the same functions and function-based interventions that can be used to substitute the alternative behavior for the target behavior.

295
Q

Law of Effect/Thorndike

A

Thorndike’s law of effect proposes that, when behaviors are followed by ‘satisfying consequences’, they are more likely to increase or occur again. This theory was originally derived from studies in which hungry cats were placed in ‘puzzle boxes’ and had to perform a particular behavior in order to escape from the box and obtain food.

296
Q

Operant Extinction and Extinction Bursts

A

Operant extinction refers to the elimination of a previously reinforced response through the consistent withholding of reinforcement following that response. Operant extinction is usually associated with a temporary increase in the response (an ‘extinction burst’).

297
Q

Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT)/Ellis

A

Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT) regards emotions and behaviors as the consequence of a chain of events- A-B-C - where A is the external event to which the individual is exposed; B is the belief the individual has about A; and C is the emotion or behavior that results from B. In other words, an emotional or behavioral response to an external event is due to beliefs about that event rather than to the event itself. According to Ellis (1985), the primary cause of neurosis is the continual repetition of certain common irrational beliefs which are the targets of therapy.

298
Q

State Dependent Learning

A

Research on state-dependent learning has shown that recall of information tends to be better when the learner is in the same emotional state during learning and recall.

299
Q

Yerkes-Dodson Law

A

The Yerkes-Dodson law predicts that moderate levels of arousal are associated with optimal learning and performance so that the relationship between arousal and learning takes the shape of an inverted-U.

300
Q

Blocking

A

In classical conditioning, blocking occurs when an association has already been established between a CS and US and, as a result, the CS blocks an association between a second neutral stimulus and the US when the CS and the second neutral stimulus are presented together prior to the US.

301
Q

Higher-Order Conditioning

A

Higher-order conditioning occurs when a previously established CS serves as a US to establish a conditioned response for a new conditioned (neutral) stimulus-i.e,. the new neutral stimulus is paired with the established CS so that, eventually, the new neutral stimulus produces a conditioned response.

302
Q

Learned Helplessness Model/Reformulated Version

A

The learned helplessness model was originally derived from the observation that animals who were subjected to an uncontrollable negative event (inescapable electric shock) subsequently did not try to escape that event when they were able to do so. The reformulated version of the model added attributions to the original theory and proposed that some forms of depression are due to the tendency to attribute negative events to internal, stable, and global factors. A subsequent revision acknowledged the role of attributions but proposed that they’re important only to the extent that they contribute to a sense of hopelessness.

303
Q

Overcorrection

A

Overcorrection is an operant technique that is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior. It involves having the individual correct the consequences of their behavior (restitution) and/or practice corrective behaviors (positive practice). It may also require constant supervision and/or physical guidance.

304
Q

Reciprocal Inhibition

A

Reciprocal inhibition is a form of counterconditioning developed by Wolpe to alleviate anxiety reactions by pairing a stimulus (CS) that produces anxiety with a stimulus (US) that produces relaxation or other response that is incompatible with anxiety.

305
Q

Stimulus Control

A

In operant conditioning, stimulus control is the process by which a behavior does or does not occur due to the presence of discriminative stimuli. Positive discriminative stimuli signal that the behavior will be reinforced, while negative discriminative stimuli (S-delta stimuli) signal that the behavior will not be reinforced.

306
Q

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)/Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

A

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is a division of the peripheral nervous system and is involved in the control of visceral functions (e.g., heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, digestion, and sweating). It consists of the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches: The sympathetic branch is involved in the mediation of flight or fight (emergency) reactions. Activation of the sympathetic branch produces increased heart rate, pupil dilation, increased blood sugar, and inhibition of the digestive processes. The parasympathetic branch regulate energy conservation and relaxation. Activation is associated with slowing of heart rate, lowered blood pressure, contraction of pupils, reduction of sweat gland output, and increased activity of the digestive system.

307
Q

Corpus Callosum

A

The right and left hemispheres are connected by several bundles of fibers, the largest of which is the corpus callosum. If the corpus callosum is severed, the two hemispheres operate essentially as separate, independent brains.

308
Q

Hippocampus

A

The hippocampus is a limbic system structure that is important for spatial and explicit memory and the consolidation of declarative memories.

309
Q

MAOIs and Hypertensive Crisis

A

The MAOIs are antidepressants that work by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which is involved in deactivating dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin. The most dangerous side effect is hypertensive crisis, which can occur when an MAOI is taken in conjunction with barbiturates, amphetamines, antihistamines, or certain other drugs, or with foods containing the amino acid tyramine (e.g., aged cheeses and meats, beer, red wine, chicken liver, avocados, bananas, fava beans). Symptoms of a hypertensive crisis include severe headache, stiff neck, rapid heart rate, nausea, vomiting, sweating, and sensitivity to light.

310
Q

Narcotic-Analgesics

A

The drugs classified as narcotic-analgesics (opioids) have both sedative and analgesic properties. Medically, the narcotic-analgesics are used for the same reasons they were used centuries ago-i.e., as analgesics, treatments for diarrhea, and cough suppressants. Chronic use of a narcotic-analgesic results in tolerance and psychological and physical dependence. Withdrawal symptoms resemble those associated with a bad case of the flu.

311
Q

Parkinson’s Disease

A

Parkinson’s disease is a progressive degenerative disease characterized by tremor, muscular rigidity, akathinsia, akinesia, and speech difficulties; and it may eventually include dementia. Symptoms are temporarily relieved by L-dopa, a dopamine agonist. Parkinson’s disease is believed to be due to degeneration of dopamine-containing cells, especially in the substantia nigra.

312
Q

Sleep (Stages, Effects of Age)

A

There are 5 sleep stages based on EEG (electroencephalogram) patterns. During stage 1, alpha waves are replaced by theta waves. Stage 2 consists primarily of theta waves that are interrupted by bursts of sleep spindles and K complexes. In stage 3, large, slow delta waves appear. In stage 4, ‘deep sleep’ consists of delta waves. The 5th sleep stage is characterized by rapid eye movements (REM) affiliated with dreams. Sleep patterns vary with age. Newborns begin with REM sleep which becomes NREM sleep. This pattern begins to reverse by about 3 months. Total sleep time, stage 4 sleep, and REM sleep all decrease from childhood to adulthood.

313
Q

Theories of Color Vision (Trichromatic and Opponent Process)

A

There are two theories of color vision. According to the trichromatic theory, there are three types of color receptors that are each receptive to a different primary color (red, blue, or green). All other colors are produced by variations in the activity of these three receptors. The opponent-process theory postulates three bipolar receptors: red-green, yellow-blue, and white-black. According to this theory, some cells are excited by red and inhibited by green, and so on; and the overall pattern of stimulation of these cells produces the various colors that we perceive.

314
Q

Practical Clinical Trial (PCT)

A

PCTs are randomized studies designed to evaluate the effects of interventions in typical community conditions.

315
Q

Basal Ganglia

A

The basal ganglia are subcortical structures (caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra) that are involved in planning, organizing, and coordinating voluntary movements. Basal ganglia pathology has been linked to Huntington’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, Tourette’s Disorder, OCD, and ADHD.

316
Q

Depth Perception/Retinal Disparity

A

Depth perception depends on a combination of binocular and monocular cues. Retinal disparity is a binocular cue and refers to the fact that out two eyes see objects in the world from two different views; and the closer an object, the greater the disparity of the two images.

317
Q

Huntington’s Disease

A

Huntington’s disease in an inherited degenerative disease that is transmitted by a single autosomal dominant gene and involves emotional, cognitive, and motor symptoms. For many patients, emotional and cognitive symptoms appear first and include depression, apathy, anxiety, antisocial tendencies, and forgetfulness. Early motor symptoms include fidgeting, and clumsiness, which are followed by facial grimaces and ‘piano-playing’ movements of the fingers. Huntington’s disease is believed to be due to a loss of GABA-secreting neurons and gluatmate excitotoxicity in the basal ganglia, especially in the caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus.

318
Q

Medulla

A

The medulla is a hindbrain structure that controls the flow of information between the spinal cord and brain and regulates a number of vital functions including breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure.

319
Q

Neuroimaging Techniques

A

Neuroimaging techniques make it possible to study both the structure and function of the living brain. Computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are structural techniques. Positron-emission tomography (PET), single proton emission computed tomography (SPECT), and functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) provide information on the functional activities of the brain.

320
Q

Postconcussional Syndrome

A

When using the DSM-5, a person with postconcussional syndrome would received a diagnosis of Major or Mild Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Traumatic Brain Injury when the following criteria are met: (a) The person’s symptoms meet the criteria for Major or Minor Neurocognitive Disorder; (b) There is evidence of a traumatic brain injury with at least one of the following-loss of consciousness, posttraumatic amnesia, disorientation, and confusion, and/or neurological signs (e.g., seizures, visual field cuts, hemiparesis). (c) The neurocognitive disorder occurs immediately after the traumatic brain injury or immediately after recovery of consciousness and continues past the acute post-injury period.

321
Q

Somatic Nervous System

A

The somatic nervous system (SNS) consists of sensory nerves that carry information from the body’s sense receptors to the CNS and motor nerves that carry information from the CNS to the skeletal muscles. The SNS governs activities that are ordinarily considered voluntary.

322
Q

Theories of Emotion (James-Lange, Cannon-Bard, Cognitive Appraisal)

A

Theories of emotion differ in terms of their emphasis on the role of peripheral and central factors. James-Lange theory focuses on peripheral factors, proposing that emotions represent perceptions of bodily reactions to sensory stimuli. Cannon-Bard theory focuses on the brain mechanisms that mediate emotion, proposing that emotional and bodily reactions to stimuli occur simultaneously due to thalamic stimulation of the cortex and the peripheral nervous system. Lazarus’s cognitive appraisal theory says that emotions are universal but differences in how emotion-arousing events are appraised. It distinguishes between three types of cognitive appraisal: primary, secondary, and re-appraisal.

323
Q

Amygdala and Kluver-Bucy Syndrome

A

The amygdala is a substructure of the limbic system and is involved in the control of emotional activities, including the mediation of defensive-aggressive behaviors and the attachment of emotions to memories. Bilateral lesions in the amygdala and temporal lobes of primates produces Kluver-Bucy Syndrome, which is characterized by reduced fear and aggression, increased docility and compulsive oral exploratory behaviors, altered dietary habits, hypersexuality, and ‘psychic blindness’ (an inability to recognize the significance or meaning of events or objects).

