Muscle and Bone Flashcards

1
Q

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

A
  • X-linked disorder caused by mutations leading to non-functional dystrophin protein–responsible for translation of force between muscle and surrounding connective tissue.
  • occurs almost entirely in male children
  • weakness of proximal muscles, starting at age 1, then progressing to immobilization. death in early teens due to pneumonia from respiratory muscle weakness.
  • histo–varying fiber size, necrosis of individual muscle fibers, replacement of dead fibers with fibrofatty tissue.

dystrophin gene is located on short arm of X chromosome

–will show compensatory hypertrophy of distal sites (calf) followed by pseudohypertrophy, due to increased fibrous/fatty tissue deposition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Becker Muscular Dystrophy

A

similar to Duchennes, but much more rare and much less severe.

dystrophin is not totally absent, just a truncated or mishaped protein takes the normal ones place

sx onset later on in life, much less severe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dermatomyositis

A
  • classically presents with lilac heliotrope rash with periorbital edema, along with dusky red patches (Grotton’s lesions) on extensor surfaces.
  • Proximal muscle weakness occurs first, loss of fine motor control only occurs in advanced stages of dz.
  • inflammatory infiltrates (b cells) predominantly seen in the small blood vessels in perimysial CT. Atrophic fibers seen adjacent to theses affected blood vessels.
  • seen in children and in adults–children onset of sx also seen with GI upset and abdominal pain.
  • pt will show elevated ESR, CK, and positive ANA. (anti- Jo-1 diagnostic of DM)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma

A
  • most common soft tissue sarcoma in children
  • embryonal is the most common variant, generally occurring at the head and neck, and genitourinary tract (usually devoid of skeletal muscle)
  • histo–rhabdomyoblast is the diagnostic cell–large cell with abundant pink cytoplasm and eccentric nucleus is sea of undifferentiated embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Osteoporosis

A
  • decrease in bone mass
  • exact mechanism unknown, either impaired synthesis of bone, or increased resorption of bone matrix protein.
  • results in bone structures inadequate for weight bearing and pathological fractures. most common fractures in vertebrae, hip, femoral neck.
  • serum calcium, phosphate and PTH are usually normal.

histo– thinned cortices and trabeculae, widened Haversian canals

  • estrogen inhibits osteoclastogenesis, so postmenopausal women will see an increase in bone loss.
  • increased expression of RANK and RANKL– leads to osteoblastic activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

primary ( noninflammatory) degenerative joint disease characterized by progressive loss of the articular cartilage, followed by thickening of subchondral bone, osteophyte formation, and inflammation of the joint space.

  • generalized increase in bone density at affected joints due to subchondral sclerosis and cyst formation from increased pressure on bone.
  • Heberdon’s and Bouchard’s nodes seen at PIP and DIP
  • fractured osteophytes can roll around in joints–(joint mice)

AKA “wear and tear” arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Osteosarcoma

A
  • most common primary bone tumor with two age peaks: before 20 years and the elderly(usually with some other pathology).
  • histologically will see tumor cells making osteoid. cells will show mutation of rb and p53 genes
  • lytic mass that will show codman’s triangle on xray after periosteal eruption==> will also cause pain. will most commonly be seen in the metaphyses of long bones (tib/fem)
  • common metastasis sites to the lungs and other bones (very malignant)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Paget’s Disease

A
  • associated with disorganized bone metabolism with alternating and overactivity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts. will show “mosaic” pattern to bone due to alternating blast/clast activity– predominance of woven “new” bone.
  • marked serum alkalin phosphatase (marks Ob activity), normal Ca, and Phos.
  • bones are thicker, but lack strength due to disorganization
  • can lead to osteosarcoma
  • start out with osteolytic stage, then mixed blast/clast activity, followed by sclerotic stage
  • Leontiasis–cranium involved, leads to difficulty holding head up and increased head size.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chondrosarcoma

A

malignant cartilaginous tumor, 2nd most common primary bone neoplasm.

  • men 30-60 years old, characteristic sites include pelvis, spine or scapula, ribs, axial skeleton
  • histo– disorganized mass of chondrocytes making hyaline or myxoid cartilage, with more than one cell pre lacuna. tumors are gelatinous and lobulated, filled with neoplastic chondrocytes
  • generally grow slowly, with occasional mets to lung, bone.
  • grading directly correlates with prognosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ewing’s Sarcoma

A

“small blue cell” tumor, commonly found in the diaphysis of long bones, peak incidence in boys under age 15

  • characterized by a t(11;22) translocation that leads to overproduction of some gene product. (same as PNET)
  • small blue cells with scant cytoplasm, reactive bone formation will give an onion-skin appearance.
  • common early mets to lung, other bones, but responds well to chemo/surgery/radiation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Giant Cell Tumor

A

“osteoclastoma”

  • proliferation of long spindle cells intermingled with large, multinucleated giant cells resembling osteoclasts. commonly found in the epiphysis of long bones (knee)
  • peak incidence age 20-40, women>men
  • benign, but locally aggressive tumor.
  • bone changes present similar to those of hyperparathyroidism, so need serum calcium and PTH. (can be confused with brown tumor of bone from HPT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Osteoid Osteoma

A

benign bone tumor of osteoblasts that produce osteoid.

  • painful lesions usually found in teenagers or 20s. If lesion is larger than 2 cm, it is called an osteoblastoma.
  • Obs secrete PGE2 at night, causing nocturnal pain, that is made better by aspirin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A
  • 4 types, type 2 fatal in utero/perinatal, type 1 will have normal outcome
  • brittle bone disease, caused by improper type 1 collagen
  • blue sclera, prone to fracture, hearing loss, dental abnormalities– propensity for fractures clinically mistaken for child abuse.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Osteopetrosis

A

“marble bone disease” problem with resorption/sclerosis

-radiographic–“Erlenmeyer Flask” disorder– bone is larger at the distal end, very hard but brittle, prone to fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Avascular Necrosis

A

most often caused by some type of ishemia, will lead to wedge-shaped infarct

-specifically problematic when area of is in articular surface beneath the ccartilage–> problems with weight bearing, cartilage breakdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly