multiple choice questions- chem Flashcards

(237 cards)

1
Q

the hybridization of the oxygen atom in H2O is
A. sp
B. sp2
C. sp3
D. no answer is correct

A

C. sp3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the hybridization of the nitrogen atom in NH3 is
A. sp
B. sp2
C.sp3
D. no answer is correct

A

c. sp3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the hybridization of the carbon atom in carbon dioxide is

A. sp
b. sp2
C. sp3
D. no answer is correct

A

a. sp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the hybridization of the oxygen atom in co2 is
A. sp
B. sp2
C. sp3
D. no answer is correct

A

c. sp3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in order to produce sp3 hybrid orbitals…

A. one s atomic orbital and two p orbital must be mixed
B. one s atomic orbital and two p atomic orbital must be mixed
c. one s atomic orbital and one p atomic orbital must be mixed
d. two s atomic orbitals and two p atomic orbitals must be mixed

A

B. one s atomic orbital and two p atomic orbital must be mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

determine the number of neutrons in chlorine 35 (atomic number 17) nuclide

A. 35
B. 17
C. 52
D. 18

A

d. 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a beryllium atom has 4 protons, 5 neutrons and 4 electrons. what is the mass number of this atom

A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9

A

d. 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the two main parts of an atom are its

A. atomic nucleus and electrons energy levels
B. nucleons and protons
C. protons and neutrons
D. protons and electrons

A

a. atomic nucleus and electrons energy levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

carbon 14 (atomic number 6) and carbon 12 (atomic number 6) are examples of carbons
A. ions
B. isotopes
C. valences
D. molecules

A

B. isotopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the symbol for an ions which has 8 protons and 10 electrons

A. N3
B. O2-
C. O3-
D. F-

A

B. O2-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the principle quantum number (n) describe
A. the size of the orbital
B. the shape of the orbital
C. the orientation in space of a particular orbital
D. the orientation in space of a particular electron

A

a. the size of the orbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the angular (subshell) quantum number (I) describes

A. the size of the orbital
B. the shape of the orbital
C. the orientation in space of a particular orbital
D. the orientation in space of a particular electron

A

B. the shape of the orbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the magnetic quantum number (m) describes

A. the size of the orbital
B. the shape of the orbital
C. the orientation in space of a particular orbital
D. the orientation in space of a particular electron

A

c. the orientation in space of a particular orbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the lowest principal quantum number (n) for an electron is

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D.3

A

B. 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

determine the values of the subshell quantum number ‘I’ if n=3:

A. -1, 0, +1
B, 0, 1, 2
C. +1/2, -1/2
D. -2, -1, 0, +1, +2

A

B, 0, 1, 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

an electron dot symbol for an element shows the arrangement of dots which indicates the

A. atomic number
B. atomic mass
C. total number of electrons
D. number of electrons in the outer energy level

A

d. number of electrons in the outer energy level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which sublevel can be occupied by a maximum of 10 electrons?

A. s
B. p
C. d
D. f

A

c. d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the electron configuration of a silicon (atomic number 14) atom is

A. [Ne] 3s2 3p4
B. [Ne] 3s2 3p2
C. [Ne] 3s2 2p1
D. [Ne] 3s2 3p5

A

b. [Ne] 3s2 3p2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

the electronic configuration of a sulfur atom ( atomic number 16) atom is

A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
B. 1s1 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2
C. 1s2 2s2 2p4
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4

A

d. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which element is represented by the following electron configuration, 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5

A. Al
B. Cl
C. F
D. no answer is correct

A

b. Cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how many valence electrons are contained in an atom of the element with proton number of 15?

A. 17
B. 5
C. 1
D. 3

A

d. 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how many electrons are there in the valence sphere of an atom of bromine

A. 2
B. 16
C. 14
D. 7

A

d. 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which element has the electron configuration [Ne] 3s2 3p1

A. phosphorus
B. sodium
C. aluminium
D. Boron

A

c. aluminium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which element has the electron configuration [Ne] 3s2 3p2