324
Q

Cerebellum and Ataxia

A

The cerebellum is a large structure on the dorsal aspect of the hindbrain. It is involved in the extrapyramidal control of motor activities (e.g., coordination, balance, posture). Damage can result in ataxia, which is characterized by slurred speech, severe tremors, and a loss of balance.

325
Q

Emotion (Areas of the Brain)

A

Areas of the brain that have been implicated in the regulation of emotion include the amygdala (which plays a role in the perception and expression of anger, fear, sadness, happiness, and other emotions and attaches emotion to memories), the hypothalamus (which is involved in the translation of emotions into physical responses), and the cerebral cortex. With regard to the latter, the left hemisphere governs happiness and other positive emotions, while the right hemisphere mediates sadness, fear, and other negative emotions.

326
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

Hypoglycemia (low blood glucose) is caused by excessive secretion of insulin by the pancreas and is characterized by hunger, dizziness, headaches, blurred vision, palpitations, anxiety, depression, and confusion.

327
Q

Migraine Headache

A

A migraine headache is a recurrent vascular headache characterized by severe throbbing pan, usually on one side of the head. Triggers include certain foods, alcohol, bright lights, and relaxation following physical or psychological stress. A migraine may be preceded by an aura (classic migraine) or gastrointestinal or other symptoms (common migraine).

328
Q

Neurotransmitters (Acetylcholine, Dopamine, Serotonin, GABA)

A

Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that are released from axon terminals, diffuse across synapses, and excite or inhibits receptor sites on postsynaptic nerve cells. (1) Acetylcholine mediates neuromuscular transmission, parasympathetic arousal, and memory (e.g., memory loss in Alzheimer’s dementia). (2) Dopamine is involved in inhibitory motor regulation and motivational/emotional functions. Insufficient dopamine in the basal ganglia is believed to underlie Parkinson’s disease; excessive activity at dopamine receptors has been linked to schizophrenia and Tourette’s Disorder. (3) Serotonin ordinarily inhibits behavior and is involved in the regulation of mood, hunger, arousal, sleep, temperature, and pain and in the Bipolar and Depressive Disorders, Schizophrenia, and OCD. (4) GABA is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter and is believed to be involved in anxiety, sleep, and seizures. Low levels of GABA in the motor region are associated with Huntington’s disease.

329
Q

Secondary Sex Characteristics/Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Gonadal Axis

A

At puberty, an increase in gonadal hormones influences the emergence of secondary sex characteristics and the development of the reproductive system. Although the mechanisms that trigger the development of the secondary sex characteristics are not well understood, it occurs when the hypothalamus secretes chemicals that stimulate the anterior pituitary gland, which then releases the gonadotropic hormones that stimulate testosterone and sperm production by the testes or ovulation and estrogen production by the ovaries. This system is referred to as the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.

330
Q

Synesthesia

A

Synesthesia (‘joining senses’) is a rare condition in which the stimulation of one sensory modality triggers a sensation in another sensory modality. For example, a person with synesthesia might hear a color or taste a shape.

331
Q

Tricyclics (Imipramine, Clomipramine)

A

The tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are believed to work by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine, dopamine, and/or serotonin. They are most effective for alleviating somatic, vegetative symptoms. Side effects include anticholinergic effects, confusion, drowsiness, weight gain, and cardiovascular symptoms. Imipramine has also been found useful for treating enuresis, while clomipramine is an effective treatment for Panic Disorder, Agoraphobia, Bulimia Nervosa, and OCD.

332
Q

Anticholinergic Effects

A

Anticholinergic effects are caused by several drugs including the antipsychotics and tricyclic antidepressants. They include dry mouth, blurred vision, tachycardia (rapid heart rate), urinary retention, constipation, memory impairment, and confusion.

333
Q

Cerebral Ventricles/Hydrocephalus

A

The ventricles are the four cavities of the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid. Blockage of the ventricles and a resulting build-up of fluid can cause hydrocephalus.

334
Q

Frontal Lobe, Broca’s Area, Prefrontal Cortex

A

The frontal lobe occupies the major portion of the cortex and includes the primary motor cortex, supplementary motor area, premotor cortex, Broca’s area, and prefrontal cortex. It is involved in initiative, planning ability, abstract thinking, and other executive functions; personality and mood; and motor functions. Damage to Broca’s area produces Broca’s (expressive) aphasia. Damage to the prefrontal cortex produces personality changes and deficits in higher-level cognitive abilities.

335
Q

Hypothalamus and Suprachiasmatic Nucleus

A

The hypothalamus consists of a cluster of nuclei that control the autonomic nervous system and endocrine glands, mediate basic drives, and regulate emotional expression. The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which is located in the hypothalamus, is involved in regulation of the body’s circadian rhythms.

336
Q

Mood Stabilizing Drugs (Lithium, Anticonvulsant Drugs)

A

Mood stabilizing drugs are used to alleviate mania and mood swings in Bipolar Disorder and include lithium and anticonvulsants (e.g., carbamazepine). Lithium is usually the drug-treatment-of-choice for classic Bipolar Disorder, while an anticonvulsant drug may be more effective for patients who experience rapid mood swings or who have dysphoric mania.

337
Q

Occipital Lobe and Visual Agnosia/Prosopagnosia

A

The occipital lobe contains the visual cortex. Damage to the occipital lobe can result in visual agnosia (inability to recognize familiar objects), color agnosia, word blindness, and/or scotomas (blind spots). Lesions at the junction of the occipital, temporal, and parietal lobes can produce prosopagnosia (inability to recognize familiar faces).

338
Q

Sedative-Hypnotics (Benzodiazepines)

A

The sedative-hypnotics: barbiturates, anxiolytics, and alcohol, are generalized CNS depressants with dose dependent effects. Low doses reduce arousal and motor activity; moderate doses induce sedation and sleep; and high doses produce anesthesia, coma, and death. Benzodiazepines are the most commonly prescribed. anxiolytic and are used for anxiety, sleep disturbances, seizures, cerebral palsy, and alcohol withdrawal. Side effects include drowsiness, ataxia, slurred speech, and other signs of CNS depression; abrupt cessation can cause rebound hyperexcitability. They can produce paradoxical agitation, impaired sexual functioning, confusion, and sleep disturbances.

339
Q

Tardive Dyskinesia

A

Tardive dyskinesia is a potentially irreversible extrapyramidal side effect associated with long-term use of traditional antipsychotic drugs. Symptoms include rhythmical, stereotyped movements of the muscles of the face, limbs, and trunk (similar to Huntington’s chorea). In some cases, symptoms are alleviated by a GABA agonist or by gradual withdrawal of the drug.

340
Q

Type A Behavior Pattern

A

People exhibiting the Type A behavior pattern are highly competitive and achievement-oriented, have a sense of time urgency, and tend to be hostile, easily irritated, and impatient. A number of studies have confirmed that, of the Type A characteristics, cynical or antagonistic hostility is most strongly associated with health problems, especially coronary heart disease in males.

341
Q

Twin Method

A

A method used in behavioral genetic research that relies on having identical or fraternal twins as subjects.

342
Q

Beta-Blockers (Propranolol)

A

Propranolol and other beta-blockers block or diminish the cardiovascular excitatory response to the hormones epinephrine ad norepinephrine. They are used to treat cardiovascular disorders, glaucoma, and migraine headache and are also useful for reducing the physical symptoms of anxiety. Common side effects of propranolol include bradycardia, nausea, diarrhea, dizziness, decreased sexual ability, and trouble sleeping.

343
Q

Dopamine Hypothesis

A

According to the dopamine hypothesis, schizophrenia is due to the overactivity at dopamine receptors either as the result of oversensitivity of the receptors or excessive dopamine levels.

344
Q

Hyper- and Hypothyroidism

A

Hyperthyroidism is caused by hypersecretion of thyroxine by the thyroid gland and is characterized by a speeded-up metabolism, elevated body temperature, accelerated heart rate, increased appetite with weight loss, nervousness, and insomnia. Hypothyroidism is caused by hyposecretion of thyroxine and involves a slowed metabolism, slowed heart rates, lethargy, lowered body temperature, impaired concentration and memory, and depression.

345
Q

Menopause/Hormone Replacement Therapy

A

The decreased estrogen levels that accompany menopause produce a variety of emotional and physical symptoms including hot flashes, fatigue, mood swings, nausea, vaginal dryness, and loss of bone mass. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) alters estrogen levels only or both estrogen and progesterone levels and is effective for eliminating hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness and reduces the risk for bone loss.

346
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare, but potentially fatal side effect of the antipsychotic drugs. It involves a rapid onset of motor, mental, and autonomic symptoms, including muscle rigidity, tachycardia, hyperthermia, and altered consciousness. To avoid a potentially fatal outcome, the drug must be stopped as soon as symptoms of NMS develop.

347
Q

Psychophysical Laws (Weber’s Law, Fechner’s Law, Steven’s Power Law)

A

The psychophysical laws attempt to predict the relationship between perception and sensation. (1) Weber’s Law states that the just noticeable difference in stimulus intensity is a constant proportion of the initial stimulus intensity. (2) Fechner’s law states that physical stimulus changes are logarithmically related to their psychological sensations. (3) Steven’s Power Law proposes that the magnitude of the stimulus producing the sensation raised to a certain power (exponent) which varies, depending on the specific sensation being measured.

348
Q

Spinal Cord (Quadriplegia and Paraplegia)

A

The spinal cord carries information between the brain and the peripheral nervous system, coordinates activities of the left and right sides of the body, and controls simple reflexes that do not involve the brain. It consists of 31 segments, which are divided into five groups. From the top of the spinal cord to the bottom, these are: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. Damage at the cervical level ordinarily results in quadriplegia (loss of sensory and voluntary motor functioning in the arms and legs), while damage at the thoracic level causes paraplegia (loss of functioning in the legs).

