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A320 > My A320 gen refresher > Flashcards

My A320 gen refresher Flashcards

1
Q

What does IRS IN ALIGN mean?

A

Excessive motion detected or mismatch between the flight crew entered latitude and the IRS computed latitude

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2
Q

When do you have to aurally ident a tuned Navaid?

A

If it is manually tuned on an RMP or the frequency is entered on the MCDU

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3
Q

After an IRS alignment or at takeoff, what is the EPU set to?

A

0.2nm [DSC-22-20-20-20]

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4
Q

When GPS primary is active, does the FM position update at take off?

A

No. The FM position update is inhibited when GPS PRIMARY is active. If GPS not primary, the FM position is
updated to the runway threshold at takeoff and corrected by the take off shift when entered by the flight crew.

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5
Q

Are there any restrictions affecting take off from a wet, dry or contaminated runway with a PADD?

A

Dispatch with up to two PADDs permitted on dry, wet or contaminated runways. Only ACARS, WEB or SMS RTOW
may be used with a PADD. [PER-TOF-ACA]

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6
Q

Can you follow standard missed approach during go-around with 2 engines but over MLW?

A

Yes. [PER-GOA-GEN]

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7
Q

Name 4 VOR approach considerations?

A

VOR location relative to the runway
FAT offset
MAPT location
Use of TRK/FPA

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8
Q

What does “Reset IRS to NAV” mean on MCDU?

A

The system has an initial position for IRS alignment, or the initial position has changed since IRS alignment, but none of the IRSs are in align mode. [DSC-22-20-50-20-30]
The MCDU INIT coordinates have been changed after the end of the IRS alignment.
Crosscheck the MCDU INIT coordinates against the IRS position on the MCDU POSITION MONITOR page. [PRO-SUP-34]

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9
Q

What does a red “SPD LIM” in bottom of PFD mean? [DSC-31-40]

A

Appears when both FMGCs fail (FE part) or incase of a SFCC dual flap/slat channel failure
In this case VLS, S, F, GD, Vtrend, Vmax, VFE, VFE next, VSW are lost
For landing with slats or flaps jammed, if SPD LIM flag is on PFD, use the MAX SPEED displayed on ECAM STS instead of the QRH table
Also appears if 2 ADR are wrong and differ, or if all 3 ADRS are erroneous

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10
Q

Can Visibility be factored on a VOR approach? [A.8.3.6.2]

A

No. Visibility cannot be factored for any approach.

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11
Q

Rule of thumb for decent planning?

A

(3xFL) +10 +10% tailwind component

3*FL) +((GS/10)-20

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12
Q

What 3 conditions are required for LAND GREEN?

A

LOC & GS modes engaged
A/c below 400ft RA
No action on the FCU disengages LAND mode
Disengages at TOGA thrust or 10s after landing if APPR pb pushed
Note: If LAND green not displayed <400ft, landing capability degrades to CAT1. Autoland not permitted with CAT1
displayed on FMA

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13
Q

What is the the APU fuel burn and where is the data located?

A

FCOM-PER-FPL
Ground ops 130 kg/h (Packs ON & 90 KVA load on APU GEN)
In flight 130 to 55 kg/hr

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14
Q

If the A/THR is failed, how may the crew try to recover it?

A

Engage the other AP then try to re-engage the A/THR

Note: if A/THR is recovered with AP2, A/THR will be lost again when AP2 is disengaged [PRO-ABN-22]

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15
Q

Where do the CPCs normally get landing elevation info from?

A

The FM (Hence if FM1+2 fail set ldg elev manually)

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16
Q

In Alternate Law what happens to VMO/MMO and Alpha Floor?

A

VMO/MMO are reduced (see ECAM STS) and Alpha Floor is inhibited

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17
Q

When is the use of A/THR not recommended?

A

In case of loss of autotrim function

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18
Q

What happens to the CDLS if DC Bus 2 fails?

A

The CDLS is not electrically supplied and is inoperative. No fault light appears on the center pedestal.

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19
Q

If no AP/FD pitch mode is engaged (ie AP and FS are OFF) what mode is A/THR in?

A

Speed [FCTM OP-30]

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20
Q

If flight crew select a speed on FCU in SRS?

A

Triple click alert and mode reversion to CLB or OP CLB occurs

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21
Q

Recommended crew actions upon ECAM advisory?

A

Time permitting PM reviews QRH ABN-80 [FCTM OP-40]

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22
Q

What is the significance of a boxed or unboxed ECAM title?

A

Boxed means primary failure.

No box means independent failure.

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23
Q

Can you rely on the ECAM LDG GEAR DN memo for gear position?

A

Yes, but should be backed up by the SD wheel page

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24
Q

What is VSW on the PFD speedscale?

