My ultrasoundtutor quizzes (Part 2 OB) Flashcards by Ysabella Hartnett

During pregnancy, what does the corpus luteum produce?

a) hCG
b) PAPP-A
c) blastocyst
d) progesterone

d) progesterone

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Which of the following would be a normal measurement for the yolk sac at 7 weeks?

a) 7mm
b) 6.2 mm
c) 5.9 mm
d) 6.5 mm

c) 5.9 mm

Yolk sac should be < 6mm

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A patient is 6 weeks from LMP and current b-hCG is reported at 800 mIU/mL. What is the normally expected finding?

a) Decidual reaction
b) Intrauterine pregnancy
c) viable fetal pole
d) gestational sac with yolk sac

a) Decidual reaction

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What are the 2 decidual layers that can be seen as early as 5 weeks gestation?

a) chorion and amnion
b) capsularis and parietalis
c) basalis and chorionis
d) vitelline and capsularis

b) capsularis and parietalis

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Implantation occurs how many days after fertilzation?

7-9 days

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By what day from the LMP is implantation complete?

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hCG levels continue to double every 48 hours until how many weeks?

9 weeks

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The earliest visible sign of pregnancy is a

decidualized endometrium

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In what part of the uterus does fertlization occur?

Ampulla

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What is the first definitive sonographic evidence of an IUP?

Gestational sac with yolk sac

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Located in the space of the chorionic cavity between the amnion and chorion is the?

Extraembryonic coelem

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The secondary yolk sac is responsible for what 3 things?

1) producing AFP
2) angiogenesis
3) hematopoiesis

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At how many weeks is a fetal pole seen within the amniotic cavity adjacent to the yolk sac?

6 weeks

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what is the most reliable estimation of gestational age in the first trimester?

CRL (crown rump length)

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At how many weeks does the formation of limb buds and fetal head appear larger than the body?

7 weeks

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The cystic structure noted within the head around 8 weeks is called?

Rhombocephalon

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Migration of the midgut/bowel into the base of the umbilical cord should be completed by how many weeks?

12 weeks

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Name the 2 things the placenta and umbilical cord are formed by

1) decidua basalis (maternal)
2) chorion frondosum (fetal)

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First trimester screening is primarily used for what 2 anomalies?

1) Trisomy 21
2) Trisomy 18

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The NT should never measure more than how many mm?

> 3mm

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NT may also be enlarged with what 3 things?

1) Trisomy 13
2) Turners
3) Cardiac defects

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Which of the following produces hCG?

a) blastocyst
b) morula
c) zygote
d) corpus luteum

a) blastocyst

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What time frame is acceptable for perform a nuchal translucency measurement?

a) 11-14 weeks
b) up to 16 weeks
c) 10-13 weeks
d) 9-12 weeks

a) 11-14 weeks

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What statement is true regarding first trimester pregnancy?

a) a fetal pole should be visualized by a maximum GS diameter of 10 mm
b) a fetal pole should be visualized by a maximum GS diameter of 25 mm
c) a fetal pole should be visualized at a MSD of 10 mm
d) a fetal pole should be visualized at a MSD of 25 mm

d) a fetal pole should be visualized at a MSD of 25 mm

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A pregnancy located anywhere other than the central uterine cavity is called?

Ectopic pregnancy

What is the most common cause of pelvic pain with a positive pregnancy test?

Ectopic pregnancy

Where is the most common location for an ectopic pregnancy?

Within the ampulla of the fallopian tube

Name the 5 risk factors of an ectopic pregnancy

1) assisted reproduction 2) Hx of PID 3) endometriosis 4) IUD 5) previous ectopic

The most dangerous location for an ectopic pregnancy is?

Interstitial/corneal because of risk of rupture and hemorrhage

What is another name for gestational trophoblastic disease?

Molar pregnancy

What is the most common GTD?

complete

Name the 3 types of GTD

1) hydatidiform mole 2) invasive molar 3) choriocarcinoma

What is another name for a blighted ovum?

Anembryonic pregnancy

A large GS without a YS or embryo based on sac size is most likely?

Blighted ovum

Fetal demise is confirmed by a fetal pole _______ with no cardiac activity

>5mm

What is another name for a miscarriage?

Spontaneous abortion

Termination of pregnancy before viability whether elective or not is referred to as

Abortion

What is referred to as a naturally occurring miscarriage?

Spontaneous abortion

A bleed between the endometrium and gestational sac is termed?

Subchorionic hemorrhage

What is the most common pelvic mass in the first trimester?

Corpus luteum

The corpus luteum is maintained by?

hCG

What hormone does the corpus luteum secrete?

Progesterone

What is the most likely etiology for abnormally low levels of hCG expected for gestational age? a) blighted ovum b) embryonic demise c) ectopic pregnancy d) incorrect dating

d) incorrect dating

Sonographic findings of a 8mm fetal pole with a heart rate of 80 bpm confirms what diagnosis? a) missed abortion b) viable IUP c) inevitable abortion d) threatened abortion

d) threatened abortion

What significant abnormality can be diagnosed by the end of the first trimester? a) absent stomach b) urinary obstruction c) bilateral renal agensis d) acrania

d) acrania

What defines an inevitable abortion? a) low fetal heart rate with arrhythmia b) subchorionic hemorrhage covering 30% of the GS c) elective termination of pregnancy d) GS located close to an incomplete cervix

d) GS located close to an incomplete cervix

A patient with a history of D&C 1 week prior, currently complains of ongoing bleeding. Lab testing demonstrates an hCG level of 600. What is the expected diagnosis? a) partial molar b) ectopic pregnancy c) retained products of conception d) complete abortion

c) retained products of conception

What is the most common diagnosis in a patient experiencing acute pelvic pain with a positive pregnancy test? a) threatened miscarriage b) ectopic pregnancy c) GTD d) blighted ovum

b) ectopic pregnancy

What would be an indication of nonviable IUP? a) 9 mm YS b) double decidual sign c) subchorionic hemorrhage d) 20 mm GS without fetal pole

a) 9 mm YS

What would be an indication of early pregnancy failure? a) empty GS with MSD of 9 mm b) 18 mm GS with YS and no fetal pole c) 24 mm GS and YS measuring 9 mm d) empty GS with MSD of 8 mm and subchorionic hemorrhage

c) 24 mm GS and YS measuring 9 mm

Sonographic findings include a MSD of 19 mm and 4.2 mm YS without evidence of a fetal pole. What is the significance of these findings? a) anembryonic pregnancy b) normal early gestation c) missed abortion d) heterotopic pregnancy

b) normal early gestation

What is the most likely sonographic appearance of an ectopic pregnancy? a) intra and extrauterine GS b) GS at the cornu with a thin myometrium rim c) extrauterine complex mass, adjacent to ovary with no IUP d) extrauterine GS with live embryo

c) extrauterine complex mass, adjacent to ovary with no IUP

Quantitative b-hCG level is 2400. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis if no defined GS is seen? a) normal early pregnancy b) ectopic pregnancy c) missed abortion d) threatened miscarriage

b) ectopic pregnancy

What is another name for cephalic?

Vertex

If the baby head is presenting closest to the cervix this is termed?

Cephalic

If the baby feet are first this is termed?

Complete breech

If the buttock is closest to the cervix this is termed?

Frank breech

If one leg is closest to the cervix this is termed?

Footling breech

In the axial view of the abdomen the fetal lie is ______ to the transverse position

perpendicular

When the abdominal organs and chest "match" the fetal lie this is termed?

Fetal situs solitus

Which of the following is produced by the placenta? a) AFP b) Estrogen c) Estriol d) Progesterone

c) Estriol

What anatomical landmark can be used to confirm normal visceral arrangement? a) stomach b) bladder c) cord insertion d) spine

a) stomach

A patient 18 weeks from LMP presents with universally decreased lab values on the Quad screen?' a) neural tube defect b) incorrect dates c) chromosomal anomaly d) non-progressive pregnancy

b) incorrect dates

Upon a 22 week anatomy scan, the fetus is imaged parallel to the mother with the cranium inferior and spine posterior. What is the fetal lie? a) complete breech facing anteriorly b) frank breech facing posterior c) vertex facing anterior d) transverse with head cephalic

c) vertex facing anterior -Head is down so that indicates cephalic or vertex lie. If the spine is posterior, then the fetus is facing up or anterior

What condition would most likely correspond to an abnormally elevated AFP? a) cardiac deformity b) brain anomaly c) neural tube defect d) absent kidneys

c) neural tube defect

An unscreened patient that is 24 weeks from LMP presents for a second trimester anatomy scan. Her quad screen is universally decreased for gestational age. What is the most likely significance of these findings? a) fetal demise b) syndromic fetus c) threatened abortion d) gestational age less than 24 weeks

d) gestational age less than 24 weeks

What scanning technique is best for confirming fetal presentation? a) b-mode b) 3D surface rendering c) M-mode d) power doppler

a) b-mode

What lab value is produced by the fetus but can be measured by obtaining a sample of maternal blood? a) PAPP-A b) Inhibin-A c) hCG d) AFP

d) AFP

What values are included in the quad screen? a) AFP, hCG, PAPP-A, estriol b) hCG, estriol, progesterone, AFP c) AFP, inhibin-A, estriol, hCG d) PAPP-A, estriol, AFP, inhibin-A

c) AFP, inhibin-A, estriol, hCG

The heart is fully formed by how many weeks?

10 weeks

The heart begins to contract at _____ days gestation which is how many weeks?

36 days and 5 weeks

Normal cardiac position is termed?

Levocardia

Abnormal cardiac situs, apex pointing to the right chest is called?

Dextrocardia

The heart should occupy _____ of the chest

1/3

The apex of the heart is angled to _______ of midline at a ______ angle from the spine

left, 45 degrees

The left and right ventricles are separated by what?

Interventricular septum

The left and right atria are separated by _______ _______ septum which opens at the ________ _______

atrial septum, foramen ovale

The left atria opens into the left ventricle through what valve?

Mitral

The right atria opens into the right ventricle through what valve

Tricuspid

What makes up the left ventricular outflow tract? a) left ventricle and ductus arteriosus b) left ventricle and MPA c) left ventricle and left atrium d) left ventricle and aorta

d) left ventricle and aorta

What vessels make up the 3VV view? a) IVC, SVC, Aorta b) IVC, Aorta, Pulmonary artery c) SVC, Pulmonary artery, Pulmonary veins d) SVC, Aorta, Pulmonary artery

d) SVC, Aorta, Pulmonary artery

Where does blood from the IVC empty into? a) Right atrium b) Left atrium c) Right ventricle d) Left ventricle

a) Right atrium

What is the most posterior chamber? a) Right atrium b) Left atrium c) Left ventricle d) Right ventricle

b) Left atrium

What describes the function of the ductus venousus? a) Arteriovenous fistual connection to shunt blood to the right atrium b) bridge connecting right and left sides of the heart c) shunting from umbilical vein to IVC d) shunting from main pulmonary artery to aorta

c) shunting from umbilical vein to IVC

What statement most accurately describes the normal cardiac outflow tracts? a) the right ventricular outflow leads to the aorta b) the main pulmonary artery is positioned posterior to the aorta as it exits the right ventricle c) the left ventricular outflow leads to the pulmonary veins d) the main pulmonary artery is positioned anterior to the aorta crossing perpendicular to it

d) the main pulmonary artery is positioned anterior to the aorta crossing perpendicular to it