349
Q

Traditional Antipsychotics

A

The traditional antipsychotic drugs (e.g., phenothiazines) are used for the management of schizophrenia and other psychoses. They are most effective for positive symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, agitation, thought disorders). Side effects include anticholinergic, extrapyramidal effects, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome. These drugs exert their beneficial effects primarily by blocking dopamine receptors, and their effectiveness provides support for the dopamine hypothesis which attributes schizophrenia to overactivity at dopamine receptors.

350
Q

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM)

A

TDM is the practice of measuring drug concentration levels in a patient’s bloodstream at designated intervals to optimize dosages.

351
Q

Brain Lateralization/Split-Brain Patients

A

Though the left and right hemispheres are both involved to some degree in most functions, they tend to specialize. This specialization is referred to as brain lateralization and was initially studies in split-brain patients, whose corpus callosums had been severed to control severe epilepsy. The left hemisphere dominates in verbal activities (spontaneous speaking and writing, word recognition, memory for words and numbers); analytical, logical thought; and positive emotional states. The right hemisphere dominates in visual-spatial activities such as facial recognition, spatial interpretation and memory for shapes, and in negative emotions.

352
Q

Effects of Psychoactive Drugs

A

Terms used to describe the effects of the psychoactive drugs include the following: (1) Agonists produce effects similar to those produced by a neurotransmitter. (2) Inverse agonists produce an effect opposite the effect produced by a neurotransmitter or an agonist. (3) Partial agonists produce effects that are similar to (but less than) the effects produced by a neurotransmitter or an agonist. (4) Antagonists produce no activity in the cell on their own but, instead, reduce or block the effects of a neurotransmitter or agonist.

353
Q

Hypertension

A

There are two types of hypertension. Primary (essential) hypertension occurs when there is no known physiological cause. Secondary hypertension occurs when elevated blood pressure is related to a known disease. Primary hypertension accounts for about 85-90% of all cases; untreated, it can lead to cardiovascular disease. It is a major cause of heart failure, kidney failure, and stroke. The prevalence of hypertension is related to age, race, and gender. Older adults have higher rates than younger adults, and African Americans have higher rates than Whites. Rates are generally higher for men; however, for older adults and African Americans, rates are higher for women.

354
Q

Methylphenidate

A

Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta, Metadate) is a psychostimulant drug used to treat ADHD in children and adults. Common side effects include decreased appetite, insomnia, dysphoria, and growth suppression.

355
Q

Neuron (Action Potential, All-or-None Principle)

A

The neuron is a specialized nerve cell involved in mental processes and behavior. Messages within a neuron are transmitted from a neuron’s dendrites to the end of its axon through an electrical process called conduction. With sufficient stimulation from other cells, a cell becomes depolarized (the interior of the cell becomes less negative), which triggers an action potential-i.e., an electrical impulse that travels quickly through the cell. The all-or-none principle predicts that an action potential will always be of the same magnitude regardless of the amount of stimulation received by a neuron as long as the minimal level of stimulation (the threshold) has been reached.

356
Q

Reticular Activating System

A

The reticular activating system (RAS) is a network of nerve fibers involved in wakefulness, arousal, and consciousness.

357
Q

SSRIs (Fluoxetine)

A

The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI’s) are antidepressant drugs that exert their effects by blocking the reuptake of serotonin at nerve synapses. Side effects include gastrointestinal disturbances, sexual dysfunction, insomnia, anxiety, headache, and anorexia. In comparison to the TCAs, the SSRIs are less cardiotoxic, safer in overdose, and less likely to produce cognitive impairments. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is one of the most widely-prescribed antidepressants but its use is surrounded by controversy due to evidence linking it to an increased risk for suicide.

358
Q

Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)/Anterograde Amnesia, Retrograde Amnesia

A

TBI refers to a closed or open-head injury to the brain that is caused by an external force and involves temporary or permanent impairments in cognitive, emotional, behavioral, and/or physical functioning. A closed-head injury usually causes an alteration or loss of consciousness followed by anterograde and retrograde amnesia. Anterograde amnesia is referred to as post-traumatic amnesia, and its duration is a good predictor of recovery. Retrograde amnesia affects recent memories more than remote memories and, when long-term memories begin to return, the more remote memories return first.

359
Q

Aphasia (Broca’s, Wernicke’s, and Conduction)

A

Aphasia is impaired production and/or comprehension of language. Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage producing written or spoken language with little or no comprehension issues; it often includes anomia and impaired repetition. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by damage to Wernicke’s area and involves an inability to comprehend written or spoken language along with the production of rapid, seemingly effortless speech that is lacking in content; it may include anomia, paraphasia, and impaired repetition. Conduction aphasia is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus and does not significantly affect comprehension but does result in anomia, paraphasia, and impaired repetition.

360
Q

Cerebrovascular Accident

A

Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is also referred to as cerebral stroke and refers to brain damage that occurs when a blood clot or other obstruction or hemorrhage disrupts the flow of blood to the brain. Common symptoms include contralateral hemiplegia, hemianesthesia involving the face, arm, and leg, and contralateral visual field loss.

361
Q

Gate-Control Theory of Pain

A

According to gate-control theory, there are mechanisms in the spinal cord that mediate (block) the perception of pain.

362
Q

Learning and Memory (Areas of the Brain)

A

Areas of the brain involved in learning and memory include: (1) The temporal lobes which encode, store, and retrieve of long-term declarative memories. (2) The hippocampus consolidates of long-term declarative memories (transferring information from short-term to long-term memory). (3) The amygdala plays a key role in fear conditioning, learning about rewards and punishments, and adding emotional significance to memories. (4) The prefrontal cortex is associated with short-term memory, episodic memory, and prospective memory. (5) The thalamus is involved in processing information and transferring it to the neocortex.

363
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

A

Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a progressive disease of the nervous system that involves a degeneration of the myelin that surrounds nerve fibers in the central nervous system. Common initial symptoms are optic neuritis, motor impairments, sensory abnormalities, and fatigue. Additional symptoms that arise as the disease progresses include tremors, speech problems, mood symptoms, and cognitive impairment.

364
Q

Papez’s Circuit

A

Papez’s circuit was proposed as a brain mechanism (circuit) that mediates the experience and expression of emotion. It includes the hippocampus, mammillary bodies, anterior nuclei of the thalamus, and cingulated gyrus.

365
Q

Seizures (Tonic-Clonic, Absence, Partial)

A

Generalized (tonic-clonic and absence) seizures are bilaterally symmetrical without a focal onset. Tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures include a tonic stage wherein the muscles contract and the body stiffens; a clonic stage with rhythmic shaking of the limbs; and a postseizure depression or confusion with amnesia for the ictal event. Absence (petit mal) seizures are brief attacks involving a loss of consciousness without prominent motor symptoms. Partial seizures begin in one side of the brain and affect one side of the body, at least initially but can spread into generalized seizures.

366
Q

Temporal Lobe and Wernicke’s Area

A

The temporal lobe contains the primary auditory cortex and Wernicke’s area. Damage can result in auditory agnosia, cortical deafness, impairments in long-term memory, and/or Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia.

367
Q

Atypical Antipsychotics (Clozapine)

A

Clozapine and other atypical (newer) antipsychotic drugs affect receptors for several neurotransmitters including dopamine, serotonin, and glutamate. These drugs are effective for both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia and are less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia than the traditional antipsychotics. However, they can produce agranulocytosis and other blood dyscrasias as well as neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

368
Q

Genetic Screening Methodologies

A

Genetic screening methodologies are utilized to detect various abnormalities in chromosome structure, protein function, and DNA sequence. Typically there are three types of genetic testing: cytogenetic, biochemical, and molecular.

369
Q

Contralateral Representation

A

For most sensory and motor functions, the cortex exhibits contralateral representation, which means that the left hemisphere controls the functions of the right side of the body and vice-versa.

370
Q

General Adaptation Syndrome

A

According to Selye, the human response to stress is mediated by adrenal-pituitary secretions (e.g., cortisol) and involves three stages: alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion. The model predicts that prolonged stress can result in illness or death.

371
Q

Learning and Memory (Neural Mechanisms)

A

Neural mechanisms that are believed the mediate long-term memory include long-term potentiation and protein/RNA synthesis. (1) Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a physiological process involving the modification of nerve synapses, especially at glutamate receptors in the hippocampus. (2) Inhibiting the synthesis of protein or RNA at the time of learning prevents the formation of long-term memories.

372
Q

Naltrexone

A

Naltrexone (ReVia, Vivitrol) is an opioid antagonist that blocks the craving for and reinforcing effects of alcohol and is used to treat Alcohol Abuse and Dependence. Side effects include abdominal cramping, nausea, vomiting, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and joint and muscle pain.

373
Q

Parietal Lobe and Apraxia/Anosognosia/Gerstmann’s Syndrome

A

The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex. Depending on its location, damage to the parietal lobe can cause apraxia (inability to perform skilled motor movements in the absence of impaired motor functioning), anosognosia (inability to recognize one’s own neurological symptoms or other disorder, or Gerstmann’s syndrome, which involves a combination of finger agnosia, right-left confusion, agraphia, and acalculia.

374
Q

Sexual Dimorphism

A

Sexual dimorphism refers to sex-related differences in physical appearance, and the research has confirmed that the human brain is sexually dimorphic. Studies using structural brain imaging techniques have found sex-related differences in the size of specific regions of the brain including the corpus callosum, hippocampus, and SCN.

375
Q

Thalamus and Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

A

The thalamus is a ‘relay station’ for all of the senses except olfaction and is also involved in language and memory. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is due to a thiamine deficiency that causes atrophy of neurons in certain areas of the thalamus and the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and is usually the result of chronic alcoholism. It begins with Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is characterized by mental confusion, abnormal eye movements, and ataxia; and is then followed by Korsakoff’s syndrome, which involves severe anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation.

376
Q

Adoption Method

A

The adoption method is a quasi-experimental research design that relies on adopted children as participants to isolate the effects of genetic versus environmental variables.

377
Q

Balance Theory

A

Balance theory uses the principle of cognitive consistency to explain attitude change and focuses on the relations among three entities-the person (P), another person (O), and a third person, idea, event, or object (X). It proposes that the relations may be balanced or unbalanced, depending on the pattern of likes and dislikes among the entities.