A

Stall warning speed

Defined by the top of the red and black strip (Inhibited from touchdown until 5s after lift off)

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25
Q

Can the Hydraulic fire shut off valves be re-opened once automatically closed in flight?

A

No. [DSC-29-10-20]

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26
Q

What does ECAM memo TERR STBY mean?

A

In flight, the TERR STBY memo appears in green when the aircraft position accuracy (computed by the EGPWS) is insufficient to allow the enhanced TCF and TAD modes to operate.
These modes are not available until the TERR STBY memo disappears.
If selected, the terrain data display on the ND is automatically deselected, when the TERR STBY memo is
triggered. TERR OFF is displayed, when the EGPWS is voluntarily deselected.

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27
Q

If during a CAT2 or 3 approach tower informs that LVPs are suspended what type of approach may be continued?

A

Must revert to CAT1 minima

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28
Q

In case of an immediate return to land where flight does not exceed 1,500ft how do you view ECAM warnings?

A

Press RCL. TO inhibit stays until above 1500ft.

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29
Q

Explain Ground Speed Mini?

A

GS mini = VAPP minus tower head wind component as entered in Perf
Therefore IAS target = Vapp - tower HWC + current head wind component

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30
Q

Describe a procedure turn?

A

Turn left or right by 45°, timing 1min15s CAT D from the start of the turn. Then turn 180° opposite direction.

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31
Q

What is the difference between THR IDLE and THR DES?

A

THR IDLE - A/THR is active in thrust mode and commands idle thrust
THR DES - A/THR is active in thrust mode and commands a reduced thrust with DES mode

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32
Q

Define IAF, IF, FAF, FAP?

A

IAF - Initial Approach Fix
IF - Intermediate Fix
Begins on inbound track of procedure turn, base turn or final inbound leg of hold
Ends at the FAF or FAP as applicable
Where no FAF is specified the inbound track is the final approach segment
FAF - Final Approach Fix
Start of the Final approach
FAP - Final Approach Point
Start of final approach segment. Glideslope intercept point.

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33
Q

Does the TO config pb test for engine oil temp?

A

Yes, oil temp must be ≥50°. This applies when the pb is pressed and when TO power is set.

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34
Q

What are Alternate predications based on?

A
  • A/c weight equal to landing weight at primary destination
  • FL220 if <200nm diversion otherwise FL310
  • CI 0
  • Constant wind
  • Constant ISA dev
  • Airway distance for company route or direct distance for manually entered diversion
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35
Q

Up to what point can a Step Alt be entered?

A

Up to 50nm before TOD

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36
Q

What is the return to trajectory assumption?

A

45° intercept to regain flight plan or direct TO waypoint if required angle >45

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37
Q

After a rejected take off, if the aircraft comes to a complete stop using autobrake MAX, how would you release the brakes?

A

Disarm the spoilers. [PRO-ABN-10]

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38
Q

What does DMC 3 do and what happens if it fails?

A

DMC 3 is on standby ready to power any DU.

Nothing happens if DM3 fails but its not available as back up

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39
Q

What happens if the FDs fail just after take off and the pilot selects Climb thrust at acceleration altitude?

A

When the thrust levers are put in the climb detent the A/THR activates and because the FDs are off engages SPEED
mode. If the FCU target speed is less than actual speed the thrust will decrease.

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40
Q

What can cause the ECAM GWCG to diverge from the MACTOW?

A 
Only the sensed fuel distribution can cause this. Use normal checklist table to determine the THS setting based on
ECAM GWCG (provided within operational limit for take off) [PRO-NOR-SOP-07
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41
Q

In HDG/TRK when does a flight plan waypoint sequence automatically?

A

When a waypoint passes behind aircraft, within 7nm and aircraft track within 90° of next leg track [DSC-22-20-30]

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42
Q

What defines computed hold speed?

A

Default hold speed is lowest of;
max endurance speed
ICAO limit speed
speed constraint (if any)

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43
Q

What is max endurance speed?

A

Approximately equal to GD in clean config (varies from GD to GD+10kt) [DSC-22-20-30-10]

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44
Q

How long does the FMS assume aircraft will hold for?

A

FMS assumes a/c will fly one turn of the holding pattern

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45
Q

What does LAST EXIT mean in the hold?

A

The time and associated fuel to leave the hold and reach the alternate airport with no extra fuel [DSC-22-30-10-15]

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46
Q

What constitutes missing an altitude constraint?

A

If system predicts >250 ft [DSC-22-20-30-20]

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47
Q

If a trip wind is inserted in INIT B, what wind is used for planning alternate predications?

A

No wind. [DSC-22-20-30-20-25]

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48
Q

In flight, what wind does the FMGES consider for planning?

A

It uses the real measured wind up to 200nm ahead of the a/c.

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49
Q

At what level does ECON CRUISE change from SPEED to MACH?

A

FL250 [DSC-22-20-40-10]

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50
Q

What conditions are required for Optimum Flight Level to be shown on PROG page?