What scanning technique is most useful in evaluating for a cardiac arrhythmia? a) simultaneous doppler tracing of aortic and mitral flow b) color flow demonstrating atrial inflow and ventricular outflows c) M-mode placed through both right and left ventricles d) consectutive doppler sampling of the main pulmonary artery and aorta at the level of the RVOT

a) simultaneous doppler tracing of aortic and mitral flow

What does the ductus arteriosus connect? a) main pulmonary artery and aorta b) umbilical artery and iliac artery c) umbilical vein and IVC d) aorta and umbilical artery

a) main pulmonary artery and aorta

What images confirm normal fetal situs? a) profile, maternal cervix, fetal abdomen b) 4 chamber heart, LVOT, RVOT c) fetal lie, fetal abdomen, fetal aorta d) fetal lie, axial view of stomach, 4 chamber view

d) fetal lie, axial view of stomach, 4 chamber view

A small or absent left ventricle is called what?

Hypoplastic left heart

What heart pathology is the leading cause of death in the neonate?

Hypoplastic left heart failure

Hypoplastic left heart can be associated with what trisomy?

Trisomy 13 or Patau syndrome

A small or absent right ventricle is called what?

Hypoplastic right heart

If the right ventricle is small or absent what will be enlarged?

Left ventricle

Accumulation of fluid in 2 fetal body cavities is called?

Hydrops fetalis

An opening or hole in the ventricular septum is called?

Ventricular septal defects

What is the most common cardiac defect?

Ventricular septal defects

What heart defect must show the 4 chamber heart perpendicular to IVS showing a gap with color flow crossing the septum?

Ventricular septal decfect

What are the 2 other names for atrioventricular septal defects?

1) endocardial cushion defect 2) AV canal defect

Lack of development of the central part of the heart is called?

Atrioventricular septal defects

What is it called when the tricuspid valve is incorrectly positioned apically within the right ventricle?

Ebstein anomaly

What is the most common fetal cardiac tumor?

Rhabdomyoma

Echogenic intracardiac focus can be a marker for what trisomy?

Trisomy 21

A calcification of papillary muscle or chordae tendonae usually seen in the left ventricle is associated with what heart pathology?

Echogenic intracardiac focus

______ ________ are findings that can be normal or may indicate a syndrome

Soft markers

When the heart is located outside the chest through a defefct in the sternum this is called?

Ectopia cordis

What enzyme is elevated with ectopia cordis?

AFP

What vessels are switched for transposition of great vessels?

Aorta and main pulmonary artery

Narrowing the aortic arch is called?

Coarctation of Aorta

Coarctation of the aorta is common located between what 2 vessels?

Left subclavian artery and ductus arteriosus

Fluid located around the heart is called?

Pericardial effusion

Underdevelopment of lungs is called?

Pulmonary hypoplasia

What is the most common cause of a chest mass causing pulmonary hypoplasia?

Diaphgramatic hernia

What is the most common chest mass?

Diaphragmatic hernia

Diaphragmatic hernias are commonly located on what side?

Left

A left sided diaphragmatic hernia is called?

Bochdalek hernia

A right sided diaphragmatic hernia is a hernia through what foramen?

Foramen of morgagni

A mass consisting of abnormal bronchial and lung tissue is called?

Congenital Pulmonary airway malformation

What is another name for congenital pulmonary airway malformation?

Cystic adenomatoid malformation

An echogenic mass of nonfunctioning lung tissue with its own blood supply is called?

Pulmonary sequestration

What describes transposition of the great vessels? a) overriding aorta and abnormal pulmonary artery b) aorta arises from the left ventricle and pulmonary artery from right ventricle c) aorta arises from right ventricle and pulmonary artery from left ventricle d) both aorta and pulmonary artery arises from common trunk

c) aorta arises from right ventricle and pulmonary artery from left ventricle

In the presence of an echogenic chest mass, what scanning technique is most diagnostically helpful? a) 3D volume rendering of the fetal thorax b) color imaging of descending aorta c) pulsed doppler of pulmonary arteries d) b-mode imaging of cardiac malpositioning

b) color imaging of descending aorta

A fetus with hydrops is undergoing fetal echocardiography. A large echogenic lesion is noted projecting into the left ventricle. What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings? a) echogenic intracardiac focus b) rhabdomyoma c) enlarged papillary muscle d) cardiac teratoma

b) rhabdomyoma -Rhabdomyoma is the most common cardiac tumor

What structure is abnormal in the presence of Ebsteins anomaly? a) moderator band b) mitral valve c) descending aorta d) tricuspid valve

d) tricuspid valve

What is the distinguishing feature of pulmonary sequestration versus congenital pulmonary adenomatoid malformation? a) pulmonary sequestration is an echogenic chest mass b) pulmonary sequestration is always noted on the left side of the chest c) pulmonary sequestration has an independent blood supply d) pulmonary sequestration is not related to cardiac malpositioning

d) pulmonary sequestration is not related to cardiac malpositioning

What cardiac view and scanning plane is best for accurate diagnosis of coarctation? a) three vessel view in axial plane b) long axis 4 chamber view c) axial view of right ventricular outflow tract d) sagittal plane of aortic arch

d) sagittal plane of aortic arch

What is the most common congenital cardiac anomaly? a) hypoplastic left heart b) ventricular septal defect c) atrial septal defect d) rhabdomyoma

b) ventricular septal defect

Upon evaluation of the fetal thorax, cardiac malpositioning is documented. What is the most likely cause of this finding? a) congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation b) diaphragmatic hernia c) pulmonary sequestration d) ectopia cordis

b) diaphragmatic hernia

How many bones make up the skull?

The _______ ______ is the opening in the base of the cranium that allows passage of the spinal canal

Foramen magnum

What part of the brain has 2 hemispheres that are divided by interhemispheric fissures?

Cerebrum

Name the 3 layers of meninges

1) pia mater (inner layer) 2) arachnoid (middle layer) 3) dura mater (outer layer)

The ______ ______ is a double fold of dura mater which separates the 2 hemispheres

Falx cerebri

What brain structure is box shaped seen between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles?

Cava septum pellucidum

What structure is used as a landmark for the corpus callosum

CSP

What structure is a bridge between 2 hemispheres and provides communication between the 2 sides

Corpus Callosum

Which of the following structures may be viewed while performing a BPD measurement? a) cerebellum b) corpus callosum c) 4th ventricle d) 3rd ventricle

d) 3rd ventricle

Which of the following is a midline brain structure? a) thalamus b) cerebellar vermis c) cerebellum d) choroid plexus

b) cerebellar vermis

Name the 6 midline structures in the brain

1) all falxes/fissures 2) cerebellar vermis 3) corpus callosum 4) CSP 5) 3rd ventricle 6) 4th ventricle

Name the 4 structures in the brain that are not midline

1) lateral ventricles 2) thalamus 3) cerebellum 4) cerebrum

What is the most accurate for gestational age in the 2nd trimester?

Head circumference

To get a HC at what level must be the brain?

Level of the thalamus

What structures should NOT be included when getting a head measurement?

1) cerebellum 2) cisterna magnum 3) orbits

What is the correct way to measure the BPD?

leading edge to leading edge or outer to inner

What getting a HC what should NOT be included?

Scalp

What is the normal range for a cisterna magna measurement?

2-10 mm

Where should the calipers be placed when doing a nuchal thickness measurment?

Outer cranium to outer skin

What is a normal NT measurment?

< 6mm

The 3rd ventricle connects the 4th ventricle through what aqueduct?

Aqueduct of Sylvius

What scanning plane should the NT be assessed? a) sagittal b) coronal c) axial d) oblique

c) axial

What should the calipers include when obtaining the HC? a) outer cranium not included scalp thickness b) outer cranium including scalp thickness c) inner cranial margin d) outer cranium to inner cranium

a) outer cranium not included scalp thickness

What is the normal cephalix index?

0.75-0.85

A flattened head is called?

Dolichocephaly

A circular head is called?

Brachycephaly

What is the communication between the 2 cerebral hemispheres? a) falx cerebri b) CSP c) interhemispheric fissure d) corpus callosum

d) corpus callosum

What biometry measurement performed after 14 weeks is the most accurate estimation of GA? a) AC b) HC c) CRL d) BPD

b) HC

What most accurately describes caliper placement for the BPD? a) outer edge of the anterior parietal bone to the outer edge of the posterior parietal bone b) posterior margin of the anterior cranial edge to the anterior margin of the posterior cranial c) anterior margin of anterior calvarial echo to the posterior margin of the posterior calvarial echo d) anterior margin of the superficial cranial echo to the anterior margin of the deep cranial echo

d) anterior margin of the superficial cranial echo to the anterior margin of the deep cranial echo

Which of the following is considered a midline brain structure? a) 3rd ventricle b) cerebellum c) thalamus d) choroid plexus

a) 3rd ventricle

Visualization of what structure would be inappropriate if included in the BPD measurement? a) falx cerebri b) cerebellum c) CSP d) 3rd ventricle

b) cerebellum

What is the correct location for assessment of the lateral ventricles? a) atrium b) anterior horn c) posterior horn d) occipital

a) atrium

Cerebral spinal fluid flows from the 3rd to the 4th ventricle through what? a) aqueduct of sylvius b) aqeuduct of bochdalek c) foramen of monro d) foramina of lushka

a) aqueduct of sylvius

What is the upper limit of normal for the measurement of the lateral ventricles? a) 3mm b) 6mm c) 12 mm d) 10 mm

d) 10 mm

What is another name for Ventriculomegaly?

Hydrocephalus

What is the most common brain abnormality?

Hydrocephalus

Ventriculomegaly due to obstruction is termed?

Hydrocephaly

The lateral ventricles must measure greater than how many mm to be hydrocephalus?

10 mm

What is the most common cause of hydrocephalus?

Aqueductal stenosis

During aqueductal stenosis the cerebral aqueduct cause dilatation of what 2 vessels?

3rd and lateral ventricles

Varying degrees of absence of midline and fusion of non-midline brain structures starting anteriorly is associated with what brain pathology?

Holoprosencephaly

Holoprosencephaly has a strong association with what syndrome?

Trisomy 13 Patau syndrome

Name the 3 degrees of severity of holoprosencephaly

1) lobar 2) semilobar 3) alobar

Heart shaped frontal horns with minimal fusion is what degree of severity of holoprosencephaly

Lobar

Partial fusion with a butterfly shaped lateral ventricle is what degree of severity of holoprosencephaly?

Semilobar

What is the most severe form of holoprosencephaly?

Alobar

No midline separation of hemispheres with a horseshoe shaped monoventricle is what degree of holoprosencephaly?

Alobar

Absence or defect of the cerebellar vermis causing 4th ventricle to dilate and cisterna magna to enlarge is associated with what brain pathology?

Dandy walker malformation

For dandy walker malformation the cisterna magna must measure greater than how many mm?

10 mm

An anechoic tubular mass midline brain with turbulent color flow patterns is associated with what brain pathology?

Vein of Galen aneurysm

Vein of Galen aneurysm is associated with what 2 things?

1) CHF 2) hydrops

Splayed frontal horns with a teardrop shaped lateral ventricle is termed?