A. Mg
B. P
C. Ti
D. Si

A

d. Si

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
a ground state of an atom is when A. the total energy of the electrons can not be lowered by transferring one or more electrons to different orbitals B. the total energy of the electrons can be lowered by transferring one electron to a different orbital C. the total energy of an electron can be lowered by transferring one proton to a different orbital D. the total energy of electron can be increased by transferring one proton to a different orbital
a. the total energy of the electrons can not be lowered by transferring one or more electrons to different orbitals
26
an excited state of an atom is when A. the total energy of the electrons can be lowered by transferring one or more electrons to different orbitals B. all electrons are in the lowest possible energy levels C. one electron is in the lowest possible energy level D. the energy pf electrons can be lowered by transferring all protons to a different orbital
a. the total energy of the electrons can be lowered by transferring one or more electrons to different orbitals
27
which element has the largest atomic size according to its position in the periodic table A. H B. Li C. Na D. K
D. K
28
select the most electronegative element among the following A. C B. O C. Cl D. S
c. Cl
29
locate the least electronegative elements in the periodic table A. Right bottom part of the table B. left bottom part of the table C. the region of transition element D. left top part, near hydrogen
b. left bottom part part of the table
30
select the non transition element A. Cd B. Mn C. Cr D. Na
d. Na
31
select the transition element ( d block) A. Cr B. Cl C. Al D. Pb
A. Cr
32
which element belongs to the p2 series of element A. Li B. Si C. S C. Cl
b. Si
33
which element belongs to the p3 series of elements A. B B. Cr C. Au D. As
d. As
34
which element belongs to the p4 series of elements A. Si B. Ti C. Se D. Br
C. Se
35
which of the statements given concerning chemical bonding is false A. Breaking of a chemical bond is an endothermic process B. formation of a chemical bond is an exothermic process C. most atoms bonded together attain lower energy than they posses as individual atoms D. all chemical reactions require a transfer of electrons in forming new bonds
d. all chemical reactions require a transfer of electrons in forming new bonds
36
electronegativity is A. the amount of energy released when an electron is added to an atom B. the charge on an atom in its preferred oxidation state C. the tendency of an atom to attract shared electrons to itself D. the tendency of an atom to repel electrons from itself
C. the tendency of an atom to attract shared electrons to itself
37
the electrons in a nonpolar covalent bond are A. gained by one atom B. lost by one atom C. shared equally between the two atoms D. shared unequally between the two atoms
C. shared equally between the two atoms
38
the bond between hydrogen (electronegativity = 2.2) and chlorine (electronegativity = 3.16) would be A. hydrogen bond B. ionic bond C. polar covalent bond D. Nonpolar covalent bond
c. polar covalent bond
39
select the compound with polar covalent bonds between the atoms A. NaCl B. LiF C. CO D. NaI
C. CO
40
N2 is an example of a molecule with A. a triple bond B. a double bond C. a single bond D. an ionic bond
A. a triple bond
41
the bond between sodium (electronegativity = 0.93) and chlorine ( electronegativity = 3.16) A. metallic B. polar covalent bond C. ionic bond D. nonpolar covalent bond
c. ionic bond
42
which of the following compounds would be expected to have the lowest boiling point A. NaCl B. C3H8 C. C2H5OH D. Ag2Hg3
B. C3H8
43
what type of bond is formed when a highly electronegative element and an electropositive element (electronegativity difference of x=2) form a bond? A. nonpolar covalent bond B. polar covalent C. nonpolar ionic bond D. ionic bond
d. ionic bond
44
select the ionic compound A. BrF3 B. P2O5 C. CO D. NaCl
d. NaCl
45
hydrogen bonding would be seen in a sample of which of the following substances A. C2H5OH B. CH3COOH C. H2O D. all answers are correct
d. all answers are correct
46
which of the following compounds will not form intermolecular hydrogen bonds between the molecules A. H2O B. CH3OH C. C6H6 D. CH3COOH
c. C6H6
47
select the substance with intermolecular hydrogen bonds A. CH4 B. CO2 C. NaH D. H2O
D. H2O
48
which of the following is the compound whose molecules are weakly bonded by forming hydrogen bonds A. CH4 B. CH3CH2OH C. CH3-O-CH3 D. No answer is correct
b. ch3ch2oh
49
in their compounds alkaline earth metals show an oxidation state no greater than A. +1 B. +2 C. -1 D. -2
B. +2
50
which is the oxidation state of alkali metals A. +1 B. +2 C. -1 D. -2
A. +1
51
what is the oxidation state of iron in the compound with the formula Fe2O3 A. III B. IV C. V D. VI
A. III
52
what is the oxidation state of sulfur in the compound with the formula H2SO3 A. II B. III C. IV D. VI
C. IV
53
What is the oxidation state of Mn in the compound with the formula KMnO4 A. III B. V C. VI D. VII
D. VII
54
what is the oxidation state of sulfur in the compound with the formula H2SO4 A. II B. V C. VI D. VII
D. VI
55
the chemical character of K2O is a. acidic b. basic c. amphoteric d. metallic
b. basic
56
the chemical character of SO3 is a. acidic b. basic c. amphoteric d. metallic
a. acidic
57
the chemical character of Al2O3 is A. basic B. amphoteric C. metallic D. nonmetallic
b. amphoteric amphoteric is a molecule that can react as both acids and bases
58
select the amphoteric oxide A. CO2 B. Na2O C. ZnO D. no answer is correct
c. ZnO
59
The chemical character of Na and Ca are A. acidic B. basic C. metallic D. nonmetallic
c. metallic
60
in which group of the periodic table are found with the following trends: -the element with the lowest proton number has the lowest reactivity -all the elements in the group form basic oxides - the density of the elements increase down the group - the melting point of the elements decrease down the group A. I group B. III group C. V group D. VII group
A. I group
61
the chemical character of P is a. basic B. amphoteric C. metallic D. nonmetallic
d. nonmetallic
62
the chemical character of Ca(OH)2 IS a. acidic B. basic C. amphoteric D. metallic
B. basic
63
the chemical character of H2CO3 is A. acidic B. basic C. amphoteric D. metallic
a. acidic
64
the chemical character of Al(OH)3 is A. acidic B. basic C. amphoteric D. metallic
c. amphoteric
65
what is the product of the reaction Na + H2 --> A. base B. hydride C. salt D. acid
b. hydride
66
what is the product of the reaction Na + O2 A. base B. hydride C. oxide D. acid
oxide
67
what is the product of the reaction Na + Cl2 A. base B. hydride C. oxide D. salt
salt
68
what are the products of the reaction Na + H2O--> A. salt and hydrogen B. hydride and base C. basic and acidic oxides D. acid and base
A. salt and hydrogen
69
what are the products of the reaction Zn + CuSO4 --> A. Zinc sulfate and copper B. Zinc oxide and copper oxide C. Zinc oxide, copper oxide and sulfur dioxide D. Zinc oxide, copper oxide and oxygen
a. Zinc sulfate and copper
70
which of the following metals does not react with water to produce hydrogen A. Zn B. Ca C. Na D. K
A. Zn
71
what is the product of the reaction S + O2 --> A. base B. Hydride C. oxide D. acid
c. oxide
72
what is the product of the reaction P + Cl2 -> A. base B. salt C. covalent compound D. acid
c. covalent compound
73
what is the product of the reaction K + Cl2 A. base B. saLT c. covalent compound D. acid
b. salt
74
Na2O reacts with A. K2O B. SO2 C. CaO D. Mg(OH)2
B. SO2
75
Al2O3 reacts with A. HCl B. PbO C. CaCl2 D. Mg
a. HCl
76
CO2 reacts with A. N2O B. SO2 C. CaO D. H2
C. CaO
77
Which of the following compounds should be added to release CO2 from the solution of Na2CO3 A. NaOH B. HCl C. H2O D. KCl
B. HCl
78
NaOH reacts with A. H2O B. HCl C. CaO D. Mg(OH)2
B. HCl
79
H2SO4 reacts with__________. a. O2 b. SO2 c. H2CO3 d. Mg(OH)2
d. Mg(OH)2
80
Al(OH)3 reacts with__________. a. O2 b. H2O c. H2SO4 d. Mg
c. H2SO4
81
A thermal dissociation may proceed with__________. a. NaOH b. SO2 c. CaCO3 d. NaNO2
c. CaCO3
82
Which substance provides an alkaline aqueous solution? a. CH3COONa b. H2S c. HCl d. CO2
a. CH3COONa
83
The formula of the compound named ammonium nitrate is __________. a. (NH4)2NO2 b. (NH4)3NO2 c. NH4NO2 d. NH4NO3
d. NH4NO3
84
The formula of the compound named iron (II) phosphate is __________. a. Fe3PO4 b. Fe2(PO4)3 c. Fe3(PO4)2 d. No answer is correct
c. Fe3(PO4)2
85
The formula of the compound named aluminium sulfate is __________. a. Al2(SO4)3 b. AlSO4 c. Al2(SO3)3 d. AlSO3
a. Al2(SO4)3
86
What is the chemical formula of the compound iron (III) carbonate? a. Fe2CO3 b. FeCO3 c. Fe3(CO3)2 d. Fe2(CO3)3
d. Fe2(CO3)3
87
What is the name of the compound with formula MgSO4? a. Magnesium (II) sulfate b. Magnesium (II) sulfite c. Magnesium (II) sulfide d. Magnesium (III) sulfite
a. Magnesium (II) sulfate
88
The formula of potassium dichromate is __________. a. K2Cr2O7 b. KCr2O7 c. KCr2O5 d. K2Cr2O4
a. K2Cr2O7
89
. In a redox reaction, there must be__________. a. An oxidizing agent and no reducing agent b. A reducing agent and no oxidizing agent c. A reducing agent and an oxidizing agent d. No reducing or oxidizing agent
c. A reducing agent and an oxidizing agent
90
Which statement is correct? a. Oxidation is loss of electrons and reduction is gain of electrons b. Oxidation is gain of electrons and reduction is loss of electrons c. Oxidation is loss of protons and reduction is gain of electrons d. Oxidation is loss of electrons and reduction is gain of protons
a. Oxidation is loss of electrons and reduction is gain of electrons
91
Atoms, ions and molecules that have large affinity for electrons tend to be good __________. a. Oxidizing agents b. Reducing agents c. Electrolytes d. Bases
a. Oxidizing agents
92
Electrons are lost by the__________. a. Reducing agent as it undergoes oxidation b. Reducing agent as it undergoes reduction c. Oxidizing agent as it undergoes oxidation d. Oxidizing agent as it undergoes reduction
a. Reducing agent as it undergoes oxidation
93