A

Requires minimum 15 min cruise time. Updated until 15 min prior TOD

Shows optimum level based on CI, weight, weather data.

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51
Q

REC MAX is the lowest of what 5 criteria?

A
  • 0.3g buffet margin
  • Level flight at MAX CRZ thrust
  • VS+300 at MAX CLB thrust
  • A/c can fly >GD
  • A/c is certified at the level
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52
Q

Max wind for Pax door operation

A

65 kt

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53
Q

Max wind for cargo door operation

A

40 kt (50 kt if on leeward side or nose into wind, must be closed by 65 kt)

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54
Q

VLE

A

280 kt / M0.67

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55
Q

VLO Retraction

A

220 kt / M0.54

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56
Q

A321 auto rollout limitation OEI or 1 thrust reverser inop?

A

REV idle only and max 15 kt crosswind

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57
Q

Battery charge cycle required if voltage less than?

A

25.5V

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58
Q

Actions if ground crew report engine drain mast fuel leak’?

A

Run engine at idle for 5 min. If leak stops no action required.

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59
Q

Engine warm up requirements?

A

If shutdown for >2 hr, 5 min warm up

< 2 hrs = 3 min warm up

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60
Q

Actions if icing conditions and OAT ≤3°C during ground ops?

A

Ice shedding:

50% N1 every 15 min & before take off

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61
Q

Intercept from above actions?

A

> Arm approach and check LOC or LOC* on FMA and GS blue
Wind FCU up
Set VS -2000

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62
Q

Engine cooldown period?

A

3 min

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63
Q

A320 max inners fuel imbalance at take off: (Outers balanced)

  • Heavier Inner tank full
  • Heavier inner tank 3,000 kg
  • Heavier inner tank 1,450 kg
A

Max asymmetry:

  • Heavier inner full - 500 kg
  • Heavier inner 3,000 kg - 1,050 kg
  • Heavier inner 1,450 kg - 1,450 kg
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64
Q

APU starter cycle limitation?

A

3 start duty cycles then 60 min cooldown

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65
Q

APU Max EGT running?

A

682°C

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66
Q

APU Battery restart altitude limit (ELEC EMER CONFIG)?

A

FL250

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67
Q

Max engine EGT start limit?

A

635°C

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68
Q

Max engine EGT at MCT?

A

610°C no time limit

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69
Q

A320 engine TOGA EGT and time limits?

A

635°C for 5 min (10 min OEI)

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70
Q

Engine starter cycle limitations?

A

-30 min cooldown after 3 cycles or 5 min of continuous cranking

  • For manual start, max 2 min start cycle time
  • Max 5 min crank
  • Auto start that includes one attempt is considered one cycle
  • 15s pause between ground auto or manual start attempts
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71
Q

Minimum visual reference:

Straight in precision approach?

A

Sufficient approach/runway lights and one row of crossbar lights

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72
Q

Minimum visual reference:

CAT2

A

Approach environment and threshold

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73
Q

Minimum visual reference:

CAT3A

A

3 centreline lights

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74
Q

Minimum visual reference:

CAT3B (No DH)

A

Not required

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75
Q

METAR code:

PE or PL

A

Ice Pellets

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76
Q

Define “Minimum fuel”

A

When committed to landing and any change to clearance may result in landing with less than final reserve

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77
Q

Define “Mayday mayday mayday fuel”

A

When fuel remaining at landing will be less than final reserve

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78
Q

Wake turbulence separation: MED after HVY on dep/arr?

A

Dep: 2 min / 5 nm (3 min intersection)
Arr: 2 min / 5 nm

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79
Q

Wake turbulence separation: MED after SUPER on dep/arr?

A

Dep: 3 min / 7 nm (4 min intersection)
Arr: 3 min / 7 nm

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80
Q

Minimum visual reference for non-precision approach with approach lights?

A

At least 7 consecutive lights

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81
Q

Minimum visual reference for circle to land?

A

Continuous sight of ground features to allow positioning of aircraft to reach runway

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82
Q

Max elevation for A320 autoland?

A

2,500 ft old a/c

6,500 ft new a/c

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83
Q

What does a C in a triangle mean on Navtech charts?

A

Ceiling or vertical vis required for approach AND ceiling is higher than M(DH) value

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84
Q

Sector 2 hold entry?

A

Teardrop

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85
Q

Holding pattern outbound leg drift?

A

1min leg = Triple

90s leg = Double

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86
Q

Green Dot formula?

A

A320:

(GW x 2) +80 + 1 kt per 1000 ft above 20,000 ft

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87
Q

When should wing anti-ice be used?

A

If any visual indication of airframe icing

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88
Q

What brake temp limits require maintenance action if exceeded?

