Mycobacterium Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

Characteristics of Mycobacteria

A

 acid-fast, aerobic, non-spore-forming bacilli
– related to Nocardia, Corynebacterium,
Rhodococcus
 slow-growing
– require specialized media
– hydrophobic cell wall
 cell-mediated immunity
– serology unreliable
 M. tuberculosis and M. leprae are obligate
human pathogens, others are environmental
and zoonotic opportunists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Detecting Exposures

A

 PPD/TST

 IGRAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Problems with the TST

A

 False-Positive

  • BCG immunization
  • Non-TB mycobacterial infection
 False-Negative
- Technique 
- Anergy
- Very recent infection
- Infants <6 months old 
-Immunocompromise, including live virus
vaccination and overwhelming TB
-Latent TB of long standing (decades):
booster effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IGRAs

A
 Interferon-gamma release assays
– Incubate patient lymphocytes with TB antigens and detect release of IFN-γ
 Measured by ELISA or by in-situ staining and counting cells
 Three wells / tubes
– Control
– Mitogen
– Recombinant MTB antigen
 May replace the PPD
– Single blood draw rather than 2 visits
– No subjectivity in interpretation
– Expensive, limited data so far
 Operationally Complex
– Requires viable, functional PBMCs; rapid transportation and processing.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Collecting Specimens

A
 Pulmonary TB
– multiple (x3) sputa
 AM sputum is optimal
 No assessment of specimen quality
– morning gastric aspirate in children
– bronchoscopy specimens
 Immunosuppressed patients
– atypical presentations; culture blood, urine, stool, bone marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Specimen Processing

A
 Objectives -- Sputum (and stool)
– eliminate contaminating flora
– digest solid material and release mycobacteria
– concentrate mycobacteria
 Procedure
– NaOH ± N-acetyl-cysteine
– centrifuge
– Neutralize, add albumin to stabilize, continue with staining and culture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Staining Methods

A
 Kinyoun or Ziehl-Neelson
– conventional microscopy
 fluorochrome
– requires fluorescent microscope
– allows more rapid screening
– AFB appear as golden fluorescent rods
 semiquantitate by
counting bacilli/hpf
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AFB Stain – Clinical Characteristics

A
 TAT: usually done daily
 Sensitivity in pulmonary TB
– 20-60% sensitivity (per specimen)
– ~90% for 3 or more sputa
 Specificity
– ~90% in US populations
– higher in high-incidence areas
– depends primarily on incidence of non-TB
disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Molecular Amplification

A

 Detection of mycobacterial DNA or RNA
– PCR & TMA
 Clinical properties:
– TAT: daily or a few times/week
– analytically: 10-100X more sensitive than smear
– clinically: ~80-90% sensitivity (per specimen)
– Provides species identification of M. tb only
– false + from contamination or therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

A
  • Target DNA + Primer oligonucleotides (present in excess)
  • Split DNA strands (95oC 5 min), then allow primers to bind (40-70oC)
  • DNA polymerase extends the primers (40-80oC) to produce two new double-stranded molecules
  • Repeat the split-bind-extend cycle
  • This ‘short product’ amplifies exponentially in subsequent split-bind-extend cycles, driven by the temperature changes in a ‘thermal cycler’.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Transcription-Mediated Amplification (TMA)

A
  • Target DNA OR RNA + Primer oligonucleotides (in excess, contains RNA pol site)
  • Reverse transcriptase extends primer, making DNA copy (from either RNA or DNA template)
  • RT also replaces RNA template with DNA
  • RNA polymerase uses the new binding site to make 10-1000 RNA molecules that can feed back into reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Molecular Tests for TB

A
 Gen-Probe AMTD
– Now approved for smear-positive and smear-negative specimens
– rRNA target
 Amplicor M. tuberculosis assay
– Approved for smear-positives
– DNA target
 Other systems in development
 Clinically similar, choice depends on technical, economic, operational details
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cultures: Solid Media

A

 Media types
– Egg-based: Lowenstein-Jensen (L-J)
& derivatives
– Synthetic: Middlebrook 7H10-11 plates (and analogous broths)
 Clinical Properties
– Detect 66% of M. tb in 4 weeks, 90% in 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cultures: Rapid Broth Methods

A

 Systems
– Bactec radiometric (460) system
– Organon-Teknika & Bactec nonradiometric
systems
– All detect CO2 production
– MGIT fluorometric system, detects O2 consumption
 Clinical Properties
– Radiometric Bactec detects 66% of M. tb in 2 weeks, 90% in 4 weeks
– Newer systems similar
 Current practice is to use both rapid broth and solid media for all cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cultures: Incubation and Reading