Which statement is correct? a. The oxidizing agent is normally in one of its higher possible oxidation states because it will gain electrons and be reduced b. The oxidizing agent is normally in one of its higher possible oxidation states because it will lose electrons and be reduced c. The oxidizing agent is normally in one of its lower possible oxidation states because it will lose electrons and be reduced d. The oxidizing agent is normally in one of its lower possible oxidation states because it will lose electrons and be oxidized
a. The oxidizing agent is normally in one of its higher possible oxidation states because it will gain electrons and be reduced
94
Which statement is correct? a. A reducing agent typically is in one of its lower possible oxidation states and is known as the electron acceptor b. A reducing agent typically is in one of its lower possible oxidation states and is known as the electron donor c. A reducing agent typically is in one of its higher possible oxidation states and is known as the electron acceptor d. A reducing agent typically is in one of its higher possible oxidation states and is known as the electron dono
b
95
In a particular redox reaction, the oxidation state of phosphorus changed from –3 to 0. It may be concluded that phosphorus has __________. a. Lost 3 electrons and was reduced b. Lost 3 electrons and was oxidized c. Gained 3 electrons and was reduced d. Gained 3 electrons and was oxidized
b
96
Select the redox reaction: a. 2KCl + Ba(NO3)2 → BaCl2 + 2KNO3 b. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + Η2Ο c. Mg + H2SO4 → MgSO4 + H2 d. NaOH + HNO3 → H2O + NaNO3
c
97
Select the redox reaction: a. KCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + KNO3 b. CaCl2 → Ca2+ + 2Cl– c. Ba + Cl2 → BaCl2 d. NaOH + HNO3 → H2O + NaNO3
c
98
Oxygen takes the oxidation state –1 in hydrogen peroxide, H2O2. The equation for the decomposition of H2O2 is 2H2O2 → 2 H2O + O2 Which statement about the reaction above is true? a. Oxygen is reduced, and hydrogen is oxidized b. Oxygen is oxidized, and hydrogen is reduced c. Oxygen is both oxidized and reduced d. Hydrogen is both oxidized and reduced
c
99
Which species is losing electrons in the following redox reaction? SnO2 + 4HCl → SnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O a. H b. Cl c. O d. Sn
b
100
.In which of the following unbalanced reactions does chromium undergo oxidation? a. Cr3+ → Cr b. Cr3+ → Cr2+ c. Cr3+ → Cr2O7 2– d. CrO4 2– → Cr2O7
c
101
True solutions are__________. a. Colloidal b. Homogeneous c. Heterogeneous d. Aggregates
b
102
When the temperature increases, the solubility of solids __________. a. Increases b. Decreases c. Doesn’t change d. Changes according to the dynamic equilibrium principles
d
103
Solubility does not depend on__________. a. Nature of substances b. Temperature c. Pressure d. Rate of stirring
d
104
Solution of protein in water is an example of a(an)__________. a. True solution b. Colloidal solution c. Chemically pure substance d. Alloy
b
105
Which of the following is true about an unsaturated solution? a. A solution containing less than the maximum amount of solute that will dissolve under a given set of conditions (more solute can dissolve) b. Solution containing the maximum amount of solute that will dissolve under a given set of pressure and temperature conditions c. A solution that has been prepared at an elevated temperature and then slowly cooled d. It contains more than the usual maximum amount of solution dissolved
a
106
Colloidal solutions are__________. a. Those, in which the size of the particles is 1–100 nm b. Microheterogeneous c. Stable dispersed systems d. All answers are correct
d
107
.What is the name of the major component of a solution? a. Electrolyte b. Solvent c. Ether d. Solute
b
108
Select the weak electrolyte among the following: a. Na2SO4 b. NH4OH c. KOH d. NH4Cl
b
109
When dissolved in water, all of the following compounds dissociate completely except__________. a. NH4Cl b. CH3COOH c. HBr d. KMnO4
b
110
Select one strong hydroxide among the following: a. Fe(OH)3 b. NaOH c. Al(OH)3 d. No answer is correct
b
111
When dissolved in water, all of the following compounds are strong electrolytes except__________. a. H2CO3 b. HNO3 c. HCl d. NaBr
a
112
.Select the strong electrolyte: a. CH3COOH b. NH4OH c. HNO3 d. H2CO3
c
113
.Select the strong acid among the following: a. CH3COOH b. H2CO3 c. NH4OH d. No answer is correct
d
114
.Electrolytic dissociation is a process of __________. a. Decomposition of acid by electric current b. Decomposition of substance to positive and negative ions c. The movement of ions to inversely charged electrodes d. Redox reaction on electrodes
b
115
Consider dissolving ammonia in water. Which species is the conjugate pair of ammonia? a. OH– b. H2O c. H3O+ d. NH4+
d
116
Select the conjugate pair: a. HCOOH/HCOO– b. HCOOH/OH– c. HCOOH/H2O d. HCOOH/H3O+
a
117
Select the conjugate pair: a. NH4+/OH– b. NH3/H3O+ c. H2O/H3O+ d. H2O/NH3
c
118
.The ionization process of weak electrolytes in solution is a__________ process. a. reversible b. non-reversible c. one-way d. two-step
a
119