A

-2 brakes >∆150° if one is >600° or <60°
-Average left/right gear ∆200°C
-Fuse plug melted
Any brake >900°C

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89
Q

Turbulence speeds A320?

A

250 kt FL200

275 kt / M0.76 >FL200

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90
Q

VMO/MMO

A

350 kts / M0.82

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91
Q

VMCG

A

112 kt

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92
Q

VMCA

A

112 kt

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93
Q

Cabin safety relief valve tolerance setting

A

±7 hPa (0.1 psi)

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94
Q

Max normal cabin alt

A

8000 ft

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95
Q

Cabin alt warning

A

9550 ft ±350 ft

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96
Q

APU max altitude for normal start and operation? (A320)

A

FL410

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97
Q

Max alt for APU bleed, one pack on

A

20,000 ft

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98
Q

Max alt for APU bleed, both packs on

A

15,000 ft

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99
Q

Max continuous engine oil temp?

A

155°C

165°C for 15 min

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100
Q

Max transient engine oil temp

A

165°C for 15 mins

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101
Q

Min oil temp for engine start?

A

-40°C

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102
Q

Minimum engine oil temp before above idle thrust

A

-10°C

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4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Min engine oil temp for take off

A

50°C

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104
Q

Min engine oil pressure

A

60 psi

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105
Q

Load limit clean

A

-1g to +2.5g

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106
Q

Load limit Slats extended or slats + flaps extended

A

0g to +2g

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107
Q

Normal hydraulic pressure

A

3000 PSI

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108
Q

Max brake temp at take off

A

300°C (150°C if fans used)

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109
Q

Which spoiler panels are lift dumper/ground spoilers?

A

All

1 to 5

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110
Q

Which spoiler panels are used for roll control?

A

2,3,4,5

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111
Q

Which spoiler panels are used as speed brakes?

A

2,3,4

112
Q

Which spoiler panels are used for load alleviation?

A

4,5 & ailerons

113
Q

What is the formula for critical point?

A

(D x H) / (O + H)

114
Q

TCAS TA response time

A

40 seconds

115
Q

TCAS RA response time

A

25 seconds

116
Q

What does the 25nm MSA figure on approach charts mean?

A

1000ft obstacle clearance

117
Q

How do you dry crank the engine?

A

Mode sel to Crank then MAN START pb ON

118
Q

Which slats are de-iced with hot air?

A

The three outboard slats

119
Q

How is the cargo door opened?

A

Yellow elec hydraulic pump or hand pump

120
Q

On ground with 1 engine running: are TAT and pitot probes heated?

A

TAT not heated

Pitot low heat

121
Q

What hydraulic pressure does the RAT supply?

A

2500 psi

122
Q

What does gravity gear extension do to the hydraulics?

A

It isolates gear from the green hydraulic system so it can free fall

123
Q

When does the FADEC change to approach idle?

A

When flaps are extended or the flap lever position is not at zero

124
Q

Max crosswind for CAT 2 or 3 auto land and rollout?

A

20 kt

125
Q

In manual tilt, what datum is used at zero tilt?

A

Zero indicates the horizon reference provided by the IRS

126
Q

Max AoB with full side stick deflection in normal law but with AoA protection active?

A

45°

127
Q

If USE MAN PITCH TRIM is shown on PFD in amber what flight law is active?

A

Direct law

128
Q

What fault would cause MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY to be displayed in RED on the PFD?

A

L&R elevator fault

129
Q

What are the pitch limits in Normal law?

A

-15° to +30°

130
Q

Bank angle limits in:
Normal law
Normal law with AoA protection
Normal law with high speed protection

A

Normal law: 67°
With AoA prot: 45°
With high speed prot: 40°

131
Q

What is the difference between Alternate Law and Alternate Law Protections Lost?

A

Alternate Law prot lost is the same as Alternate Law except there is no low speed stability or high speed stability. It only includes the load factor limitation.

132
Q

What causes the RAT to deploy?

A

Auto when AC1 & AC2 lost

Manually when EMER ELEC PWR pb or RAT MAN ON pb pressed

133
Q

What is 1 knot in mph?

A

1.151 mph

134
Q

How many feet in a KM, Mile, NM?

A

3280, 5280, 6080

135
Q

With the AP ON, at what speed is the speed brake retraction rate reduced and how long do they take to stow?

A

> 315 kt / M0.75

25s

136
Q

At what AoB are the FDs removed and when do they come back on?

A

Off at 45° back on at 40°

137
Q

At what pitch attitudes are the FDs removed and when do they come back on?

A

Off at 25 on at 22
Off at -13 on at -10

Off when pitch exceeds 25°up or 13° down
On when pitch returns to region between 22°up and 10° down

138
Q

When is alpha floor available, inhibited and lost during flight?

A 
From lift off until 100RA on approach
Inhibited above M0.6
Lost with certain failures including:
Alternate or Direct law, 
N1 degraded mode, 
OEI when slats/flaps extended
139
Q

What is the minimum runway width for A320 to do a 180° turn?

