Mutations Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

Explain why most mutations on the third position of a codon results in a silent mutation

A
  • Multiple codons can code for the same amino acid
  • Change in the third position on codon would in most cases still code for the same amino acid e.g. GUG -> GUA would be a silent mutation as they both code for Valine
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2
Q

Name the 4 types of mutations that may affect the codons coding for amino acids

A
  • Missense
  • Nonsense
  • Silent
  • Frameshift
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3
Q

What is meant by a MISSENSE mutation?

A

Single base change that results in a substitution of amino acids e.g. GGC -> TGC substitutes Gly -> Cys

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4
Q

What is meant by a NONSENSE mutation?

A

Single base mutation that results in a codon coding for an amino acid becoming a stop codon e.g. GGA -> TGA substitutes Gly -> STOP

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5
Q

What is meant by a SILENT mutation?

A

Single base mutation that does not result in an amino acid change e.g. GUG -> GUA still codes for VALINE

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6
Q

Define a FRAMESHIFT mutation and state the consequences

A
  • Base insertion or deletion that results in the alteration of the mRNA reading frame
  • mRNA may be destroyed or code for a different protein
  • Insertions, deletions or splice site mutations
  • Creation of a PREMATURE TERMINATION CODON
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7
Q

What are the consequences of a splice site mutation?

A
  • Results in the corresponding EXON being cut out of the reading frame
  • EXON would not be coded for
  • Mature mRNA reading frame would be different (mRNA may be degraded)
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8
Q

Explain how a missense mutation may NOT have a great effect on the overall protein structure and function

A
  • Amino acid substitution results in an amino acid change to one of a similar chemical nature
  • For example GTN -> GCN would result in an amino acid change of Val -> Ala which are both non polar and hydrophobic
  • Resulting protein will be very similar
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9
Q

What is the difference between a transition and a transversion?

A
  • TRANSITION is a base change to a base of the same type e.g. purine —> purine
  • TRANSVERSION is a base change to a base of a different kind e.g. purine —> pyrimidine
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10
Q

Describe how a single base mutation can be detected using various genetic tests

A
  • PCR amplification of DNA fragment
  • Hybridisation with ALLELE SPECIFIC OLIGONUCLEOTIDE
  • DNA sequencing
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11
Q

Explain when you would use an allele-specific PCR method to investigate a mutation

A
  • For known-disease causing mutations
  • Two different allele specific probes have one common primer
  • Primer is perfectly complementary to ONE of the probes (one will bind less tightly as it is the same apart from a single base)
  • This can be either the probe complementary to the normal gene or the probe complementary to the mutated gene
  • PCR primer will only amplify if the allele specific probe matches perfectly to the primer
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12
Q

When would you use Southern blotting over allele specific PCR when investigating a mutation?

A
  • With partial gene inversions the gross organisation needs to be investigated
  • Southern blotting allows investigation of an individual gene in a background of all other genes
  • Analysis of larger segments with or around the gene
  • Can be used to analyse triplet repeat/deletion disorders and resulting fragments may be of different sizes
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13
Q

What is the most common base pair transition in the human genome?

A

C to T

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14
Q

Explain why the genetic code can be described as both degenerate and unambiguous

A

Each codon codes for one specific amino acid (ambiguous) but each amino acid can be coded for by multiple codons (degenerate)

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15
Q

How would a deletion of 3bp affect the reading frame of the mRNA strand?

A
  • Shorter mRNA strand produced
  • Reading frame would remain intact
  • Would result in loss of amino acid therefore a shorter protein
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16
Q

Name 3 occurrences which can result in base changes of DNA

A
  • Sequence changes during DNA replication
  • Chemical induced mutations
  • Radiation exposure
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17
Q

What 2 spontaneous occurrences can cause base changes during DNA replication?

A
  • Tautomeric shift

- DNA strand slippage

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18
Q

Describe how tautomeric shift can result in a base change of DNA

A
  • Proton briefly changes position on base forming a rare form which has different H bonding properties
  • Rare tautomeric forms cause C to bond with A and T to bond with G
  • DNA polymerase reads base in tautomeric form and bonds an incorrect base into the new strand
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19
Q

Describe how DNA slippage can result in an altered reading frame of the new strand

A
  • Slippage (looping out) of newly synthesised strand results in ADDITION of a single base to the new strand
  • Slippage (looping out) of template strand results in OMISSION of a single base to the new strand
20
Q

Name 2 chemicals that can cause base mutations in DNA and state their methods

A
  • NITROUS ACID replaces amino acid group with a keto group (C->U, A->H and G->X)
  • ETHYL METHANE SULPHONATE (EMS) causes removal of purine rings (apurinic sites can pair with ANY BASE)
21
Q

What 2 external factors may induce a mutation?

A
  • Chemicals

- Radiation

22
Q

What is the difference between an oncogene and a proto-oncogene?

A

Oncogene is a MUTATED form of a proto-oncogene that causes the cells to proliferate (CANCER)

22
Q

Why do single base mutations in the 3rd position of a codon not usually result in an amino acid change?

A
  • SILENT MUTATIONS
  • One amino acid can be coded for by multiple codons, which normally differ in the 3rd position e.g. GU-X can code for Valine where X can be any base
23
Q

What is meant by NONSENSE MEDIATED DECAY?

A
  • mRNAs which contain premature termination codons are destroyed before being translated
  • Results in less protein being produced
24
What is the main action of IQ?
Disrupts the packing of DNA bases and causes mostly SINGLE BASE DELETIONS
25
Name 3 environmental causes of ionising radiation
- SOLAR (uv light) - Radon gas (granite) - X Rays - NUCLEAR POWER PLANTS
26
What is the action of UVA, UVB and UVC forms of UV light?
- UVA and UVB both destroy vitamin A in skin - UVB in small amounts leads to production of vitamin D in skin, however overexposure can lead to sunburn and SKIN CANCER - ALL FORMS OF UV LIGHT DAMAGE COLLAGEN IN SKIN - leads to ageing
27
What is the effect of UV light on DNA?
- THYMINE DIMER FORMATION - Can cause adjacent thymines to base pair together - Usually resolved spontaneously
28
How does DNA polymerase repair DNA?
- PROOF READING | - Detects mispaired 3' bases in the new strand and corrects them 99% of the time
29
What two methods other than proof reading can be used to repair DNA?
- Nucleotide mismatch repair | - Excision repair
30
How can chemically damaged DNA be repaired?
- EXCISION REPAIR | - Removal of a damaged patch of DNA and replacement by polymerase enzyme
31
Describe how nucleotide mismatch repair occurs
Enzymes detect mismatched bases in newly synthesised strand and replace them, forming a new PATCH of DNA
32
What is the consequence of not repairing mutations?
CANCER
33
Explain the characteristics formed by tumour cells as a result of natural selection and evolution
- Divide independently of external growth - Ignore external anti-growth signals - Avoid APOPTOSIS - Divide indefinitely without senescence - STIMULATE SUSTAINED ANGIOGENESIS - Invade tissues and establish secondary tumours
34
What is a retrovirus?
Viruses that contain genes that are able to transform host cells into a CANCEROUS PHENOTYPE
35
How can proto-oncogenes be activated?
Specific AMINO ACID SUBSTITUTIONS
36
How is the cancer gene inherited?
- HOMOZYGOSITY | - Both mutant alleles must be present in order for cancer to occur
37
Give 4 examples of how HOMOZYGOSITY can occur
- Loss of wild type of allele - MITOTIC RECOMBINATION - Deletion of normal allele - Point mutation of normal allele
38
Why are you more likely to develop cancer if it is inherited rather than sporadic?
- If inherited you already have 1 mutant allele (heterozygous) so only 1 other mutation has to occur in the homozygous allele for it to be cancerous - If sporadic 1 allele becomes mutated in the normal cell, producing a heterozygous. It is unlikely that the same mutation would happen on the other allele, but not impossible, therefore is less likely to be cancerous
39
What is single strand conformational polymorphism (SSCP)?
- Denaturing of dsDNA into ssDNA - ssDNA fold and form single stranded complexes (SNAP COOL) - Allows sequences to be distinguished via gel electrophoresis
40
Give 3 ways in which foetal DNA can be obtained to test for pre-natal diagnosis of some diseases
- Amniocentesis - Chorionic villus biopsy - Foetal DNA from maternal blood
41
Describe the method of amniocentesis
- Needle inserted into amniotic sac and amniotic fluid is extracted - Performed at 15-20 weeks of gestation
42
Describe the method of chorionic villus biopsy
- Sample of tissue taken from the chorionic villus of the placenta - Performed at 10-13 weeks
43
Explain why chorionic villus biopsy method for extracting foetal DNA has a higher risk of miscarriage than amniocentesis
Performed earlier on in the pregnancy, so fetus is less developed, therefore more vulnerable to damage
44
What is MLPA used for?
- Duplication of exons | - Counts the copy number of many exons in parallel
45
What is SSCP used to test for?
Can IDENTIFY THE MUTATED REGION OF A GENE as different complexes of DNA are formed during SNAP COOL which move at different speeds in gel electrophoresis