Of the molecules below, only __________ is nonpolar. a. H2 b. H2O c. NH3 d. HCl
a
120
Select one acid-base conjugate pair among the following: a. HNO3/HNO2 b. H2CO3/CO2 c. HCl/NaOH d. H2O/OH–
d
121
Select one acid-base conjugate pair among the following: a. H3PO4/H2PO4– b. H2CO3/CO2 c. NO3–/NO2– d. H+/OH
a
122
.The pH of an aqueous solution is 4 at T = 25°C. What is the concentration of [H3O+]? a. 0.4 mol.l–1 b. 4 mol.l–1 c. 1x104 mol.l–1 d. 1x10–4 mol.l–1
d
123
.The concentration of OH– in an aqueous solution at T = 25°C is 1x10–3 mol.l–1. What is the concentration of H3O+ ions? a. 1x10–9 mol.l–1 b. 1x10–5 mol.l–1 c. 1x10–14 mol.l–1 d. 1x10–11 mol.l–1
d
124
The concentration of H3O+ in the aqueous solution at T = 25oC is 1x10–3 mol.l–1. What is the pH of this solution? a. 3 b. 1 c. 10 d. 7
a
125
.pH is a measure of __________ concentration in a solution. a. Anion b. Hydrogen ion c. Cation d. Hydroxyl ion
b
126
Which of the following is true for a system at equilibrium? a. The mass of reactants is equal to the mass of products b. Addition of a catalyst changes the equilibrium concentrations c. The concentration of reactants is equal to the concentration of products d. The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
d
127
.Which of the factors below is not a condition necessary for chemical equilibrium? a. A closed system b. A constant temperature c. The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction d. The concentration of the reactant is equal to the concentration of the products
d
128
Consider the following equilibrium: H2O(g) + CO(g)<--> H2(g) + CO2(g) + Q A closed container is initially filled with H2O and CO. As the reaction proceeds towards equilibrium: a. [CO] and [CO2] both increase b. [CO] and [CO2] both decrease c. [CO] increases and [CO2] decreases d. [CO] decreases and [CO2] increases
d
129
.In all systems at equilibrium, the__________. a. Concentration of reactants is less than the concentration of products b. Concentration of reactants and the concentration of products are equal c. Concentration of reactants is greater than the concentration of products d. Concentration of reactants and the concentration of products are constant
d
130
Consider the following equilibrium: 2NH3(g)<--> N2(g) + 3H2(g) A flask is initially filled with NH3. As the system approaches equilibrium, the rate of the forward reaction: a. Increases as the rate of the reverse reaction decreases b. Decreases as the rate of the reverse reaction increases c. Increases as the rate of the reverse reaction increases d. Decreases as the rate of the reverse reaction decreases
b
131
The following reaction: 2SO2(g) + O2(g)<--> 2SO3(g) is exothermic. Which one of the following will not shift the equilibrium to the right? a. Add more O2 b. Adding a catalyst c. Increasing the pressure d. Lowering the temperature
b
132
For the reaction A(s) + B(g) → C(s), the possible rate law is__________. a. Rate = k[A][B] b. Rate = k[A] c. Rate = k[B] d. Rate = k[C]
c
133
Consider the following equilibrium: CO(g) + 2H2(g)<--> CH3OH(g) + Q Which of the factors below would decrease the concentration of CH3OH at equilibrium: a. An addition of CO b. An addition of H2 c. A decrease in the temperature d. An increase in the temperature
d
134
When the temperature of an equilibrium system is increased, the equilibrium always shifts to favor the__________. a. Exothermic reaction b. Endothermic reaction c. Formation of products d. Formation of reactants
b
135
.Why does reaction rate increase as the concentration increases? a. There are more particles, so there are more collisions b. The particles have more energy, so there are more collisions c. The surface area is increased, so there are more collisions d. No answer is correct
a
136
For the reaction A(g) + B(g) → C(g), the possible rate law is__________. a. Rate = k[A] b. Rate = k[A][B] c. Rate = k[B] d. Rate = k[C]
b
137
.A multistep reaction takes place by the following mechanism: A + B → C + D A + C → D + E Which of the species shown above is an intermediate in the reaction? a. A b. B c. C d. D
c
138
.When the reaction H2(g)+I2(g)<--> HI(g) takes place in a sealed container, the rate law is Rate = k[H2][I2]. If one mole of H2 gas is added to the reaction chamber, which of the following will be true: a. The rate of the reaction and the rate constant will increase b. The rate of the reaction and the rate constant will not change c. The rate of the reaction will increase and the rate constant will decrease d. The rate of the reaction will increase and the rate constant will not change
d
139
.When the reaction A + B → C takes place, the rate law is Rate = k[A]. If the temperature of the reaction chamber is increased, which of the following would be true? a. The rate of reaction and the rate constant will increase b. The rate of reaction and the rate constant will not change c. The rate of reaction will increase and the rate constant will decrease d. The rate of reaction will increase and the rate of constant will not change
a
140
.A fast reaction should have __________. a. A high activation energy b. A catalyst present c. A large equilibrium constant d. A low activation energy