What is the procedure?

A

Min width with no margin is 24m
Theoretical min width is 22.8m
Procedure is turn 25° off rwy QDM until CM1 is over rwy edge then full right tiller with asymmetric thrust and differential braking as necessary.

140
Q

Which DUs auto transfer after failure, and to where?

A

PFDs auto transfer to ND

ECAM EWD auto transfer to the ECAM SD

141
Q

Max demonstrated crosswind

A

38 kt

142
Q

VLO Extension

A

250 kt / M0.60

143
Q

Max altitude gear extended

A

No restriction

144
Q

Eng oil quantity required for dispatch?

A

11 qt +0.3/hr

145
Q

Alternate brake check system pressure?

A

2000 to 2700 PSI

146
Q

Formulae to check FPA?

A

∆FL / Nm

147
Q

Actions if ACCU pressure not in green band when parking?

A

Chocks required before ENG1 shutdown

148
Q

Max operating altitude flaps/slats extended?

A

20,000 ft

149
Q

APU LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM: Maintenance action required within?

A

10 hrs of operation

150
Q

APU max EGT start?

A

<25,000 ft 900°C
>25,000 ft 982°C

SQ/SR:
>35,000 ft 1120°C

151
Q

Max crosswind for engine start?

A

35 kt

152
Q

No engine starter engagement when N2 is?

A

> 10% on ground

>18% in flight

153
Q

ICAO runway edge light spacing?

A

60 m

154
Q

If no RVR is available, what is the minimum viz for any approach?

A

800m

155
Q

Emergency call contents?

A

Name of station addressed

  • A/c callsign
  • Nature of emergency
  • Intention of PIC
  • Present position, FL, Hdg
  • Other info, POB, endurance etc
156
Q

What can you say if a PAN call is not recognised?

A

“We are declaring an emergency”

[A 8.3.13.1]

157
Q

Sector 1 hold entry?

A

Parallel

158
Q

Sector 3 hold entry?

A

Direct

159
Q

Holding pattern outbound leg timing adjustment for wind?

A

±1s per 1 kt head/tailwind up to 50 kt

Minimum 30s outbound with correction

160
Q

If evidence of ice accretion, what is the min speed for approach?

A

Conf Clean, 1,2 or 3 = VLS + 10 kt

Conf Full = VLS +5 kt

161
Q

If evidence of ice accretion on de-iced parts what is min speed?

A

VLS +10 kt or GD

162
Q

PFD 1 +2 airfield elevation check?

A

±25 ft

163
Q

Max tyre speed

A

195 kts

164
Q

Max wiper speed

A

230 kts

165
Q

Max cockpit window open speed

A

200 kts

166
Q

Max / Min cabin diff pressure

A

-1/+9 psi

167
Q

Min fuel quantity for take off

A

1500 kg and no ECAM alerts related to low fuel level in wing tanks

168
Q

Max runway slope?

A

±2%

169
Q

Max runway altitude?

A

9,200 ft

170
Q

Max engine N1?

A

100%

171
Q

Max engine N2?

A

100%

172
Q

Max outer tank fuel imbalance at take off? (Inner tanks balanced)

A

370 kg

173
Q

Max inner tank fuel imbalance in flight and landing? (Outers balanced)

  • Heavier inner full
  • Heavier inner 4,300 kg
  • Heavier inner 2,250 kg
A
  • Heavier inner full - 1,500 kg
  • Heavier inner 4,300 kg. - 1,600 kg
  • Heavier inner 2,250 kg. - 2,250 kg
174
Q

Max outer tank fuel imbalance in flight and landing? (Inners balanced)

A

690 kg

175
Q

What does it mean if amber TCAS MESSAGE message appears on the PFD?

A

TCAS cannot deliver RA data

or an internal TCAS failure

176
Q

The Probe/Window Heat pushbutton when selected in flight

A

Does nothing. It is only used to supply power to the probes and windows on the ground.

177
Q

Flight Deck Window heating comes on

A

Automatically when at least one engine is running or the aircraft is in flight

178
Q

The APU oil system

A

cools and lubricates

179
Q

When does the FMGC engage the “soft altitude” mode?

A

Reaching cruise level with ALT CRZ annunciated

180
Q

What conditions trigger an FUEL AUTO FEED fault?

A
  • CTR tank quantity >250 kg and left or right wing tank quantity <5000kg
  • CTR tank pumps do not stop after slat extension or when CTR tank level is low
181
Q

VFE config 1?

A

230 kt

182
Q

VFE conf 1+F?

A

215 kt

183
Q

VFE Conf 2?

A

215 kt

184
Q

VFE Conf 3?

A

185 kt

185
Q

VFE Conf Full?

A

177 kt

186
Q

VMCL?