A
 5-10% CO2 stimulates primary growth
 Solid media
– place in gas-permeable bags
– read 2x/week to 4 weeks, then weekly to 8
– 37oC except for skin cultures at 30-32
– hemin, blood, or SBA for suspected M. hemophilum
 BACTEC
– read 2-3x/week x 3 weeks, weekly to 8
– GI >10 is positive
 Continuous-monitoring systems
– MGIT and BacT/Alert
 Current practice is to use both rapid broth and solid media for all cultures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Biochemical Identification

A

 Many biochemical tests classically used for
identification of mycobacteria
– Labor-intensive, 4-6 weeks to ID
 Molecular and HPLC now used for most clinical purposes
 Growth characteristics (pigmentation) still used as a primary screening/grouping method
 Niacin production & nitrate reduction used for TB speciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Growth & Pigmentation

A

 The Runyon groups (M. tb NOT counted)
– I. Photochromogenic: M. kansasii
– II. Scotochromogens (always pigmented): M. gordonae
– III. Nonchromogens: M. avium complex
– IV. Rapid growers: M. chelonae & fortuitum
complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Niacin/nitrate Tests

A

Used to confirm identification of M.
tuberculosis made by other methods
 M. tb complex also contains M. bovis, BCG,
and M. africanum
 M. tuberculosis is niacin/nitrate positive; M.
bovis and M. africanum are negative
 All produce a catalase that’s labile at 68oC;
most other mycobacteria produce heatstable
catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Molecular Identification

A
 Accuprobe by Genprobe
 16s rRNA probe, chemiluminescent readout
 Probes available for:
– M. tuberculosis complex
– M. avium complex
– M. kansasii
– M. gordonae
 Same-day results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Identification of Mycobacteria by HPLC

A

 Mycolic acids extracted, derivatized, and run on HPLC
 Patterns species-specific
 Same-day, but needs more growth than probes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DNA Sequencing for Mycobacterial Identification

A

 Targets
– 16S rRNA gene
–Hsp65
– rpoB
 Microseq system is FDA-approved for 16S.
 No single target is sufficient to identify all
mycobacteria to the species level.
 Expensive, labor-intensive, but likely to
expand as methods improve.

22
Q

Choice of Identification Methods

A

 Biochemicals
– In the developed world, these are mostly confirmatory and second-line methods – slow
 Molecular Probes
– First-line in relatively small-volume labs, low capital cost, fairly simple methods – same-day
 HPLC
– Method of choice for high-volume labs; more demanding but nearly as fast and much less expensive than probes
 New Molecular Approaches
– In development, not standardized, but likely to take over in the next decade or so

23
Q

Principles of Susceptibility Testing

A
 resistance in M. tuberculosis
– no transmissible/plasmid-mediated
resistance
– spontaneous mutation (1 in 105-107)
and selection
– Resistance mutations have been
characterized for the primary drugs
 slow-growing organism
 criteria
– >1% resistance has been set as the
threshold
 susceptibility testing in MOTT unstandardized except for rapidgrowers
24
Q

Proportion Method

A

 Inoculate media with defined # of M. tb cfu
 Control media: undiluted and diluted 1:100
 Antibiotic media: undiluted
 Compare control 1:100 with antibiotic colony counts
 Drugs
– Primary: isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, streptomycin, pyrazinamide
– Secondary: quinolones, ethionamide, PAS, cycloserine, others