d
141
Why does reaction rate increase as the temperature increases? a. Because molecules begin to collide at higher temperatures b. Because molecules have higher kinetic energy and collide more often c. Because there are more molecules at higher temperatures, so they collide more d. No answer is correct
b
142
Which of these factors will not increase the rate of a chemical reaction? a. Increasing the temperature of the reaction b. Increasing the concentration of the products c. Increasing the concentration of the reactants d. Adding a positive catalyst
b
143
What does a catalyst do? a. Speeds up or slow down a reaction and is not used up in the reaction b. Slows down a reaction and is not used up in the reaction c. Speeds up or slow down a reaction and is used up in the reaction d. Slows down a reaction and is used up in the reaction
a
144
.An endothermic reaction is__________. a. One that releases energy b. One that absorbs energy c. Reaction of oxidation d. Combustion
b
145
The following reaction is an example of V2O5 2SO2 + O2<--> 2SO3 a. Homogeneous catalysis b. Heterogeneous catalysis c. Enzyme catalysis d. Autocatalysis s2O
b
146
Two optical isomers differ in__________. a. Melting point and boiling point b. Molecular mass c. Direction of optical rotation d. Constitution
c
147
Which of the following compounds can form two optical isomers? a. NH2- CH2- COOH b.NH2- CH- COOH l CH3 c.NH2 -CH2 l CH3 d. CH3 -CH2 -COOH
b
148
.Consider the following: I. CH3CH2CH=CHCH2CH3 II. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH=CH2 III. CH3CH=CHCH2CH2CH3 IV. CH2=CHCH2CH2CH2CH3 Which two structures represent the same compound: a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. II and IV
d
149
CH3CH2OCH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH2OH are examples of__________. a. Structural isomers b. Resonance structures c. Functional isomers d. Conformational isomers
c
150
Cis–trans isomerism is possible only in the case of: a. CH2=CBr2 b. CH2=CHBr c. Br2C=CHBr d. BrCH=CHBr
d
151
.Enantiomers are__________. a. Constitutional isomers b. Resonance structures c. Functional isomers d. Non-superimposable mirror images
d
152
Find the correct systematic name for the given hydrocarbon: CH3 CH3 l l CH3- C- CH2- CH2- CH l l CH3 CH3 a. 2,2,5,5-tetramethylpentane b. 2,2-dimethyl-1-isopropylpropane c. 1,1,1,3-tetramethylbutane d. 2,2,5-trimethylhexane
d
153
The systematic name for acetone is __________. a. Propanone b. Propanal c. Propanediol d. Propanoic acid
a
154
The given compound is a __________. H3C- NH l CH3 a. Primary amine b. Secondary amine c. Tertiary amine d. Quaternary amine
b
155
.Select the name of the hydrocarbon: a. Styrene b. Phenanthrene c. Naphtalene d. Dibenzene
c
156
.Find the tertiary alcohol: a. 2-methylhexane-2-ol b. Pentane-3-ol c. Benzyl alcohol d. Propan-1-ol
a
157
Select the name of (CH3)2NH: a. Diethylamine b. Dimethylamine c. Trimethylamine d. No answer is correct
b
158
What is the number of carbon atoms in benzyl alcohol? a. 7 b. 8 c. 6 d. 9
a
159
Which of the following molecular formulas is the correct molecular formula of diethyl ether? a. C4H10O b. C4H10O2 c. C4H9O d. C4H12O
a
160
Select the group that is named vinyl: a. CH2==CH--- b. --CH2--- CH2--- c. CH2 ---CH2---- d. No answer is correct
a
161
Which of the following is a methylene group? a. A CH4 group b. A CH3 group c. A CH2 group d. A CH group
c
162
Which of the following pairs of alkanes are homologues? a. 2,3-dimethylbutane and 2,2-dimethylbutane b. n-hexane and 3-methylpentane c. 2,2-dimethylpropane and 2-methylbutane d. Methane and ethane
d
163
select the correct structure of toluene among the following a) six carbon hexagon with three double bonds and 1,2 two methyl groups b) six carbon hexagon with three double bonds and 1,3 methyl groups C) six carbon hexagon with three double bonds and one methyl group D) six carbon hexagon with three double bonds and one methyl group and one hydroxyl group
c
164
At room temperature in gaseous state are the following alkanes: a. Pentane, hexane, heptane b. Methane, ethane, propane c. Octadecane, nonadecane, icosane d. All alkanes are liquid at room temperature
B
165
Which statement about alkanes is false: a. Alkanes are the most chemically reactive class of organic compounds b. Typical reaction for alkanes is substitution reaction c. When hydrocarbons are being burnt the products are carbon dioxide and water d. At room temperature methane is a gas
A
166
The reaction of propane with bromine is __________. a. A substitution reaction b. An addition reaction c. An elimination reaction d. A combustion reaction
A
167
The IUPAC name of this compound is __________. CH2- CH3 l CH3-C -CH2- CH2-CH3 l CH3 a. 2-ethyl-2-methylpentane b. 2-ethyl-3-methylhexane c. 2-methyl-3-ethylpentane d. 3,3-dimethylhexane
D
168
.How many structural isomers of heptane exist? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
D
169
The general formula of an alkane is __________. a. C2nH2n+2 b. CnH2n c. CnH2n+2 d. CnH2n-2
C
170