A

109 kt

187
Q

MTOW old and new?

A

75,500 kg and 77,000 kg

188
Q

MLW old and new?

A

64,500 and 66,000 kg

189
Q

Due to an extraordinary external event, you find yourself at 35 degrees nose down pitch. The Abnormal Attitude laws in pitch provide:

A

Alternate Law without Protection (except Load Factor) and without auto-trim.

190
Q

In flight with RAT out, which busses will the emergency generator supply?

A

AC ESS

and the DC ESS via ESS TR

191
Q

Following an ENG 1 RELIGHT the TCAS mode selector is inadvertently left in the TA mode: what will happen to RAs and will avoiding action be commanded?

A

All RAs are converted to TAs, no vertical orders will be generated however aural messages are generated

192
Q

Hot bleed air is used for anti ice on which surfaces:

A

Three outboard leading-edge slats of each wing and engine intakes

193
Q

What is the purpose of the Hydraulic System Accumulator fitted to each hydraulic system?

A

Helping to maintain a constant pressure by covering transient demands during normal operations.

194
Q

If electrical power on the aircraft fails what happens to the engine anti-ice valves?

A

The engine anti ice valves will automatically open

195
Q

If engine N1 exceeds 100% during a flight, a red mark shows the highest N1 attained: when will it disappear?

A

This red mark will disappear after a new take-off or maintenance action.

196
Q

Where do the FADEC system on the engines receive their power from?

A

A magnetic alternator for an internal power source.

197
Q

If CAT 3 DUAL is displayed in the INOP SYS without any other failure being detected how may CAT 3 dual capability be recovered?

A

Change the AP in command. It may allow the the CAT 3 DUAL function to be recovered.

198
Q

What is the formula for estimating the vertical extent of the cloud above/below the aircraft altitude?

A

h(ft)= d(NM) x Tilt(Deg) x 100

Rule of thumb: at 40nm each degree is 4,000 ft

199
Q

During an automatic start the engine will motor with ignition and fuel off for how long?

A

For 30 seconds at maximum motoring speed and until the residual EGT is less than 250°C

200
Q

Why are the Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised?

A

To prevent the hydraulic pumps from cavitating.

201
Q

In the case of an ′′ENG DUAL FAILURE′′ during high power operations (i.e. climb, cruise), why is it mandatory to fly at or above the optimum relight speed?

A

In order to prevent engine core lock.

202
Q

Up to what speed does the tiller provide NWS during take off and landing?

A

Full range (75°) up to 20 kt then decreases to zero by 70 kt (80 kt new A320)

203
Q

Up to what speed do the rudder pedals provide NWS during take off and landing?

A

Full range (6°) up to 40 kt then decreases to zero at 130 kt

204
Q

What conditions activate Autobrake LO, MED and MAX?

A

LO/MED - ground spoilers commanded

MAX - ground spoilers commanded and >40 kt (Note that ground spoilers do not activate unless >72 kt)

205
Q

At what speed do the flaps auto-retract after take off?

A

210 kt

206
Q

What effect would FAC 1&2 fault have on the rudder limiter?

A

It is locked at time of failure until the slats extend when it is unlocked

207
Q

What does a FAULT light in the FUEL MODE SEL pb indicate?

A

Amber light and ECAM warning comes on when centre tank has >250 kg and either wing tank <5,000 kg

208
Q

What does a FAULT light in the CTR TK PUMP pb indicate?

A

Pump is on and pressure is low

209
Q

At what temp would a fuel temp indication turn amber?

A

Above 45°C inners, 55° outers

Below -40°

210
Q

What do two amber dashes through the last two digits of a fuel tank quantity reading on the ECAM SD indicate?

A

FQI is inaccurate

211
Q

What does it mean if a fuel tank quantity is boxed in amber?

A

Unusable fuel

  • Outer tank quantity boxed means both transfer valves failed while inner tank is at low level
  • Centre tabk quantity boxed if pumps are failed or switched off
212
Q

What does it mean if ECAM FOB is half boxed in amber?

A

It means some fuel is unusable

213
Q

What does it mean if ECAM FOB has amber dash through last two digits?

A

The FQI is in degraded mode - check SD page to see which tank(s) affected

214
Q

What does the advisory flashing wing tank fuel quantity mean?

A

Fuel imbalance is now ≥1,500 kg

215
Q

What four things can cause a pack flow control valve to close?

A

Pack overheat
Engine start
Fire pb
Ditching pb

216
Q

What effect does an ACSC (Air Conditioning System Controller) ‘One Lane Failure’ have?

A

No effect, as the second lane takes over.

217
Q

What effect does an ACSC (Air Conditioning System Controller) ‘Both Lanes Failure’ have?

A
  • The related pack is lost

- associated hot air pressure-regulating valve and trim air valves close

218
Q

What effect does an air cycle machine failure have?