Colpocephaly

A soft marker for Trisomy 18 Edwards syndrome is associated with what brain pathology?

choroid plexus cysts

Fluid filled clefts within the cerebrum is termed?

Schizencephaly

A cyst that communicates with the ventricular system caused by hemorrhage, ischemia, and vascular occlusions is termed?

Porencephaly

Smooth brain is termed?

Lissencephaly

No sulci/gyri within the cortex is termed?

Agyria

What is the most common intracranial tumor?

Teratoma

Which defect demonstrates an absent falx cerebri and an monoventricle? a) lobar holoprosencephaly b) alobar holoprosencephaly c) dandy walker malformation d) hydranencephalus

b) alobar holoprosencephaly

Intracranial findings holoprosencephaly, cyclopia, and cleft lip are associated with which syndrome? a) Trisomy 18 b dolichocephaly c) Patau syndrome d) dandy walker

c) Patau syndrome

A fluid filled cranium with no definite cerebral cortex is identified in a 21 week fetus.. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) Hydranencephalus b) severe hydrocephaly c) holoprosencephaly d) lissencephaly

a) Hydranencephalus

What does a cephalic index of less than 0.75 indicate? a) ventriculomegaly b) dolichocephaly c) microcephaly d) brachycephaly

b) dolichocephaly

Lack of visualization of the CSP aids in the diagnosing of what intracranial defect? a) agenesis of the corpus callosum b) aqueductual stenosis c) porencephaly d) hydranencephaly

a) agenesis of the corpus callosum

What anomaly is the dangling choroid sign significant of? a) acrania b) hydrocephalus c) dandy walker malformation d) hydranencephaly

b) hydrocephalus

The sonographic findings included a cisterna magna measuring 1.2 cm with a dilated 4th ventricle. What will most likely be the diagnosis? a) mega cisterna magna b) schizencephaly c) ventriculomegaly d) dandy walker malformation

d) dandy walker malformation

What supplement is taken to reduce the risk of neural tube defects?

folate or folic acid

Name the 2 most common neural tube defects

1) Anencephaly 2) spina bifida

What neural tube defect has no cerebral hemispheres and in a coronal view you'll see frog like bulging eyes?

Anencephaly

What neural tube defect has a normal amount of brain tissue/no skull and will appear as a misshapen head with no hyperechoic bone surrounding the head?

Exencephaly

What are the 2 types of spina bifida?

1) occulta (closed) 2) aperta (open)

What type of spina bifida is covered by skin with no herniation of the spinal cord outside the body with a defect in the vertebrae only?

Spina bifida occulta (closed)

What is the most common spina bifida?

Spina bifida aperta (open)

Spina bifida aperta is strongly associated with what?

Arnold chiari 2 malformation

what type of spina bifida is not covered by skin and results in herniation of spinal conents?

Spina bifida aperta

The presence of an open spina bifida that pulls down on the spinal contents causing cranial malformations is called?

Arnold-chiari 2 malformation

what are 2 other names for an open spina bifida?

1) meningocele 2) myelomeningocele

A lemon shaped head, banana cerebellum, and obliterated cisterna magna are associated with what malformation?

Arnold-chiari 2 malformation

Which of the following would most likely be related to elevated levels of AFP? a) arnold-chiari malformation b) spina bifida occulta c) dandy walker malformation d) lissencephaly

a) arnold-chiari malformation

Which of the following conditions would most likely be associated with a false negative obstetrical anatomy scan? a) iniencephaly b) anterior encephalocele c) meningocele d) spina bifida occulta

d) spina bifida occulta

What neural tube defect can be found in the presence of a clinically normal AFP maternal serum value? a) cephalocele b) meningocele c) exencephaly d) iniencephaly

d) iniencephaly

What syndrome is most likely associated with the presence of an occipital encephalocele? a) potters syndrome b) edwards syndrome c) patau syndrome d) meckel-gruber syndrome

d) meckel-gruber syndrome

Sonographic evaluation reveals hyperextension of the fetal neck. This indicated diagnosis of? a) iniencephaly b) lissencephaly c) scoliosis d) exencephaly

a) iniencephaly

Which fetal anomaly is most likely diagnosed by the end of the first trimester? a) ventricular septal defect b) spina bifida c) dandy walker malformation d) acrania

d) acrania

What is the most likely diagnosis in a fetus with an absent cranial vault but present brain tissue? a) anencephaly b) exencephaly c) iniencephaly d) schizencephaly

b) exencephaly

What cranial shape is related to spina bifida? a) lemon head b) banana sign c) strawberry skull d) spaulding

a) lemon head

What defect can be present with documentation of a normal posterior fossa? a) dandy walker malformation b) myelomeningocele c) occipital encephalocele d) spina bifida occulta

d) spina bifida occulta

What lab value would be elevated in the presence of a neural tube defect? a) folate b) AFP c) hCG d) inhibin-A

b) AFP

Calipers are placed at the medial margin of one orbit to the medial margin of the contralateral orbit. What measurement is being taken? a) interocular b) ocular c) intraocular d) binocular

a) interocular - Medial to medial is inner to inner.

