murder Flashcards

(23 cards)

1
Q

What is Lord Coke’s definition of unlawful killing?

A

Unlawfully killing of a reasonable creature in being under the king’s peace with malice aforethought, express or implied.

This definition includes both express and implied malice.

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2
Q

What is the modern definition of unlawful killing?

A

Unlawfully killing with malice aforethought.

This definition simplifies the original definition while retaining the core concept of malice.

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3
Q

What does the term ‘AR’ stand for in the context of unlawful killing?

A

Actus Reus.

It refers to the physical act of committing a crime.

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4
Q

How can unlawful killing be committed according to AR?

A

By an act or omission.

This means that both doing something and failing to act can result in unlawful killing.

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5
Q

What case established that an omission can amount to actus reus?

A

R v Gibbons and Proctor.

This case highlights the duty to act in certain situations.

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6
Q

What does the case Martin illustrate about unlawful means?

A

Unlawful means unnecessary.

This indicates that the means of committing the unlawful act are not always relevant.

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7
Q

What does AG Ref (3 of 1994) establish about the beginning of life?

A

Life begins at birth.

This legal precedent is crucial in determining the status of a fetus.

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8
Q

What does Malcherek’s case illustrate about the end of life?

A

Life ends at brain death.

This case helps define the legal parameters of death.

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9
Q

What does DPP v Clegg indicate about the king’s peace?

A

A country is not under the King’s peace during war.

This affects the application of certain legal definitions.

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10
Q

In Airedale NHS Trust v Bland, when can life treatment be removed?

A

If a patient is in a persistent vegetative state and it’s in the patient’s best interest.

This case addresses ethical considerations in medical treatment.

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11
Q

What is the factual causation test in unlawful killing?

A

But for test (R v Pagett).

This test determines if the result would have occurred but for the defendant’s actions.

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12
Q

What is the legal causation test in unlawful killing?

A

Operative and Substantial test (R v Smith).

This test assesses whether the defendant’s actions were a substantial cause of the outcome.

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13
Q

Under what circumstances can a doctor’s actions break the chain of causation?

A

If they are unreasonable, unforeseeable, and palpably wrong (Jordan).

This highlights the limits of medical intervention in causation.

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14
Q

What can break the chain of causation according to R v Pagett?

A

Acts of a third party.

This case illustrates how external actions can impact legal responsibility.

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15
Q

What can break the chain of causation according to R v Williams?

A

Acts of the victim.

This case emphasizes the victim’s role in the outcome.

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16
Q

What external event can break the chain of causation?

A

Act of God, e.g., tornado.

Natural disasters can absolve liability in certain scenarios.

17
Q

What does the Thin Skull rule (R v Blaue) state?

A

The defendant must take the victim as they find them.

This rule holds defendants responsible for the full extent of their actions irrespective of victim vulnerabilities.

18
Q

What is express malice with direct intention?

A

D aims to kill (R v Mohan).

This defines a clear intent to cause death.

19
Q

What is express malice with indirect intention?

A

D realizes death is virtually certain (R v Woolin).

This indicates awareness of the consequences of one’s actions.

20
Q

What is implied malice with direct intention?

A

D aims to cause GBH (Vickers).

GBH refers to grievous bodily harm.

21
Q

What is implied malice with indirect intention?

A

D realizes GBH is virtually certain.

This shows an understanding that serious harm will likely result from their actions.

22
Q

Fill in the blank: The factual causation test is known as the _______.

A

But for test.

This test is essential for establishing causation in unlawful killing cases.

23
Q

Fill in the blank: The legal causation test is known as the _______.

A

Operative and Substantial test.

This test evaluates the significance of the defendant’s actions in the outcome.