A

Pack operates in heat exchanger cooling mode
Pack flow reduced
ACSC regulates temp by modulating bypass valve and ram air inlet
ACSC regulates hot air through the trim air valves

219
Q

What effect does failure of the hot air pressure regulating valve have if closed or open?

A

Open: No effect
Closed: Optimised regulation is lost
Trim air valves close
Pack 1 controls temp to value selected
Pack 2 controls temp to the mean value of FWD & AFT values selected

220
Q

What effect does trim air valve failure have?

A

Optimised temp regulation of the corresponding zone is lost

221
Q

What does it mean if the FAULT light illuminates on the HOT AIR pb? What happens and when does the fault light go out?

A

Duct temp reaches 88°C
The valve and trim air valves auto close
Fault light goes out when temp < 70°C and the pb is OFF

222
Q

What does it mean if the fault light illuminates on PACK 1(2) pb?

A

Pack flow control valve position disagrees with the selected position,
or compressor outlet overheat
or pack outlet overheat

223
Q

What position is the outflow valve on the ground?

A

Fully open

224
Q

What position is the outflow valve during take off?

A

It closes slightly to increase cabin pressure to avoid a surge in cabin pressure during rotation

225
Q

What does the outflow valve do when the RAM AIR pb is ON?

A

If Δp is <1psi the outflow valve will open 50% if under auto control
It will not auto open if system is under manual control

226
Q

What are the safety valve settings to prevent over/under pressure? Are they above or below the flotation line?

A

> 8.6psi and below -1 psi

Above flotation line

227
Q

How is pressurisation controlled after touchdown?

A

At touchdown cabin pressure is released at 500fpm

Outlfow valve fully opens 55s after landing

228
Q

What does the outflow valve do during take off?

A

It closes to pressurise the cabin to 0.1psi at 400 fpm

229
Q

During climb what data input controls cabin pressurisation?

A

Climb rate

230
Q

During descent what is the target cabin pressure shortly before landing?
What is the max cabin RoD?

A

+0.1 psi

750 fpm

231
Q

What does DMC1 do and what happens if it fails? How would you know it has failed?

A

DMC 1 drives the CAPT PFD, ND and both ECAM screens

If DMC fails INVALID DATA is displayed on affected DUs and can be recovered by switching CAPT 3.

232
Q

What does DMC2 do and what happens if it fails?

A

DM2 powers PFD 2 & ND 2

If DMC fails INVALID DATA is displayed on affected DUs and can be recovered by switching to FO3

233
Q

At what speed is hydraulic power cut off from the landing gear by way of a safety valve?

What ADR fault would cause this safety valve to be closed?

A

> 260 kt

ADR 1+3 FAULT

234
Q

What actions does pushing the ENG FIRE pb have?

A 
Silences fire warning
Arms the squibs
Closes: LP fuel valve, Hyd SOV, Eng bleed valve, Pack Flow Control valve, 
 - (fuel, hyd, bleed, pack valves)
Cuts FADEC power
Deactivates IDG
235
Q

Where does an amber FAULT light show if smoke detected in avionics vent duct?

A

GEN 1 LINE pb
BLOWER pb
EXTRACT pb

236
Q

How long does cargo fire extinguisher bottle One take to discharge? When will the DISCH 1 light appear?

A

60s

DISCH 1 light appears after 1 min

237
Q

How long does cargo fire extinguisher Bottle Two take to discharge? When will the DISCH 2 light appear?

A

Bottle two discharges in 90 min

DISCH 2 light appears after approx 40 min

238
Q

After discharging Cargo fire bottle1, when will DISCH AGENT 2 light illuminate?

A

After 60 mins to remind you to discharge the second bottle

239
Q

When does the LGCIU switchover occur?

A

On completion of gear retraction or upon failure

240
Q

When is APU AVAIL memo displayed after APU start?

A

> 99.5%N or 2s after 95%

241
Q

When does the ESS TR supply the DC ESS?

A

AC1 fail (Essential Feed should do this auto)

Or when emergency generator supplies the ESS TR

(DC ESS normally supplied via DC 1)

242
Q

When are both bus tie contractors closed?

A

Both contactors are closed during single-engine operation,
or operation on the APU generator,
or external power supply.

243
Q

What could PTU FAULT light signify?

A

Green or Yellow system:

  • overheat
  • low air pressure
  • low level

(Light goes out when pb selected off, except for Overheat which lasts as long as overheat condition)

244
Q

Which flight computer controls the spoilers?

A

SECs

Spoiler Elevator Computer

245
Q

If neither elevator jack is electrically supplied, what control mode do they switch to?

A

Centering mode

246
Q

If neither elevator jack is hydraulically supplied, what control mode do they switch to?

A

Damping mode

247
Q

Does REC MAX account for use of anti-ice?

A

No, Refer QRH.