Which of the following compounds will be formed by the hydrogenation of ethene? a. Formic acid b. Acetone c. Acetaldehyde d. Ethane
d
171
Which of the following compounds will be formed by the hydration of ethene? a. Ethanol b. Ethyne c. Ethanal d. Ethane
a
172
Alkenes always contain a __________. a. C=C bond b. C≡C bond c. C–C bond d. C=H bond
a
173
Alkenes have the general formula __________. a. CnH2n b. CnH2n-2 c. CnHn d. C2nHn
a
174
What is the name of the compound below? CH3- CH- CH2 -C -CH2 l l CH3 CH3 a. 2,4-dimethylbutene b. 2,5-dimethylpentane c. 2,4-dimethyl-1-pentene d. 2,4-dimethyl-4-pentene
c
175
The addition of HBr to 1-butene produces __________. a. A mixture of 1-bromobutane (major product) and 2-bromobutane (minor product) b. A mixture of 2-bromobutane (major product) and 1-bromobutane (minor product) c. Only 2-dibromobutane d. Only 1-dibromobutane
b
176
What is the product of the polymerization of propene? a. Polypropylene b. Polyvinyl c. Nylon 66 d. PTFE
a
177
.Propene is an example of __________. a. An alkene b. An alkyne c. An alkane d. An aldehyde
a
178
The substance with the molecular formula C6H12 is called __________. a. Hexane b. Hexene c. Hexol d. Hexenoic acid
b
179
.Akenes could be prepared from __________. a. Halogen substitution of alkanes b. Dehydrogenation of alcohols c. Dehydration of alcohols d. Esterification of carboxylic acids
c
180
4.1,2-dibromoethane could be obtained by a reaction between __________. a. Ethene and bromine b. Ethene and hydrogen bromide c. Ethene and water d. Ethene and hydrogen
a
181
Which of the statements below is true? a. C6H12 and C7H14 are isomers b. Alkenes are less reactive with electrophilic reagents than alkynes c. C7H16 contains a double bond d. Dehydration is a chemical reaction that involves the loss of water
d
182
.How many position isomers with the molecular formula C4H8 are possible? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
b
183
.How many geometric isomers with the molecular formula CHCl=CHCl are possible? a. One b. Two c. Three d. No answer is correct
b
184
Which of the following reactions cannot occur? a. Alkene + HBr → bromoalkane b. Alkene + H2 → alkane c. Alkene + H2O → alcohol d. Alkane + HCl → chloroalkane
d
185
The IUPAC name of acetylene is __________. a. Ethylene b. Ethane c. Ethyne d. Ethene
c
186
.The carbon atoms in the triple bond of alkynes are __________. a. sp hybridized b. sp2 hybridized c. sp3 hybridized d. No answer is correct
a
187
1.Alkynes are hydrocarbons which contain __________. a. C=C bonds b. C≡C bonds c. C–H bonds d. C≡H bonds
b
188
The compound below belongs to the group of __________. H l H-C-(triple bond)-C -C-H l H a. Alkynes b. Alkenes c. Alkanes d. Olefins
a
189
.Aromatic hydrocarbons __________. a. Have sp2 hybridized carbon atoms b. Have ring structures c. Have delocalized π electrons d. All answers are correct
d
190
.All of the following are common reactions of benzene except __________. a. Sulfonation b. Halogenation c. Nitration d. Hydration
d
191
.On the basis of the number of carbon-hydrogen bonds, all of the following families of compounds can be considered unsaturated except __________. a. Alkanes b. Alkenes c. Arenes d. Alkynes
a
192
.The major product from the reaction of benzene with the nitrating mixture is __________. a. Nitrobenzene b. 1,2-dinitrobenzene c. p-nitrobenzene d. No answer is correct
a
193
What are the products from the complete combustion of benzene? a. Carbon dioxide + hydrogen gas b. Hydrogen sulphide + sulphur dioxide c. Carbon dioxide and water d. Carbon oxide and carbon
c
194
Which of the following is not an arene? a. Toluene b. Benzene c. Naphthalene d. Cyclohexene
d
195
.The compound prepared by the reaction of ethanol dehydrogenation has the common name: a. Ethylene glycol b. Formaldehyde c. Acetone d. Acetaldehyde
d
196
.Find the secondary alcohol: a. Benzyl alcohol b. Propan-1-ol c. 2-methyl hexane -2-ol d. Pentane-3-ol
d
197
Which of the following is an alcohol? a. C2H5CHO b. C2H5OH c. C2H5OC2H5 d. C2H5COOH
b
198
Find the compound containing primary alcohol group: a. Pentan-1-ol b. Cyclopentanol c. 3-methyl-pentan-3-ol d. 3-methyl-pentan-2-ol
a
199
.Compounds with the hydroxyl (OH) group attached to an aliphatic carbon atom are known as __________. a. Alcohols b. Phenols c. Alkyl halides d. Aldehydes
a
200
.Which of the following classes of organic compounds are very likely to form hydrogen bonds? a. Alkanes b. Ethers c. Alkenes d. Alcohols
d
201
The alcohol which contains only one carbon atom and has the common name “wood alcohol” is __________. a. Methanol b. Methanal c. Methanoic acid d. Methane
a
202
The common name of CH3CH2OH is __________. a. Wood alcohol b. Antifreeze c. Ethyl alcohol d. Glycerol
c
203
What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown? CH3-CH -CH2 -CH -CH3 l l CH3 OH a. 2,2-dimethyl-4-butanol b. 4-methyl-2-pentanol c. 2-methyl-4-pentanol d. 2-isohexanol
b
204
Compounds of the type R3C-OH are referred to as __________. a. Secondary alcohols b. Primary alcohols c. Quaternary alcohols d. Tertiary alcohols
d
205