378
Q

Cognitive Dissonance Theory

A

Festinger’s cognitive dissonance theory proposes that inconsistencies in cognitions produce discomfort (dissonance) that motivates the individual to reduce the dissonance by changing their cognitions.

379
Q

Emotion-In-Relationship Model

A

This model of emotion provides an explanation for the experience of strong emotions in close relationships and proposes that there is an innate mechanism that generates emotion in response to unexpected events that disrupt ongoing sequences of behaviors.

380
Q

Hardiness

A

Research by Kobasa et al. (1982) found that the personality trait of hardiness acts as a protective factor against stress and has three primary characteristics: commitment (a sense of purpose and involvement in one’s relationships and life events); challenge (an openness to new experiences and change); and control (the belief that one has the ability to influence or manage life events).

381
Q

Obedience to Authority (Milgram)

A

Milgram’s famous and controversial studies evaluated participants’ willingness to obey the direct order or command of a high-status individual (authority) even when doing so seemed to harm another person.

382
Q

Self-Serving Bias

A

The self-serving bias refers to the tendency to attribute our own successes to dispositional (internal) factors and failures to situational (external) factors.

383
Q

Theory of Planned Behavior

A

The theory of planned behavior predicts that attitudes are accurate predictors of behavior when the attitude measure assesses all three components of the behavioral intention-the person’s attitude toward engaging in the behavior, what the person believes other people think they should do, and the person’s perceived behavioral control.

384
Q

Barnum Effect

A

The Barnum effect is the tendency to accept vague, general descriptions of oneself (e.g., a horoscope) as accurate.

385
Q

Confirmation Bias

A

The confirmation bias is the tendency to seek or pay attention to information that confirms one’s hypothesis or current beliefs and to ignore disconfirming information.

386
Q

Epinephrine Studies (Schachter & Singer)

A

The epinephrine studies supported the predictions of self-perception theory by confirming that, when internal cues are insufficient or difficult to interpret, people acquire information about themselves by observing their external behaviors and/or the context in which those behaviors occur.

387
Q

Heuristics

A

Heuristics are mental shortcuts that people use when making attributions and other social judgments and include the representativeness, availability, simulation, and anchoring and adjustment heuristics. Although heuristics allow us to reach conclusions quickly, they may result in errors.

388
Q

Overjustification Hypothesis

A

The overjustification hypothesis predicts that, when people are externally rewarded for a task they previously found intrinsically interesting, their intrinsic interest in the task will decrease.

389
Q

Self-Verification Theory

A

Self-verification theory predicts that people prefer to receive feedback from others that is consistent with their own self-evaluations.

390
Q

Zeigarnik Effect

A

The Zeigarnik effect is the tendency to remember interrupted and unfinished tasks better than completed ones, especially in non-stressful situations.

391
Q

Bystander Apathy

A

Bystander apathy refers to the tendency of people to not intervene in emergency situations when others are present. It has been attributed to three factors: social comparison, evaluation apprehension, and diffusion of responsibility.

392
Q

Effects of Crowding

A

Crowded conditions tend to enhance positive experiences and increase the unpleasantness of negative experiences. Men seem to be more stressed by crowded conditions than women and are more likely to react with increased aggressiveness, apparently because men require more personal space.

393
Q

Frustration-Aggression Hypothesis

A

This hypothesis proposes that aggression is motivated by frustration, and a revised version predicts that frustration leads to aggression in the presence of aggressive cues.

394
Q

Law of Attraction (Byrne)

A

According to Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction, we are attracted to others who have similar attitudes because interacting with those individuals is more rewarding than interacting with people who have dissimilar attitudes and is, therefore, more likely to generate positive affect.

395
Q

Psychological Reactance

A

Psychological reactance is the tendency to resist being influenced or manipulated by others, usually by doing the opposite of what is expected or requested.

396
Q

Social Judgment Theory

A

Social judgment theory predicts that people have three ‘categories of judgment’ by which they evaluate persuasive messages-a latitude of acceptance, a latitude of non-commitment, and a latitude of rejection-and that people are most likely to be persuaded when the message is within their latitude of acceptance.

397
Q

Actor-Observer Bias

A

In causal attribution, the tendency for an observer to overestimate the effects of dispositional factors when making attributions about an actor’s behavior but to overestimate the effects of situational factors when making self-attributions.

398
Q

Catharsis Hypothesis

A

The catharsis hypothesis predicts that an act of aggression reduces an individual’s arousal level which then decreases the likelihood that they will act aggressively again in the near future. The research has not been supportive of this claim.

399
Q

Effects of Media Violence

A

The research has generally confirmed that viewing media violence increases aggression by providing viewers with models for aggressive behavior. In addition, media violence can affect attitudes as well as behavior-e.g., frequent viewing of media violence has been linked to a tendency to overestimate the likelihood that one will be a victim of violence.

400
Q

Fundamental Attribution Bias

A

The fundamental attribution bias is the tendency for an observer to overestimate dispositional causes and underestimate situational causes when making attributions about an actor’s behavior.

401
Q

Levels of Racism

A

Several investigators argue, to understand the effects of racism, it is necessary to recognize that it operates on multiple levels. These levels may be categorized as cultural, institutional, interpersonal, and internalized.

402
Q

Robber’s Cave Study (Sherif)

A

Sherif’s research with boys at a summer camp demonstrated that the most effective way to reduce intergroup hostility is having the members of the groups cooperate to achieve a mutual (superordinate) goal.

403
Q

Social Learning Theory

A

Social learning theory predicts that learning can occur simply by observing the behavior of a model. It has been used to explain the acquisition of aggressive behaviors (e.g., the effects of media violence).

404
Q

Base Rate Fallacy

A

The base rate fallacy is the tendency to underutilize or ignore relevant statistical (base rate) data and to rely, instead, on irrelevant information when making probabilistic judgments about an event or characteristic.

405
Q

Contact Hypothesis

A

The contact hypothesis proposes that prejudice may be reduced through contact between members of majority and minority groups as long as the following conditions are met: Members of the different groups hav equal status and power, members are provided with opportunities that disconfirm negative stereotypes about members of the other group, and intergroup cooperation is necessary to achieve mutual (superordinate) goals.

406
Q

Equity Theory

A

Equity theory predicts that motivation (e.g., motivation to remain in a relationship) is affected by a comparison of the input/outcome ratios of oneself and one’s partner.

407
Q

Intraindividual Conflict

A

Lewin (1931) and Miller (1944) distinguished between four intraindividual (motivational) conflicts; approach-approach, avoidance-avoidance, approach-avoidance, and double approach-avoidance. Of these, the double approach-avoidance (which occurs when we have to choose between two goals that both have positive and negative qualities) is the most difficult type to resolve.

408
Q

Prison Study

A

Zimbardo’s prison simulation study demonstrated that people alter their behaviors to fit their assigned roles.

409
Q

Social Comparison Theory

A

Social comparison theory predicts that people use other (usually similar) people as sources of comparison to evaluate their own attitudes and behaviors.

410
Q

Bases of Social Power

A

French and Raven identified six bases of social power that induce compliance in another person: coercive, reward, expert, legitimate, referent, and informational.

411
Q

Deindividuation Model

A

Deindividuation is a state of relative anonymity that allows an individual to feel unidentifiable. It has been associated with increases in antisocial behavior, apparently because the deindividuated person’s behavior is no longer controlled by guilt, fear of evaluation, or other inhibitory controls.

412
Q

Field Theory

A

Lewin’s field theory describes human behavior as being a product of interdependent factors in the person and their physical and social environment.

413
Q

Jigsaw Method

A

The jigsaw method is a method of learning in which assignments must be completed by teams with each team member being assigned a different piece of the project. It has been found to improve intergroup relations, cooperation, and self-esteem as well as academic achievement, especially for members of minority groups.

414
Q

Pseudopatient Study (Rosenhan)

A

Rosenhan’s pseudopatient study demonstrated the effects of the social context on impression formation. Once admitted to a mental hospital, the pseudopatients were viewed, especially by hospital staff, as being schizophrenic even though they did not exhibit any abnormal behaviors.

415
Q

Social Exchange Theory

A

Social exchange theory predicts that a person’s decision to leave a relationship depends on the relationship’s costs and rewards-i.e., a person is likely to stay in a relationship when rewards exceed costs but leave when costs are greater than rewards.

416
Q

Privilege

A

Privilege occurs when a right, benefit, or immunity is afforded to one group

417
Q

Attitude Inoculation

A

A method for reducing the effectiveness of a persuasive message that is based on the medical model. It involves giving the recipient of the message arguments against their own position and weak counterarguments (refutations against those arguments).

418
Q

Characteristics of the Communication

A

Several characteristics of a communication affect its persuasiveness-e.g., the level of discrepancy between the positions of the recipient and the message, the order in which the two sides of an argument are presented (primacy/recency effects), and whether the message is intentionally delivered or is overheard.

419
Q

Effects of Pornography

A

Studies investigating the effects of pornography have shown that, while exposure to mild erotica may reduce aggressiveness, exposure to pornography with violent themes tends to increase aggressive behaviors toward women as well as increase acceptance of rape myths and the adoption of callous attitudes toward sexual violence.

420
Q

Gain-Loss Effect

A

The gain-loss effect predicts that people tend to be most attracted to individuals who show increasing liking for them and to be least attracted to individuals who show decreasing liking for them.

421
Q

Minority Influence

A

The research shows that a minority can influence the majority by maintaining a consistent (but not dogmatic) position.

422
Q

Schemata

A

Schemata (schemas) are cognitive structures that organize past information and experience and provide a framework for processing and understanding new information and experiences.

423
Q

Superordinate Goals

A

Superordinate goals can be achieved only when individuals or members of different groups work together cooperatively and have been found useful for reducing intergroup conflict.

424
Q

Autokinetic Effect

A

Sherif used the autokinetic effect (a perceptual phenomenon in which a stationary point of light appears to move in a darkened room) to study conformity to group norms.

425
Q

Characteristics of the Communicator

A

Research on attitude change has confirmed that credible communicators are more persuasive and that one factor that contributes to credibility is trustworthiness (e.g., if the person is arguing against their own best interests, the person may seem more trustworthy).