248
Q

Define icing conditions:

A

OAT/TAT ≤10°C & viz <1600m (1 sm)

OAT on ground
TAT in flight

249
Q

Memory items for Windshear after Takeoff?

A 
"Windshear TOGA!”
Thrust levers: TOGA
AP (if engaged): Keep ON
SRS orders: Follow
Do not change Config until out of shear
Closely monitor flight path and speed
Recover smoothly to normal climb out of shear

If necessary full backstick
If no FDs pitch to 17.5° then as required to prevent height loss

Reactive: FAC computes low energy
PM calls wind variations from ND
When clear of shear report to ATC
Warning Available:
From 3s after lift off to 1300ft
Ldg - 1300ft down to 50ft if Conf ≥1
250
Q

EGPWS memory items?

A 
“Pull up TOGA!” 
AP: Off
Pitch: Pull up
Thrust levers: TOGA
Speedbrake level: Check retracted
Bank: Wings level or adjust
Do not change Config until clear of obstacle
251
Q

Loss of braking memory items?

A 
PF calls “Loss of braking!” 
Reverse: Max
Brake pedals: Release
Anti-skid OFF: Order 
Anti-skid & nose wheel steering: OFF
Brake pedals:Press
Max brake pressure	: 1000 psi
If still no braking:
Parking brake: Use
252
Q

Stall recovery memory items?

A

“Stall, I have control”
Nose down pitch control: Apply
Bank: Wings level
When out of the stall:Thrust Increase smoothly as required
Speedbrakes: Check retracted
Flight path: Recover smoothly
If in clean Config and below 20,000ft: Flap 1 Select

253
Q

Stall warning at lift off memory items?

A 
“Stall, TOGA 15” 
Thrust : TOGA
At the same time;
Pitch attitude	: 15°
Bank: Wings level
When safe flight maintained, if stall warning continues, consider spurious
254
Q

Emergency descent memory items?

A 
“Emergency Descent” 
Crew Oxy masks: Use
Signs: On
Emer descent: Initiate
If A/THR not active, THR levers: Idle
Speed brake: Full
255
Q

TCAS memory items?

A

“TCAS, I have control”
IF RA:
AP: Off
Both Flight Directors: Off
Respond promptly & smoothly
Respect stall / GPWS / windshear warnings
Notify ATC
The go-around procedure must be performed if RA CLIMB or INCREASE CLIMB is triggered on approach
When “CLEAR OF CONFLICT” announced resume normal navigation

256
Q

Unreliable speed memory items?

A

“Unreliable speed”
AP: Off
Auto thrust: Off
FDs: Off
Below thrust reduction altitude: 15° / TOGA
Above thrust red alt and below FL100: 10° / Climb
Above thrust red alt and above FL100: 5° / Climb
Flaps; if Conf 0,1,2, or 3: Maintain current Config
Flaps; if full: Select 3 and maintain
Speedbrakes: Check retracted
Landing gear: Up

257
Q

Autoland light triggers

A

RA <200 AND 1 AP engaged AND one of:

  • LOC >1/4 dot
  • GS >1dot
  • Los of LOC signal >15 RA (Vertical FD flashes)
  • Loss of GS signal >100 RA (Horizontal FD flashes)
  • RA 1&2 difference >15ft
  • Last AP disengages
  • FMGS detects long flare
258
Q

Jet stream min speed

A

60 kt

259
Q

What is the gradient wind?

A

The wind that blows around curved isobars

260
Q

How long does TREND last?

A

2 hrs

261
Q

How long does TEMPO last?

A

1 hr

262
Q

What is MOCA?

A

Lowest published alt between radio fixes

263
Q

What is grivation?

A

The angle between Grid north and Magnetic north

264
Q

QDR means?

A

Magnetic bearing from station (Radial)

265
Q

QDM means?

A

Magnetic bearing to the station.

Heading to steer to reach the VDF station assuming nil wind

266
Q

QTE means?

A

True bearing from station

267
Q

QUJ means?

A

True bearing to the station

268
Q

What is scalloping regarding a VOR?

A

Bending of VOR signal due reflections from terrain

269
Q

What is SSR garbling?

A

Overlap of 2 or more transponders on or nearly on the same bearing from the station

270
Q

How do you calculate density altitude from pressure altitude and temperature?

A

Pressure altitude x (ISA deviation x 120)

271
Q

TODA is?

A

TORA+ clearway

272
Q

What is TAS

A

EAS corrected for density

273
Q

What is EAS?

A

IAS corrected for instrument, pressure, compressibility

274
Q

Implications of blocked static port?

A

Altimeter shows altitude blockage occurred at
VSI reads zero
ASi reduces in climb, increases in descent

275
Q

Implications of blocked pitot?

A

ASI increases in climb, reduces in descent

276
Q

TUC at FL400?

A

15-30s

A320 (3 decks)

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