Compounds of the type R2CH-OH are referred to as __________. a. Quaternary alcohols b. Tertiary alcohols c. Primary alcohols d. Secondary alcohols
d
206
Compounds of the type RCH2-OH are referred to as __________. a. Secondary alcohols b. Tertiary alcohols c. Quaternary alcohols d. Primary alcohols
d
207
.How many structural isomers of the alcohol with the formula C4H10O exist? a. 3 b. 4 c. 2 d. 5
b
208
.All of the following properties of alcohols are affected by hydrogen bonding except __________. a. Boiling point b. Molecular weight c. Miscibility with water d. Ability to dissolve polar substances
b
209
The product of the dehydration of an alcohol is __________. a. An alkane b. An alkene c. An ester d. An aldehyde
b
210
Oxidation of the alcohol group results in the formation of __________. a. An aromatic ring b. An alkyl group c. A carbonyl group d. An ether group
c
211
.Oxidation of R2CH-OH will produce __________. a. An aldehyde b. A carboxylic acid c. A ketone d. No reaction
c
212
Oxidation of a tertiary alcohol with acidified potassium dichromate will produce __________. a. A ketone b. An alkene c. A carboxylic acid d. No reaction
d
213
.Compounds with the –OH group attached to an aromatic ring are known as __________. a. Alcohols b. Ethers c. Aldehydes d. Phenols
d
214
.Which of the following formulas represents a polyalcohol? a. С3Н5(ОН)3 b. С3Н7ОН c. С6Н5ОН d. No answer is correct
a
215
To which of the following classes of organic compounds does acetone belong? a. Alcohols b. Aldehydes c. Carboxylic acids d. Ketone
d
216
.Acetaldehyde has lower boiling point than ethanol because __________. a. Acetaldehyde has higher molecular weight b. Acetaldehyde is more polar than ethanol c. Acetaldehyde does not form hydrogen bonds d. No answer is correct
c
217
.Acetone is prepared by the oxidation of __________. a. Propane b. Propanoic acid c. Propan-1-ol d. Propan-2-ol
d
218
Which of the following compounds will be formed by the hydrogenation of butanal? a. 2- butanol b. Butanoic acid c. 1-butanol d. Butane
c
219
Which statement about the carbonyl group is not true? a. The three atoms or groups of atoms attached to the carbonyl carbon form a nonplanar geometry b. The carbonyl carbon is sp2 hybridized c. The bond angles among the three atoms or groups of atoms attached to the carbonyl carbon are approximately 120° d. No answer is correct
a
220
.Which statement about the carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones is true? I. It can attract nucleophiles II. It can attract electrophiles III. It tends to undergo addition reactions IV. It tends to undergo substitution reactions a. I, III and IV b. III and IV c. II and IV d. I, II and III
d
221
.Indicate the compound with the highest oxidation number of the carbon atom: a. СH4 b. СH3ОН c. HCHO d. HCOOH
d
222
Which statement about the salts of the carboxylic acids is true? a. They are products of a neutralization reaction b. They produce carboxylate ions in solution c. The salts have increased solubility in water compared to the acid d. All answers are correc
d
223
.Which of the following reactions is a standard method of synthesizing carboxylic acids? a. Oxidation of primary alcohols b. Oxidation of aldehydes c. Hydrolysis of nitriles d. All answers are correct
d
224
.Which of the following acids is most soluble in water? a. Myristic acid b. Methanoic acid c. Benzoic acid d. Butanoic acid
b
225
.Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points compared to aldehydes of similar molar masses, because __________. a. They form hydrogen bonds b. They are hydrophobic c. They are more acidic d. They contain more oxygen atoms
a
226
.An organic compound is soluble in water, forms hydrogen bonds between its molecules, and reacts with sodium hydrogencarbonate to release carbon dioxide bubbles. The compound is almost certainly __________. a. Ethane b. Ethanoic acid c. Ethanal d. Ethanol
b
227
.This amino acid is called __________. NH2 CH COOH CH3 a. Glycine b. Alanine c. Leucine d. Serine
b
228
What is the name of the following amino acid? NH2 CH COOH CH2 OH a. Serine b. Alanine c. Threonine d. Cysteine
a
229
.Which of the following amino acids contains sulfur in its structure? a. Serine b. Glycine c. Cysteine d. No answer is correct
c
230
How many carbon atoms are there in the amino acid with the common name glycine? a. 5 b. 6 c. 2 d. 4
c
231
How many carbon atoms are there in the amino acid with the common name serine? a. 5 b. 6 c. 3 d. 4
c
232
.Excluding the amino acid glycine, all other amino acids found within human proteins are __________. a. essential b. neutral at physiological pH c. of the L configuration d. optically inactive
c
233
.Carbohydrates contain the functional group __________. a. Of an aldehyde b. Of a ketone c. Hydroxyl groups d. All answers are correct
d
234
.Which of the following is an example of a hexose? a. Sucrose b. Lactose c. Starch d. Glucose
d
235
.Fehling’s solution is used to test the presence of __________. a. Sucrose b. Glucose c. Propan-1-ol d. Butan-2-one
b
236
Which of the following substances is a pentose? a. Fructose b. Glucose c. Sucrose d. No answer is correct
d
237