426
Q

Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM)

A

ELM is a cognitive theory of attitude change that distinguishes between two information processing routes-central and peripheral. Use of the central route is likely when the listener’s motivation is high, the listener has the ability to process the information contained in the message, and/or the listener is in a neutral or slightly negative mood. Use of the peripheral route is likely when the listener is unmotivated, the listener lacks the ability to process the information, and/or the listener is in a positive mood.

427
Q

Gender Differences in Affiliation

A

The research has shown that women generally spend more time than men engaged in conversation, are more likely to talk to people of the same gender, and may affiliate more than men do in public places.

428
Q

Misery Loves Miserable Company

A

Schachter concluded that people like to affiliate most with others who are in similar circumstances (e.g., anxious people prefer to affiliate with other anxious people).

429
Q

Self-Perception Theory

A

Self-perception theory predicts that people make attributions about their own attitudes and behaviors on the basis of observations of their behaviors and other external cues.

430
Q

Symbolic Racism

A

Sears et al. propose that symbolic (modern) racism has gradually taken the place of ‘old-fashioned’ racism and that symbolic racists believe that African Americans and other minorities violate such traditional American values as individualism, self-reliance, and the work ethic. They also deny their prejudice and attribute the social and economic problems of minority group members to internal factors (e.g., a lack of effort and discipline).

431
Q

Americans with Disabilities Act

A

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requires that any test administered to a job applicant or employee with a disability must accurately measure the skills and abilities the test was designed to measure rather than reflect the examinee’s disability. It also mandates that employers make reasonable accommodations when testing disabled examinees.

432
Q

Dynamic Assessment/Testing the Limits

A

Dynamic assessment was derived from Vygotsky’s method for evaluating a child’s mental development and involves deliberate deviation from standardized testing procedures to obtain additional information about an examinee and/or determine if they would benefit from assistance or instruction. Testing the limits, a type of dynamic assessment, involves providing an examinee with additional cues, suggestions, or feedback and is ordinarily done after standard administration of the test to preserve the applicability of the test’s norms.

433
Q

KABC-II

A

The KABC-II (Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children) is a measure of cognitive ability for children ages 3:0 through 18:11 and was designed to be a culture-fair test by minimizing verbal instructions and responses. Interpretation of scores can be based on one of two models-the Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive abilities or Luria’s neurpsychological processing model.

434
Q

Raven’s Progressive Matrices

A

Raven’s Progressive Matrices is a nonverbal measure of general intelligence (g) and is considered useful as a multicultural test because it is relatively independent of the effects of specific education and cultural learning. There are several versions including the Standard Progressive Matrices and Colored Progressive Matrices.

435
Q

Stroop Color-Word Association Test

A

The Stroop Test assesses the degree to which an examinee can suppress a prepotent (habitual) response in favor of an unusual one and measures cognitive flexibility, selective attention, and response inhibition. It is sensitive to frontal lob damage, and poor performance has been associated with ADHD, mania, depression, and schizophrenia.

436
Q

Wisconsin Card Sorting Test

A

The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) is used to assess the ability to form abstract concepts and shift cognitive strategies in response to feedback. It is sensitive to frontal lobe damage, and impaired performance has been linked to alcoholism, autism, schizophrenia, depression, and malingering.

437
Q

Beck Depression Inventory-II

A

The BDI-II contains 21 items that address the mood, cognitive, behavioral, and physical aspects of depression. The examinee rates each item in terms of severity on a 4-point scale that ranges from 0 to 3. The following score guidelines are often used: 0 to 13 = minimal depression; 14 to 19 = mild depression; 20 to 28 = moderate depression; and 29 to 63 = severe depression.

438
Q

Flynn Effect

A

Research conducted prior to 2000 found that IQ test scores consistently increased over the previous 70 years in the United States and other industrialized countries. This increase is referred to as the Flynn effect, involves a rate of at least 3 IQ points per decade, an is apparently due primarily to increases in fluid intelligence. Recent research suggests, however, that the Flynn effect has reversed in some countries and, in the US, for individuals with with IQs of 110 and above.

439
Q

Larry P.V. Riles

A

The case of Larry P. was brought by plaintiffs on behalf of African American children who were disproportionately enrolled in special education classes in the San Fransisco school system. Based primarily on the testimony of experts, the judge handed down the opinion that ‘IQ tests are racially and culturally biased, [and] have a discriminatory impact on Black children’ and enjoined San Fransisco public schools from using them to place Black children in special education classes.

440
Q

Rorschach Inkblot Test (Administration, Scoring Categories, Interpretation)

A

The Rorschach is a projective personality test that presents the examinee with 10 inkblots and is based on the premise that an examinee’s responses to the inkblots reflect their underlying personality, conflicts, etc. Administration usually entails two phases-free association and inquiry. Most scoring systems involve looking at the following categories: location, determinants, form quality, content, and popularity; and interpretation involves considering the number and ratio of responses in each category.

441
Q

Thematic Apperception Test

A

The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is based on Murray’s theory of needs and presents the examinee with vague black-and-white pictures that include one or more human figures. The examinee is asked to make up a story about each picture and their responses are scored and interpreted in terms of several factors including the story’s ‘hero’, the intensity, frequency, and duration of needs, environmental press, thema, and outcomes expressed in each story.

442
Q

Psychophysiological Measures

A

Psychophysiological measures are data collection methods that involve the monitoring of a physiological function, such as heart rate or perspiration, as it correlates to the client or patient’s psychological or emotional state.

443
Q

Multi-Informant Reports

A

Multi-informant reports are a form of data collection that compile information from several sources (e.g., family, friends, clinicians, etc). Multi-informant reports may provide a wealth of information to use when assessing or treating a client, however there may also be inconsistencies among the reports.

444
Q

Big Five Personality Traits

A

The initial identification of the personality traits that make up the ‘Big Five’ (extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism, and openness to experience) utilized an atheoretical lexical approach that entailed identifying personality characteristics listed in the dictionary and then using factor analysis to identify the core traits (factors).

445
Q

Heredity and Intelligence

A

Correlations between the IQ scores of people with varying degrees of genetic similarity are used to demonstrate the impact of heredity on intelligence. The studies have found that, the closer the genetic similarity, the higher the correlation (e.g., identical twins reared together, r = .85; identical twins reared apart, r = .67).

446
Q

Norm-, Criterion-, and Self-Referenced Scores

A

The scores provided by most tests can be categorized as norm-, criterion-, or self-referenced. Norm-referenced scores permit comparisons between an examinee’s test performance and the performance of individuals in the norm group. Criterion-referenced scores permit interpreting an examinee’s test performance in terms of what the examinee can do or knows with regard to a clearly defined content domain or in terms of performance or status on an external criterion. Self-referenced scores are provided by ipsative scales and permit intraindividual comparisons-i.e., comparisons of an examinee’s score on one scale with their score on other scales.

447
Q

Self-Directed Search (RIASEC)

A

Holland classified occupations and occupational interests into six themes, which he believed reflect basic personality characteristics. The relationship between these themes is conceptualized in terms of a hexagon with themes located closer to one another being more similar. Starting in the upper left of the hexagon, the themes are Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and Conventional (RIASEC). These themes are measured by the Self-Directed Search (SDS).

448
Q

Vineland-II

A

The Vineland II (Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales, Second Edition) is used to evaluate personal and social skills of children and adults with Intellectual Disability, Autism Spectrum Disorder, ADHD, brain injury, or dementia and to assist in the development of educational and treatment plans.

449
Q

Direct Observation

A

Direct observation involves the evaluator actively monitoring and collecting data on the participant’s behavior. Direct observations may be structured or unstructured.

450
Q

Crystallized and Fluid Intelligence

A

Horn and Cattell proposed that general intelligence can be described in terms of two types: Crystallized intelligence (Gc) refers to acquired knowledge and skills and is affected by educational and cultural experiences, whereas fluid intelligence (Gf) enables an individual to solve novel problems and perceive relations and similarities and does not depend on specific instruction.

451
Q

Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA)

A

IDEA requires that (a) all disabled people from infancy to 21 years of age must be evaluated by a team of specialists to determine their specific needs; (b) an Individualized Educational Program (IEP) must be developed for each disabled child enrolled in the public education system that provides education for the student in the ‘least restrictive environment’ and that has been approved by the child’s parents; and (c) while reliable, valid, and nondiscriminatory psychological tests can be used, assignment to special education classes cannot be made on the basis of IQ tests only.

452
Q

Mini Mental State Exam

A

The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) is a screening test for cognitive impairment for older adults and assesses six aspects of cognitive functioning: orientation, registration (immediate recall), attention, and calculation, delayed recall, language, and visual construction. The maximum score is 30, and a score of 23 or 14 is ordinarily used as a cutoff, with scores below the cutoff indicating cognitive impairment.

453
Q

WAIS IV

A

The WAIS-IV (Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale, Fourth Edition) is an individually administered intelligence test for individuals ages 16:0 to 90:11. It provides a Full Scale IQ (FSIQ), scores on four Indexes (Working Memory, Verbal Comprehension, Processing Speed, and Perceptual Reasoning), and scores on 10 core and five supplemental subtests. The FSIQ and Index scores have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15; the subtests have a mean of 10 and standard deviation of 3.

454
Q

Behavioral Assessment

A

Behavioral assessment focuses on overt and covert behaviors and utilizes various techniques including behavioral interviews, behavioral observation, protocol analysis and other cognitive measures, and psychophysiological measures. Functional behavioral assessment (FBA) is a type of behavioral assessment that involves identifying and altering the antecedents and consequences that are maintaining an undesirable behavior.

455
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale

A

The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess level of consciousness following brain injury and involves rating the patient in terms of three responses-visual response (eye opening), best motor response, and best verbal response.

456
Q

Kuder Occupational Interest Survey

A

The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) was designed for high school juniors and seniors, college students, and adults. It was developed on the basis of empirical criterion keying but, unlike the Strong tests, did not include a general reference group. Instead, items selected for inclusion were those that distinguished between different occupational groups.

457
Q

SB5 (Age Range, Cognitive Factors, Routing Subtests)

A

The SB5 (Stanford-Binet, Fifth Edition) is an individually administered intelligence test for individuals ages 2 and up. It is based on a hierarchical intelligence model that includes ‘g’ and five cognitive factors: Fluid Reasoning, Knowledge, Quantitative Reasoning, Visual-Spatial Processing, and Working Memory. Administration of the SB5 is tailored to the examinee’s level of cognitive functioning through the use of two routing subtests (Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary) which indicate the appropriate starting point for the remaining subtests. The Full Scale IQ and Factor scores have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15, and the subtest scores have a mean of 10 and standard deviation of 3.