An isolated finding of macroglossia would most likely be consistent with what diagnosis? a) down syndrome b) beckwidth-wiedmann syndrome c) potters syndrome d) turners syndrome

b) beckwidth-wiedmann syndrome

What scanning plane would be best to confirm presence of micrognathia? a) sagittal b) transverse c) coronal d) axial

a) sagittal -micrognathia is a small recessed chin and mandible. the profile view normalizes the chin

What is the upper limit of normal for the nuchal fold thickness measurement? a) 5.9mm b) 6.5mm c) 10mm d) 3mm

a) 5.9mm

What is the best sonographic plane to evaluate for the presence of a cleft lip? a) transverse b) coronal c) sagittal d) axial

b) coronal

What facial abnormality is most likely associated with Edwards syndrome? a) macroglossia b) micrognathia c) micropthalmia d) hypertelorism

b) micrognathia

In order to measure accurately the inner orbital measurement, where should the calipers be placed? a) medial margin to medial margin b) medial margin to lateral margin c) lateral margin to lateral margin d) lateral margin to medial margin

a) medial margin to medial margin

What additional abnormality would most likely be associated with a thickened nuchal fold? a) micrognathia b) proboscis c) echogenic intracardiac focus d) choroid plexus cysts

c) echogenic intracardiac focus

The cranial and spinal bones make up the _______ skeleton

Axial

The bones of the limbs and pelvis make up the _________ skeleon

Appendicular

Abnormal curvature laterally or S-shaped is what type of curvature?

Scoliosis

Abnormal posterior curvature is what type of curvature?

Kyphosis

What is another name for limb body wall complex?

body stalk anomaly

What skeletal dysplasia is related to dwarfisim?

Achondroplasia

what is the most common non-lethal dysplasia?

Heterozygous achondroplasia

What type of achondroplasia is autosomal dominant?

Heterozygous

What type of achondroplasia is autosomal recessive and fatal?

Homozygous

What type of skeletal dysplasia is a rare lethal condition that has absent mineralization/ossification of bones specifically in the pelvis, spine and cranium

Achondrogensis

What is the most common lethal dysplasia?

Thanatophoric dysplasia

What skeletal dysplasia results in abnormal shaped bone growth and death secondary to pulmonary hypoplasia?

Thanatophoric dysplasia

What is another name for caudal regression syndrome?

Sacral agenesis

Absence of the sacrum and coccyx with defects in the lumbar spine and lower limbers is associated with what skeletal dsyplasia?

Caudal regression syndrome

What skeletal dysplasia has a strong association with uncontrolled maternal diabetes/diabetes mellitus?

Caudal regression syndrome

Mermaid syndrome is related to what skeletal dysplasia?

Sirenomelia

Fusion of the lower extremities with bilateral renal agensis is associated with what skeletal dysplasia?

Sirenomelia

A germ cell tumor seen as a complex mass extending posteriorly and inferiorly from the distal spine that is seen more commonly in female is what skeletal dysplasia?

Sacrococygeal teratoma

What is another name for club foot?

Talipes Equinovarus

Club foot is associated with what trisomy?

Trisomy 13

A rounded bottom of foot with a normal foot/ankle angle is what type of abnormal foot?

Rockerbottom

Rocker bottom foot is associated with what Trisomy?

Trisomy 18

Sandal gap is associated with what trisomy?

Trisomy 21

Polydactyly is associated with what trisomy?

Trisomy 13

Clinodactyly is associated with what trisomy?

Trisomy 18

Syndactyly is associated with what trisomy?

Triploidy

What does TAR syndrome stand for?

Thrombocytopenia Absent Radius

sonographic findings include facial clefts and fetal amputations. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) amniotic band syndrome b) limb body wall complex c) radial ray defect d) caudal regression

a) amniotic band syndrome

What does the V in VACTERL signify? a) Velamentous insertion b) Ventriculomegaly c) Ventricular septal defect d) Vertebral

d) Vertebral

Craniosyntosis will cause an abnormal head shape in the presence of what skeletal condition? a) spina bifida b) osteogenesis imperfecta c) edwards syndrome d) thanatophoric dysplasia

d) thanatophoric dysplasia

a 23 week gestation sonogram documents findings of macrocrania and a discernible space between the 3rd and 4th digits of the hand. What condition is likely to be indicated? a) Osteogenesis imperfecta b) caudal regression syndrome c) thanatophoric dysplasia d) achondroplasia

d) achondroplasia

When performing a measurement of the femur bone, which most accurately describes the correct technique? a) At perpendicular incidence include entire femoral diaphysis b) angling beam as close to parallel as possible include femoral shaft only c) at perpendicular incidence including both femoral shaft and epiphysis d) at oblique incidence including diaphysis but excluding epiphysis

a) At perpendicular incidence include entire femoral diaphysis

What would most likely be related to findings of talipes equinovarus? a) Trisomy 21 b) Trisomy 13 c) Potters syndrome d) Edwards syndrome

b) Trisomy 13

What term describes disproportionate limb shortening in which the proximal limb is shorter than the distal limb? a) Rhizomelia b) Sirenomelia c) Micromelia d) Dysmelia

a) Rhizomelia

What deformity is more frequently associated with a fetus with Patau syndrome? a) club foot b) clinodactyly c) trident hand d) sandal gap foot

a) club foot

What clinical finding is most likely associated with the diagnosis of caudal regression syndrome? a) Elevated AFP b) diabetes mellitus c) gestational diabetes d) folate deficiency

b) diabetes mellitus

At 28 week gestation, the cranium appears to flatten with a probe compression technique. What diagnosis is most likely suspected? a) Achondrogenesis b) Thanatophoric dysplasia c) osteogenesis imperfecta d) achondorplasia

c) osteogenesis imperfecta

Which anomaly would most often present with elevated AFP? a) Limb body wall complex b) thanatophoric dysplasia c) scoliokyphosis d) spina bifida occulta

a) Limb body wall complex

What fetal organ produces amniotic fluid?

Kidneys

GI abnormalities most often result in?

Polyhydraminos

What is the upper limit of normal to be considered polyhydraminos?

24 cm

In relation to the diaphgram where is the stomach located?

Inferior

How often should the stomach empty or fill?

Every 30 minutes

The cord insertion is _______ to the level of the kidneys

Inferior

Absence of a section of the stomach is called?