458
Q

Triarchic Theory

A

Sternberg’s triarchic theory defines ‘successful intelligence’ as the ability to adapt to, modify, and choose environments that accomplish one’s goals and the goals of society and proposes that it is composed of three abilities-analytical, creative, and practical.

459
Q

Structured/Semi-Structured Interviews

A

Structured and semi-structured interviews are data collection methods that typically involve a fixed number of close-ended questions. They are generally easy to replicate, however they require training to administer and can be time-consuming.

460
Q

Bender-Gestalt-II

A

The Bender-Gestalt-II is a measure of visual-motor integration that is also used as a screening tool for neuropsychological impairment. It includes 16 stimulus cards consisting of geometric figures that the examinees first copies and then draws from memory.

461
Q

Halstead-Reitan

A

The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery is used to detect brain damage and determine its severity and possible location. It produces a Halstead Impairment Index that ranges from 0 to 1.0, with higher scores indicating greater impairment.

462
Q

Leiter-3

A

The Leiter-3 was designed as a culture-fair measure of cognitive abilities for individuals aged 3 to 75+ years. It can be administered without verbal instructions and is also useful for individuals with language problems or hearing impairment. Examinees are required to match a set of response cards to corresponding illustrations on an easel. Test items emphasize fluid intelligence and evaluate four domains of cognitive functioning-visualization, reasoning, memory, and attention.

463
Q

Seattle Longitudinal Study

A

The Seattle Longitudinal Study found that a cross-sectional design is more likely to find early age-related declines in IQ because it is more vulnerable to the confounding effects of educational and other differences between different age groups (‘cohort effects’). It utilized a cross-sequential design (which combines cross-sectional and longitudinal methodologies) and found that, of the six primary mental abilities studied, only perceptual speed declined substantially prior to age 60.

464
Q

Types of Test Bias (Slope and Intercept)

A

Slope and intercept biases are types of test bias that can invalidate the interpretation of test scores for members of certain groups. Slope bias occurs when there is differential validity-i.e., when the validity coefficients for a test differ for different groups. Intercept bias (unfairness) occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion performance for different groups are the same, but their mean scores on the predictor differ.

465
Q

Self-Report

A

Self-report is a form of data collection in which the participant or client themselves provides the targeted information. Self-report is generally a quick, low-cost method of data collection, however it may result in low validity and reliability of data.

466
Q

Actuarial versus Clinical Predictions

A

Actuarial predictions are based on empirically validated relationships between test results and target criteria and make use of a multiple regression equation or similar technique, while clinical predictions are based on the decision-maker’s intuition, experience, and knowledge. Studies comparing the two methods have generally found that the actuarial method alone is more accurate than clinical judgment alone.

467
Q

Curriculum-Based Measurement

A

Curriculum-based measurement (CBM) involves periodic assessment of school-aged children with brief standardized and validated measures of basic academic skills that reflect the current school curriculum for the purposes of evaluating instructional effectiveness and making instructional decisions.

468
Q

Infant and Preschool Tests

A

Infant and preschool tests are generally considered valid as screening devices for developmental delays and disabilities; but, when administered to children aged two or younger, they have little predictive validity. Examples include the Denver Development Screening Test, Bayley Scales, and Fagan Test of Infant Intelligence.

469
Q

MMPI-2 (Validity Scales, T-Scores, Profile Analysis)

A

The MMPI-2 includes the L, F, and K validity scales, which are designed to assess test-taking attitudes and determine if an examinee’s results are valid. A high L Scale score indicates an attempt to present oneself in a favorable light, a high F Scale score suggests response carelessness or an attempt to ‘fake bad’, and high K scale score indicates defensiveness or an attempt to ‘fake good’. Scores are reported as T-scores with a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10. A T score of 65 or higher is considered clinically significant. Scores are commonly interpreted through profile analysis, which involves considering the examinee’s two or three highest scale scores.

470
Q

Standardization

A

Standardization refers to two characteristics of a test. First, a test is standardized when the administration and scoring procedures are clearly defined. Second, a test is standardized when it has been administered under standard conditions to a representative sample for the purpose of establishing norms.

471
Q

WISC-V (Age, Range, FSIQ, Indexes)

A

The WISC-V (Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, Fifth Edition) is an individually administered intelligence test for examinees ages 6:0 to 16:11. It provides a Full Scale IQ (FSIQ) score; scores on five Primary Index Scales (Verbal Comprehension, Visual-Spatial, Fluid Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed), scores on optimal Ancillary and Complementary Index Scales, and individual subtest scores.

472
Q

Aging and Intelligence/Processing Speed

A

Increasing age is associated with a decline in speed of information processing and fluid (vs. crystallized) intelligence but, for some adults, declines may be reversed with relatively simple training and practice.

473
Q

Differential Validity

A

The term differential validity has two meanings: In the context of multiaptitude batteries, differential validity is desirable, and a battery lacks differential validity when each test or subtest has similar validity coefficients for each criterion group or category. In the context of job selection, differential validity is undesirable and occurs when a predictor has different validity coefficients for different groups of individuals (e.g., men and women).

474
Q

ITPA-3

A

The ITPA-3 (Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities, Third Edition) is appropriate for individuals ages 5:0 to 12:11. It was designed to evaluate a child’s strengths and weaknesses in terms of linguistic abilities, assist in the diagnosis of dyslexia and problems related to phonological coding, and track a child’s progress as the result of an intervention.

475
Q

PPVT-4

A

The PPVT-4 (Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test-Fourth Edition) is a measure of receptive vocabulary and provides an estimate of verbal intelligence. It is designed for examinees ages 2:6 to 90+ years; and is useful for people with a motor or speech impairment and can be administered to any examinee who is able to hear the stimulus word, see the drawings on the cards, and in some way communicate a response.

476
Q

Strong Interest Inventory

A

The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on General Occupational Themes, Basic Interest Scales, Occupational Scales, and Personal Styles Scales. Development of the Occupational Scales used an empirical criterion keying strategy and indicate the degree to which the examinee’s interests are similar to those of satisfied workers of the same gender in 122 occupations.

477
Q

ANCOVA (Analysis of Covariance)

A

The ANCOVA is a version of the ANOVA that is used to increase the efficiency of the analysis by statistically removing variability in the DV that is due to an extraneous variable. When using the ANCOVA, each person’s score on the DV is adjusted on the basis of their score on the extraneous variable.

478
Q

Interval Recording/Event Sampling

A

Interval recording is a method of behavioral sampling that involves dividing a period of time into discrete intervals and recording whether the behavior occurs in each interval. It is particularly useful for behaviors that have no clear beginning or end. Event sampling is a method of behavioral sampling that is useful for behaviors that are rare or that leave a permanent product. It involves recording each occurrence of a behavior during a predefined or preselected event.

479
Q

Normal Curve/Areas Under the Normal Curve

A

A normal curve is a symmetrical bell-shaped distribution that is defined by a specific mathematical formula. When scores on a variable are normally distributed, it is possible to conclude that a specific number of observations fall within certain areas of the normal curve that are defined by the standard deviation: In a normal distribution, about 68% of observations fall between the scores that are plus and minus one standard deviation from the mean, about 95% between the scores that are plus and minus two standard deviations from the mean, and about 99% between the scores that are plus and minus three standard deviations from the mean.

480
Q

Randomized Block ANOVA

A

The randomized block ANOVA is the appropriate statistical test when blocking has been used as a method for controlling an extraneous variable (i.e., when the extraneous variable is treated as an independent variable). It allows an investigator to statistically analyze the main and interaction effects of the extraneous variable.

481
Q

Standard Deviation

A

The standard deviation is a measure of dispersion (variability) of scores around the mean of the distribution. It is the square root of the variance and is calculated by dividing the sum of the squared deviation scores by N (or N - 1) and taking the square root of the result.

482
Q

Between-Groups Designs

A

Between-groups designs are experimental research designs that allow a researcher to assess the effects of the different levels of one or more IVs by administering each level or combination of levels to a different group of subjects.

483
Q

Experimental Research (True and Quasi-Experimental)

A

Experimental research involves conducting an empirical study to test hypotheses about the relationships between independent and dependent variables. A true experimental study permits greater control over experimental conditions, and its ‘hallmark’ is random assignment to groups. A quasi-experimental study permits less control.

484
Q

LISREL

A

LISREL is a structural equation (causal) modeling technique that is used to verify a predefined causal model or theory. It is more complex than path analysis, and it allows two-way (non-recursive) paths and takes into account observed variables, the latent traits they are believed to measure, and the effects of measurement error.

485
Q

Null and Alternative Hypotheses

A

In experimental research, an investigator tests a verbal research hypothesis by simultaneously testing two competing statistical hypotheses. The first of these, the null hypothesis, is stated in a way that implies that the independent variable does not have an effect on the dependent variable. The second statistical hypothesis, the alternative hypothesis, states the opposite of the null hypothesis and is expressed in a way that implies that the independent variable does have an effect.

486
Q

Regression Analysis/Least Squares Criterion

A

Regression analysis is used to predict a score on one criterion based on the person’s obtained score on one predictor. It involves identifying the location of the regression line (‘line of best fit’) and using the equation for that line, the regression equation, to make predictions. The least squares criterion is used to locate the regression line so that the amount of error in prediction is minimized.

487
Q

Type I and Type II Errors

A

A Type I error occurs when a true null hypothesis is rejected. The probability of making a Type I error is equal to alpha, which is set by the investigator prior to collecting or analyzing the data. A Type II error occurs when a false null hypothesis is retained. The probability of making a Type II error is equal to beta (which is usually unknown).

488
Q

Cluster Analysis

A

Cluster analysis is a multivariate technique that is used to group people or objects into a smaller number of mutually exclusive and exhaustive subgroups (clusters) based on their similarities-i.e., to group people or object so that the identified subgroups have within-group homogeneity and between-group heterogeneity.

489
Q

Factorial ANOVA

A

The factorial ANOVA is the appropriate statistical test when a study includes two or more IVs (i.e,. when the study has used a factorial design) and a single DV that is measured on an interval or ratio scale.. It is also referred to as a two-way ANOVA, three-way ANOVA, etc., with the words ‘two’ and ‘three’ referring to the number of IVs.

490
Q

Mixed (Split Plot) ANOVA

A

The mixed ANOVA is a type of factorial ANOVA that is used when a study includes at least one between-groups independent variable and one within-subjects independent variable.

491
Q

Path Analysis

A

Path analysis is a structural equation (causal) modeling technique that is used to verify a pre-defined causal model or theory. It involves translating the theory into a path diagram, collecting data on the variables of interest (the observed variables), and calculating and interpreting path coefficients.

492
Q

Scales of Measurement

A

The four scales of measurement are one way to categorize the various ways of measuring variables. From least to most ‘mathematically sophisticated’. the scales are nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio. A nominal scale yields ‘frequency data’ (the frequency of observations in each nominal category). Ordinal, interval, and ratio scales provide scale values or scores.

493
Q

Within-Subjects Designs

A

Within-subjects designs are experimental research designs in which each subject receives, at different times, each level of the IV (or combinations of the IVs) so that comparisons on the DV are made within subjects rather than between groups. The single-group time-series design is a type of within-subject design.

494
Q

Cross-Validation/Shrinkage

A

Cross-validation refers to validating a correlation coefficient (e.g., a criterion-related validity coefficient) on a new sample. Because the same chance factors operating in the original sample are not operating in the subsequent sample, the correlation coefficient tends to ‘shrink’ on cross-validation. In terms of the multiple correlation coefficient (R), shrinkage is greatest when the original sample is small and the number of predictors is large.

495
Q

Factorial Design (Main and Interaction Effects)

A

Factorial designs are research designs that include two or more ‘factors’ (independent variables). They permit the analysis of main and interaction effects: A main effect is the effect of a single IV on the DV, while an interaction refers to the effects of one IV at different levels of another IV.

496
Q

Mixed Designs

A

Mixed designs are a type of factorial design in which at least one IV is a between-groups variable and one IV is a within-subjects variable.

497
Q

Probability Sampling

A

When using probability sampling, each element in the target population has a known chance of being selected for inclusion in the sample. Methods of probability sampling include simple random sampling, stratified random sampling, and cluster sampling. In contrast to simple random sampling and stratified random sampling (which involve selecting individuals from the population), cluster sampling involves selecting units or groups of individuals from the population (e.g., schools, hospitals, clinics).

498
Q

Shared Variability

A

A correlation coefficient for two or more variables can be squared to obtain a measure of shared variability. For example, if the correlation between X and Y is .50, this means that 25% of variability in Y is shared with (or is accounted for by) variability in X.

499
Q

Central Limit Theorem

A

The Central Limit Theorem is derived from probability theory and predicts that the sampling distribution of the mean (a) will approach a normal shape as the sample size increases, regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores; (b) has a mean equal to the population mean; and (c) has a standard deviation equal to the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size. This standard deviation is referred to as the standard error of the mean.

500
Q

Experimentwise Error Rate

A

The experimentwise error rate (also known as the familywise error rate) is the probability of making a Type I error. As the number of statistical comparisons in a study increases, the experimentwise error rate increases.

501
Q

MANOVA (Multivariate Analysis of Variance)

A

The MANOVA is a form of the ANOVA that is used when a study includes one or more IVs and two or more DVs that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. Use of the MANOVA helps reduce the experimentwise error rate and increases power by simultaneously analyzing the effects of the IV(s) on all of the DVs.

502
Q

One-Way ANOVA

A

The one-way ANOVA is a parametric statistical test used to compare the means of two or more groups when a study includes one IV and one DV that is measured on an interval or ratio scale. The one-way ANOVA yields an F-ratio that indicates if any group means are significantly different. The F-ratio represents a measure of treatment effects plus error divided by a measure of error only (MSB/MSW). When the treatment has had an effect, the F-ratio is larger than 1.0.

503
Q

Rejection and Retention Regions

A

The rejection region of a sampling distribution contains the sample values (e.g., means) that are unlikely to be obtained simply as the result of sampling error. When an inferential statistical test indicates that the obtained sample value falls in the rejection region, the null hypothesis is rejected and the alternative hypothesis is retained. The size of the rejection region is defined by alpha. The retention region is the region of a sampling distribution that contains the values that are likely to be obtained simply as the result of sampling error. When an inferential statistical test indicates that an obtained sample value is in the retention region, the null hypothesis is retained and the alternative hypothesis is rejected. The retention region is equal to one minus alpha.

504
Q

Systematic Error/Extraneous Variables

A

Systematic error is predictable error. Extraneous (confounding) variables are a source of systematic error that affects the relationship between independent and dependent variables.

505
Q

Chi-Square Test (Single-Sample and Multiple Sample)

A

The chi-square test is a nonparametric statistical test that is used with nominal data (or data that are being treated as nominal data)-i.e., when the data to be compared are frequencies in each category. The single-sample chi-square test is used when the study includes one variable: the multiple-sample chi-square test when it includes two or more variables. (When counting variables for the chi-square test, independent and dependent variables are both included).

506
Q

External Validity (Pretest Sensitization, Reactivity, Multiple Treatment Interference)

A

External validity refers to the degree to which a study’s results can be generalized to other people, settings, conditions, etc. Threats include pretest sensitization (which occurs when pretesting affects how subjects react to the treatment), reactivity (which occurs when subjects respond differently to a treatment because they known they are participating in a research study), and multiple treatment interference (which occurs when subjects receive more than one level of an IV). Counterbalancing can be used to control multiple treatment interference and involves administering different levels of the IV to different groups of subjects in a different order.

507
Q

Measures of Central Tendency (Mean, Median, Mode)

A

The mean, median, and mode are the most commonly used measures of central tendency. The mean is the arithmetic average of a set of scores, and it can be used when scores represent an interval or ratio scale. The median is the middle score in a distribution when scores have been ordered from lowest to highest. It is used with ordinal data (and with interval and ratio data when the distribution is skewed or contains one or a few outliers). Finally, the mode is the most frequently occurring score or category, and it is used as a measure of central tendency for nominal variables or variables that are being treated as nominal variables.

508
Q

Parametric and Non-Parametric Tests

A

Parametric tests are inferential statistical tests that are used when the data to be analyzed represent an interval or ratio scale and when certain assumptions about the population distribution(s) have been met-i.e., when scores on the variable of interest are normally distributed and when there is homoscedasticity (population variances are equal). An advantage of the parametric tests is that they are more ‘powerful’ than the nonparametric tests. They include the Student’s t-test and the analysis of variance. Nonparametric tests are inferential statistical tests used to analyze nominal or ordinal data (or interval or ratio data when the assumptions for a parametric test have not been met). They include the chi-square test, the Mann-Whitney U test, and the Wilcoxon matched-pairs test.

509
Q

Sampling Distribution of the Mean/Standard Error of the Mean

A

The sampling distribution of the mean is the distribution of sample means that would be obtained if an infinite number of equal-size samples were randomly selected from the population and the mean for each sample was calculated. The sampling distribution is normally-shaped, its mean is equal to the population mean, and its standard deviation (the standard error of the mean) is equal to the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size. The sampling distribution is used in inferential statistics to determine how likely it is to obtain a particular sample mean given the population mean, the population standard deviation, the sample size, and the level of significance.

510
Q

Trend Analysis

A

Trend analysis is a type of analysis of variance that is used to assess linear and nonlinear trends when the independent variable is quantitative.

511
Q

Discriminant Function Analysis

A

Discriminant function analysis is the appropriate multivariate technique when two or more continuous predictors will be used to predict or estimate a person’s status on a single discrete (nominal) criterion.

512
Q

Independent and Dependent Variables

A

The independent variable (IV) is the variable that is believed to have an effect on the dependent variable and is varied or manipulated by the researcher in an experimental research study must have at least two levels. The dependent variable (DV) is the variable that is believed to be affected by the independent variable and is observed and measured.

513
Q

Moderator and Mediator Variables

A

Moderator variables affect the strength or direction of the relationship between independent and dependent variables. If a treatment is more effective for reducing cigarette smoking for men than for women, gender is a moderator variable. Mediating variables explain or account for the relationship between independent and dependent variables. As an example, authoritative parenting may have positive effects on academic achievement because authoritative parenting leads to high self-efficacy beliefs (the mediator) which, in turn, leads to high level of academic achievement.

514
Q

Random Assignment

A

Random assignment involves randomly assigning subjects to treatment groups and is sometimes referred to as ‘randomization’. It is considered the ‘hallmark’ of true experimental research because it enables an investigator to conclude that any observed effect of an IV on the DV is due to the IV rather than to error. (Random assignment must not be confused with random selection, which refers to randomly selecting subjects from the population).

515
Q

Single Subject Designs

A

Single-subject designs include at least one A (baseline) and one B (treatment) phase and include multiple measurements of the DV at regular intervals during each phase. The AB design includes a single baseline phase and a single treatment phase. The reversal designs include, at a minimum, two baseline phases and one treatment phase (e.g., an ABA or ABAB design), with the treatment being withdrawn (‘reversed’) during the second and subsequent baseline phases. Use of the multiple-baseline design involves sequentially applying a treatment to different ‘baselines’ (e.g., to different behaviors, settings, tasks, or subjects).

516
Q

Alpha

A

Alpha determines the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true; i.e., the probability of making a Type I error. The value of alpha is set by the experimenter prior to collecting or analyzing the data. In psychological research, alpha is commonly set at .01 or .05.

517
Q

Effect Size

A

An effect size is measure of the magnitude of the relationship between independent and dependent variables and is useful for interpreting the relationship’s clinical or practical significance (e.g., for comparing the clinical effectiveness of two or more treatments). Several methods are used to calculate an effect size including Cohen’s d (which indicates the difference between two groups in terms of standard deviation unites) and eta squared (which indicates the percent of variance in the dependent variable that is accounted for by variance in the independent variable).

518
Q

Internal Validity (Maturation, History, Statistical Regression, Selection)

A

Internal validity refers to the degree to which a research study allows an investigator to conclude that observed variability in a dependent variable is due to the independent variable rather than to other factors. Maturation is one threat to internal validity and occurs when a physical or psychological process or event occurs as the result of the passage of time (e.g., increasing fatigue, decreasing motivation) and has a systematic effect on subjects’ status on the DV. History is a threat when an event that is external to the research study affects subjects’ performance on the DV in a systematic way. Statistical regression is a threat when subjects are selected to participate because of their extreme status on the DV or a measure that correlates with the DV and refers to the tendency of extreme scores to ‘regress to the mean’ on retesting. Selection threatens internal validity when groups differ at the beginning of the study because of the way subjects were assigned to groups and is a potential threat whenever subjects are not randomly assigned to groups.

519
Q

Multiple Regression/Multicollinearity

A

Multiple regression is a multivariate technique that is used for predicting a score on a continuous criterion based on performance on two or more continuous and/or discrete predictors. The output of multiple regression is a multiple correlation coefficient (R) and a multiple regression equation. Ideally, predictors included in a multiple regression equation will have low correlations with each other and high correlations with the criterion. High correlations between predictors is referred to as multicollinearity.

520
Q

Random Error

A

Random error is error that is unpredictable (random). Sampling error and measurement error are types of random error.

521
Q

Skewed Distributions

A

Skewed distributions are asymmetrical distributions in which the majority of scores are located on one side of the distribution. In a positively skewed distribution, most scores are in the low side of the distribution but a few scores are in the high (positive) side and the mean is greater than the median which, in turn, is greater than the mode. In a negatively skewed distribution, the majority of scores are in the high side of the distribution, but a few are in the low (negative) side and the mode is greater than the median, which is greater than the mean.

522
Q

Statistical Power

A

Statistical power refers to the probability of rejecting a false null hypothesis. Power cannot be directly controlled but is increased by having a large sample, maximizing the effects of the IV, increasing the size of alpha, and reducing error.

523
Q

Coefficient Alpha/KR-20

A

Method for assessing internal consistency reliability that provides an index of average inter-item consistency. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) can be used as a substitute for coefficient alpha when test items are scored dichotomously.

524
Q

Factor Loadings and Communality

A

In a factor matrix, a factor loading is the correlation between a test (or other variable included in the analysis) and a factor and can be squared to determine the amount of variability in the test that is accounted for by the factor. The communality is the total amount of variability in scores on the test that is accounted for by the factor analysis-i.e., by all of the identified factors.

525
Q

Orthogonal and Oblique Rotation

A

In factor analysis, an orthogonal rotation of the identified factors produces uncorrelated factors, while an oblique rotation produces correlated factors. Rotation is done to simplify the interpretation of the identified factors.

526
Q

Test Length/Range of Scores

A

A test’s reliability can be increased in several ways. One way is to increase the test length by adding items of similar content and quality. Another is to increase the heterogeneity of the sample in terms of the attribute(s) measured by the test, which will increase the range of scores.

527
Q

Construct Validity

A

Construct validity refers to the extend to which a test measures the hypothetical trait (construct) it is intended to measure. Methods for establishing construct validity include correlating test scores with scores on measures that do and do not measure the same trait (convergent and discriminant validity), conducting a factor analysis to assess the test’s factorial validity, determining if changes in test scores reflect expected developmental changes, and seeing if experimental manipulations have the expected impact on test scores.

528
Q

Incremental Validity/True Positives, False Positives, True Negatives, False Negatives

A

The extent to which a predictor increases decision-making accuracy. Calculated by subtracting the base rate from the positive hit rate. Terms to have linked with incremental validity are predictor and criterion cutoff scores; true and false positives and true and false negatives. True positives are those who scored high on the predictor and criterion; false positives scored high on the predictor but low on the criterion; true negatives scored low on the predictor and the criterion; and false negatives scored low on the predictor but high on the criterion.

529
Q

Relationship Between Reliability and Validity

A

Reliability is a necessary but not sufficient condition for validity. In terms of criterion-related validity, the validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of the product of the reliabilities of the predictor and criterion.

530
Q

Test-Retest Reliability

A

A method for assessing reliability that involves administering the same test to the same group of examinees on two different occasions and correlating the two sets of scores. Yields a coefficient of stability.

531
Q

Criterion-Referenced Interpretation

A

Interpretation of a test score in terms of a prespecified standard; i.e., in terms of percent of content correct (percentage score) or of predicted performance on an external criterion (e.g., regression equation, expectancy table).

532
Q

Item Discrimination

A

Item discrimination refers to the extent to which a test item discriminates (differentiates) between examinees who obtain high versus low scores on the entire test or on an external criterion. The item discrimination index (D) ranges from -1.0 to +1.0. If all examinees in the upper group and none in the lower group answered the item correctly, D is +1.0; if none of the examinees in the upper group and all examinees in the lower group answered the item correctly, D equals =1.0.

533
Q

Sensitivity and Specificity

A

Sensitivity and specificity provide information about a predictor’s accuracy when administered to a group of individuals who are known to have or not have the disorder (or other characteristics) of interest. Sensitivity is the percent of people in the tryout sample who have the disorder and were accurately identified by the predictor as having the disorder. Specificity is the percent of people in the tryout sample who do not have the disorder and were accurately identified by the predictor as not having the disorder.

534
Q

Criterion-Related Validity/Concurrent and Predictive

A

The type of validity that involves determining the relationship (correlation) between the predictor and the criterion. The correlation coefficient is referred to as the criterion-related validity coefficient. Criterion-related validity can be either concurrent (predictor and criterion scores obtained at about the same time) or predictive (predictor scores obtained before criterion scores).

535
Q

Kappa Statistic

A

A correlation coefficient used to assess inter-rater reliability.

536
Q

Split-Half Reliability/Spearman-Brown Formula

A

Split-half reliability is a method for assessing internal consistency reliability and involves ‘splitting’ the test in half (e.g., odd-versus even-numbered items) and correlating examinees’ scores on the two halves of the test. The split-half reliability coefficient tends to underestimate a test’s actual reliability and is usually corrected with the Spearman-Brown formula, which estimates what the test’s reliability would be if it were based on the full length of the test.

537
Q

Content Validity

A

The extent to which a test adequately samples the domain of information, knowledge, or skill that it purports to measure. Determined primarily by ‘expert judgment’. Most important for achievement and job sample tests.

538
Q

Item Characteristics Curve

A

When using item response theory, an item characteristic curve (ICC) is constructed for each item by plotting the proportion of examinees in the tryout sample who answered the item correctly against either the total test score, performance on an external criterion, or a mathematically-derived estimate of a latent ability or trait. The curve provides information on the relationship between an examinee’s level on the ability or trait measured by the test and the probability that they will respond to the item correctly.

539
Q

Relevance

A

In test construction, relevance refers to the extent to which test items contribute to achieving the stated goals of testing.

540
Q

Criterion Contamination

A

Refers to bias introduced into a person’s criterion score as a result of the knowledge of the scorer about their performance on the predictor. Tends to artificially inflate the relationship between the predictor and criterion.

541
Q

Item Difficulty

A

An item’s difficulty level is calculated by dividing the number of individuals who answered the item correctly by the total number of individuals; ranges in value from 0 (very difficult item) to 1.0 (very easy item). In general, an item difficulty index of .50 is preferred because it maximized differentiation between individuals with high and low ability and helps ensure a high reliability coefficient.

542
Q

Reliability/Reliability Coefficient

A

Reliability refers to the consistency of test scores; i.e., the extent to which a test measures an attribute without being affected by random fluctuations (measurement error) that produce inconsistencies over time, across items, or over different forms. Methods for establishing reliability include test-retest, alternative forms, split-half coefficient alpha, and inter-rater. Most produce a reliability coefficient, which is interpreted directly as a measure of true score variability-e.g., a reliability of .80 indicates that 80% variability in test scores is true score variability.

543
Q

Alternate Forms Reliability

A

Method for estimating a test’s reliability that entails administering two forms of the test to the same group of examinees and correlating the two sets of scores. Forms can be administered at about the same time (coefficient of equivalence) or at different times (coefficient of equivalence and stability). Considered by some experts to be the best (most thorough) method for assessing reliability.

544
Q

Cross-Validation and Shrinkage

A

Process of reassessing a test’s criterion-related validity on a new sample to check the generalizability of the original validity coefficient. Ordinarily, the validity coefficient ‘shrinks’ (becomes smaller) on cross-validation because the change factors operating in the original sample are not all present in the cross-validation sample.

545
Q

Multitrait-Multimethod Matrix

A

A systematic way to organize the correlation coefficients obtained when assessing a measure’s convergent and discriminant validity (which, in turn, provides evidence of construct validity). Requires measuring at least two different traits using at least two different methods for each trait. Terms to have linked with multitrait-multimethod matrix are monotrait-monomethod, monotrait-heteromethod, heterotrait-monomethod, and heterotrait-heteromethod coefficients.

546
Q

Standard Error of Estimate/Confidence Interval

A

An index of error when predicting criterion scores from predictor scores. Used to construct a confidence interval around an examinee’s predicted criterion score. Its magnitude depends on two factors: the criterion’s standard deviation and the predictor’s validity coefficient.

547
Q

Classical Test Theory

A

Theory of measurement that regards observed variability in test scores as reflecting two components: true differences between examinees on the attribute(s) measured by the test and the effects of measurement (random) error. Reliability is a measure of true score variability.

548
Q

Factor Analysis

A

A multivariate statistical technique used to determine how many factors (constructs) are needed to account for the intercorrelations among a set of tests, subtests, or test items. Factor analysis can be used to assess a test’s construct validity by indicating the extent to which the test correlates with factors that it would and would not be expected to correlate with. From the persepctive of factor analysis, true score variability consists of communality and specificity. Factors identified in a factor analysis can be either orthogonal and oblique.

549
Q

Norm-Referenced Interpretation

A

Interpretation of an examinee’s test performance relative to the performance of examinees in a normative (standardization) sample. Percentile ranks and standard scores (e.g., z-scores and T-scores) are types of norm-referenced scores.

550
Q

Standard Error of Measurement/Confidence Interval

A

An index of measurement error. Used to construct a confidence interval around an examinee’s obtained test score. Its magnitude depends on two factors: the test’s standard deviation and reliability coefficient.