Esophageal atresia

During esophageal atresia the esophagus and trachea form what kind of connection?

Tracheoesophageal fistula

What 2 thing is esophageal atresia associated with?

1) VACTERL 2) Trisomy 18

Sonographically if the stomach is not visualized and there is polyhydraminos what pathology is most likely present?

Esophageal Atresia

The double bubble sign is associated with what pathology ?

Duodenal atresia

Duodenal atresia is associated with what trisomy?

Trisomy 21

What is the most common type of colonic atresia that leads to bowel obstruction?

Anorectal atresia

A functional bowel obstruction caused by the absence of nerves within the bowel is called?

Hirschsprung disease

Bowel that is bright as bone and is associated with Trisomy 21 and cystic fibrosis is most likely?

Echogenic bowel

What is the most common malignant abdominal mass in neonates?

Neuroblastoma

A neuroblastoma is what type of tumor?

Adrenal gland

What is the most common abnormality of the liver?

Hepatomegaly

A herniation of bowel through an opening on the right side of cord insertion is most likely what abdominal wall defect?

Gastroschisis

Persistent herniation of bowel and possibly other organs into the base of the umbilical cord after 12 weeks is most likely what abdominal wall defect?

Omphalocele

An omphalocele has a very strong association with what 3 abonormalities?

1) Trisomy 18 2) Trisomy 13 3) Pentalogy of Cantrell

Polyhydraminos is most often related to conditions involving which fetal system? a) GI b) Skeletal c) Cardiac d) Renal

a) GI

Which of the following maternal serum lab values would be significant in the presence of an abdominal wall defect? a) PAPP-A b) Inhibin-A c) hCG d) AFP

d) AFP

Which of the following findings is most likely associated with the presence of an omphalocele? a) Elevated AFP b) turners syndrome c) Oligohydramnios d) Trisomy 13

d) Trisomy 13

Sonographic evaluation at a 22 week gestation reveals non-normalization of the fetal stomach and polyhydramnios. What diagnosis is most likely based on those findings? a) duodenal atresia b) esophageal atresia c) bilateral renal atresia d) diaphragmatic hernia

b) esophageal atresia

What anatomical structure should be normalized in the presence of polyhydramnios? a) Kidneys b) stomach c) cord insertion d) diaphgram

b) stomach

What organ is most often contained inside an omphalocele? a) liver b) stomach c) small bowel d) pancreas

c) small bowel

What GI condition is likely to be associated with downs syndrome? a) Esophageal atresia b) tracheoesophageal fistula c) duodenal atresia d) hirschsprung disease

c) duodenal atresia

The fetal kidneys form in the pelvis and rise to the renal fossa by how may weeks?

9 weeks

At how many weeks are the kidneys fully functional?

10 weeks

Renal abnormalities are the most frequent cause of _________

oligohydraminos

An AFI of <5 cm and a DVP of <2 cm indicates what?

Olgiohyraminos

What is the most common renal anomaly?

Duplicated/double collecting system

Failure of the kidneys to form is called?

Renal agensis

Which PKD is associated with infantile?

Autosomal recessive

Which PKD is associated with adults?

Autosomal dominant

Which type of PKD has enlarged echogenic non functioning kidneys with an absent bladder?

Infantile PKD

Which type of PKD has bilateral enlarged echogenic kidneys that may be functioning and may be normal?

Adult PKD

What is another name for multicystic dysplastic renal disease?

Multicystic renal dysplasia

What kidney disease is caused by early renal obstruction?

Obstructive cystic dysplasia

What kidney disease is when the kidney becomes small and echogenic with peripheral renal cysts?

Obstructive cystic dysplasia

What is the most common fetal abnormality in an urinary tract obstruction?

Hydronephrosis

What are the 3 other names for an urinary tract obstruction?

1) pelvocaliectasis 2) pelviectasis/ pyelectasis 3) caliectasis

Obstruction at the level of the ureteropelvic junction will cause which of the following additional findings? a) dilation of the bladder, uterus, and both kidneys b) hydronephrosis c) megacystis d) dilatation of ureters and kidneys only

b) hydronephrosis

By what gestational age is the majority of amniotic fluid made up of fetal urine? a) 12 weeks b) 28 weeks c) 16 weeks d) 9 weeks

c) 16 weeks

Second trimester findings of oligohydraminos warrant a careful investigation of what? a) GI defects b) pulmonary anomalies c) neural tube defects d) renal abnormalities

d) renal abnormalities

Which of the following anomalies would most likely be associated with oligohydraminos? a) autosomal dominant PKD b) unilateral renal agensis c) duodenal atresia d) bilateral multicystic renal dysplasia

d) bilateral multicystic renal dysplasia

What level of obstruction is the most common reason for fetal hydronephrosis a) UPJ b) UVJ c) urethra d) cloacal extrophy

a) UPJ

What is the most frequently occurring fetal abnormality? a) Hydronephrosis b) pelvic kidney c) diaphragmatic hernia d) ventricular septal defect

a) Hydronephrosis

Which sonographic technique is best suited for the assessment of hydronephrosis? a) coronal b) sagittal c) axial

c) axial

What anatomical structure is most likely included with cloacal abnormalities? a) kidneys b) cord insertion c) large bowel d) liver

c) large bowel

The renal condition most often associated with Meckel-Gruber syndrome is which of the following? a) autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease b) horseshoe kidney c) bilateral obstructive cystic dsyplasia d) multicystic dysplastic kidney

a) autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

What abnormality would be considered a cause of oligohydramnios? a) unilateral renal agenesis b) renal compensatory hypertrophy c) autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease d) autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

d) autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

Sonographic findings include hydronephrosis and hydroureter. What is the level of obstruction? a) distal bowel obstruction b) ureteropelvic junction c) ureterovesicular junction d) posterior urethral valve

c) ureterovesicular junction

How many chromosomes are there with a trisomy? a) 46 b) 23 c) 69 d) 47

d) 47

What is considered advanced maternal age? a) >30 b) > 45 c) > 35 d) > 40

c) >35

What euploid fetus can have macroglossia? a) VACTERL b) Meckel-Gruber c) Beckwith-Wiedemann d) Downs syndrome

c) Beckwith-Wiedemann

What is most often diagnosed in the presence of a cystic hygroma, renal anomalies, and hydrops? a) Amniotic band syndrome b) Meckel-Gruber c) Trisomy 21 d) Turner syndrome

d) Turner syndrome

What findings are most likely to be documented in the presence of Meckel-Gruber syndrome? a) bilateral renal agenesis and oligohydramnios b) PKD and encephalocele c) Macroglossia and hepatomegaly d) ectopia cordis and omphalocele

b) PKD and encephalocele

Documented sonographic findings include an echogenic intracardiac focus and a thickened nuchal fold. What diagnosis is most consistent with these findings? a) Monosomy X b) Trisomy 18 c) Trisomy 21 d) Trisomy 13

c) Trisomy 21

Which of the following can present with excessively high levels of hCG? a) amniotic band syndrome b) monosomy X d) pentalogy of cantrell

c) triploidy

What aneuploid is most likely to develop hydrops? a) Triploidy b) Meckel-Gruber syndrome c) Trisomy 13 d) Turners syndrome

d) Turners syndrome

Which of the following procedures directly samples fetal blood? a) Maternal serum sampling b) Chorionic villi sampling c) Amniocentesis d) cordocentesis

d) cordocentesis

What chromosomal abnormality would be suspected in the presence of fused thalami and a monoventricle? a) patau syndrome b) edwards syndrome c) dandy walker syndrome d) downs syndrome

a) patau syndrome

A quad screen reveals elevated hCG and decreased levels of AFP and estriol. These screening findings are most consisting with what aneuploid? a) Trisomy 21 b) Trisomy 13 c) Trisomy 18 d) Triploidy

a) Trisomy 21

How many chromosomes are there with triploidy? a) 69 b) 46 c) 47 d) 23

a) 69

Which sonographic finding is consistent with Trisomy 18? a) Micrognathia b) macroglossia c) Nuchal thickening d) gastroschisis

a) Micrognathia

Talipes equinovarus is a common foot anomaly related to which aneuploid? a) Trisomy 18 b) Trisomy 13 c) Trisomy 21 d) Triploidy

b) Trisomy 13

What fetal anomaly is most likely to be present in a fetus with Turners syndrome? a) holoprosencephaly b) spina bifida cystica c) cystic hygroma d) micrognathia

c) cystic hygroma

What is another name for an Acardiac twin?

TRAP sequence

What body part is the most common for conjoined twins to occur?

Thoracopagus (chest)

What does the chorion form?

1) gestational sac 2) placenta

The amnion is the inner membrane and goes with the ______ _______

yolk sac

Zygotic cleavage at day 3 after fertilization will result in what type of gestation? a) Dichorionic/Diamniotic b) Dichorionic/Monoamniotic c) Monochorionic/diamniotic d) Monochorionic/Monoamniotic

a) Dichorionic/Diamniotic fluid

What is the most likely initial indication of twin to twin transfusion syndrome? a) Monoamniotic twinning b) abnormal doppler patterns c) presence of hydrops d) growth discordance

d) growth discordance

How many placentas are present in a trichorionic gestation? a) One shared between 3 sacs b) Two fused and one independent c) 3 separate d) Any combination

c) 3 separate

What will result if a single fertilized ovum undergoes cleavage at 5 days after fertilization? a) dichorionic/monoamniotic b) dichorionic/diamniotic c) monochorionic/diamniotic d) monochorionic/monamniotic

c) monochorionic/diamniotic

In the second trimester, what is the most reliable technique of determining the chorionicity? a) presence of separating membrane b) counting the yolk sacs c) counting the number of placentas d) analyzing the junction of the membrane and placenta

d) analyzing the junction of the membrane and placenta

What is the average delivery age for twins? a) 36 weeks b) 34 weeks c) 38 weeks d) 32 weeks

a) 36 weeks

What is the most common type of twin gestation? a) dizygotic b) Bizygotic c) Trizygotic d) Monozygotic

a) dizygotic

A dichorionic/diamniotic gestation will have how many of the following? a) 2 GS, 1 placenta, 2 amnions, 2 Ys b) 1 GS, 1 placenta, 2 amnion, 2 YS c) 1 GS, 1 placenta, 2 amnions, 1 YS d) 2 GS, 2 placentas, 2 amnions, 2 YS

d) 2 GS, 2 placentas, 2 amnions, 2 YS

What is the term that describes the demise of one twin and resulting reabsorption into the body? a) Twin embolization syndrome b) Fetus papraceous c) TRAP sequence d) Vanishing twin

d) Vanishing twin

A monochrionic/diamniotic gestation will have how many of the following? a) 1GS, 2 placentas, 1 amnion, 2 YS b) 1 GS, 1 placenta, 1 amnion, 2 YS c) 1 GS, 1 placenta, 2 amnions, 1 YS d) 1 GS, 1 placenta, 2 amnions, 2 YS

d) 1 GS, 1 placenta, 2 amnions, 2 YS

What additional sonographic evidence will indicate the presence of singular or multiple amnions? a) Number of GS b) Number of YS c) Number of placentas d) Number of fetal poles

b) Number of YS

My ultrasoundtutor quizzes (Part 2 OB) Flashcards

obstetrics (345 cards)