25
Bactec Method
 Broth-based analogue of proportion method  Procedure – Control bottles: undiluted and 1:100 dilution – Antibiotic bottles: undiluted – Incubate and compare growth in antibiotic bottles with growth in 1:100 control bottle  Requires 1 week vs. 4-6 for plate method  Validated for primary drugs only
26
Drug Susceptibility – the Future
 Genes for resistance are being isolated  Direct or microarray sequencing to detect resistance mutations  This approach is already widely used in HIV
27
`Isoniazid Resistance Genes
 Most common resistance (9.1% of US isolates in 1991)  Two gene loci identified in INH resistance – katG: a catalase/peroxidase, probably responsible for transforming INH to an active drug – inhA: involved in mycolic acid synthesis, probably a direct target of INH action  Alterations in these 2 genes responsible for at least 85% of INH resistance
28
Other Drug Resistance Genes
 Rifampin resistance – rpoB, the Beta subunit of RNA polymerase  alterations in this locus responsible for >95% of RMP resistance  Pyrazinamide resistance – pncA, pyrazinamidase, cleaves pyrazinamide to pyrazinoic acid – PZA inhibits a fatty acid synthetase; resistance mutations in this locus as well  Streptomycin resistance – rpsL, S12 ribosomal protein – rrs, 16S ribosomal RNA
29
Mycobacterial Disease by Organism
```  M. tuberculosis & complex  M. avium complex  M. kansasii  Rapid growers  M. leprae  M. gordonae  Other MOTT of special interest ```
30
M. tuberculosis -- Primary Tb
```  Cough +/- sputum/hemoptysis – Pleural chest pain & dyspnea – Systemic symptoms  Asymmetric hilar adenopathy – associated consolidation – +/- pleural effusion  Untreated, progressive pulmonary & systemic disease – Pleural TB post-primary ```
31
M. tuberculosis -- Reactivation TB
```  Risk factors – malnutrition, immunosuppression – ESRD, diabetes, other systemic illness  Cough / Fever / Systemic symptoms – Hemoptysis in 1/3  Disease typically localized to upper lobes – apical and posterior segments – infiltration and cavitation ```
32
M. tuberculosis --With HIV
 TB is a risk factor for progression and death in HIV  HIV is a risk factor for activation of TB  At CD4 counts >500, TB is typical reactivation disease  At low CD4 counts, systemic and atypical disease common
33
Extrapulmonary TB
```  Spinal TB -- Pott’s Disease  TB Osteomyelitis  Miliary TB -- following bloodborne dissemination  Lymphadenitis (usually cervical)  GI and peritoneal  Meningitis & other CNS ```
34
M. tb complex
 M. bovis -- responsible for as much as 40% of TB in some areas – Infects cattle, but also many other animals – Disease resembles M. tb and is treated similarly  BCG -- Used for immunization, may be recovered incidentally or may cause infection after use in topical treatment of carcinoma of the bladder in situ
35
M. tuberculosis complex -- Lab Hints
 Slow-growing, rough colonies with serpentine cording  Usually identified by amplification, probe, or HPLC  Niacin producing and Nitrate reducing – M. bovis is negative for Nitrate and is PZA resistant – M. africanum is a bovis subspecies; M. microti is an animal pathogen. Both nitrate negative.  Drug resistance varies widely with geography and prior therapy
36
M. avium complex -- Immunocompetent
 Pulmonary disease primarily, in patients with underlying lung disease  multiple, cavitary lesions in smokers with COPD  nodular / bronchiectatic disease in nonsmoking, elderly women with no underlying lung disease  Lymphadenitis in children
37
M. avium complex -- Immunocompromised
```  Disseminated disease in HIV-infected – Up to 20% of infections polyclonal  Febrile wasting syndrome – Usually with CD4 count <50 – Preventable with azithromycin or rifabutin prophylaxis – Frequent GI symptoms/involvement ```
38
M. avium complex -- Lab Hints
```  Nonchromogenic, with multiple colony morphotypes on a single plate – smooth opague & domed – flat & transparent – some strains pigmented  Niacin & nitrate (-)  M. avium and M. intracellulare difficult to distinguish ```
39
M. kansasii -- Clinical
```  Resembles TB both clinically and radiographically  South & Central US, UK, Europe  Prior pulmonary disease a risk factor  Often isoniazid resistant ```
40
M. kansasii -- Lab Hints
 Photochromogen -- intense pigment  Large, beaded acid-fast rods  Nitrate (+), niacin (-)
41
Rapid growers
 Three major genogroups  Environmental organisms, ppportunistic/incidental pathogens – Frequently associated with nosocomial and device-related infections: many species.  Evolving taxonomy; multiple-target gene sequencing required for full identification.  Rapid growers -- Lab Hints – Grow in <7d on mycobacterial media when subcultured – Many strains grow well on SBA or chocolate agar – Many are arylsulfatase positive
42
Rapid growers: M. fortuitum group
 M. fortuitum –Wound infections; furunculosis associated with nail salons and foot baths. – Osteomyelitis by extension  M. peregrinum and senegalense  Seven more species within two subgroups
43
Rapid growers: M. chelonae-abscessus group
 M. chelonae – Disseminated cutaneous disease; multiple, chronic, draining nodules in compromised patients  M. abscessus – Pulmonary infections: nodular/bronciectatic disease similar to MAC; also in CF patients; – Disseminated cutaneous disease (rarer than with M. chelonae)  M. immunogenum
44
Rapid growers: M. smegmatis group
 Occasional pathogens; pigmented |  Arylsulfatase negative
45
Other Rapid Growers
 M. mucogenicum – Catheter and device-associated infections  Others
46
Leprosy
 A chronic infection with M. leprae – ~ 1 million patients in therapy – 2-3 million patients with permanent neurological damage  Acquired via contact with nasal secretions, probably through respiratory route  Dissemination to cutaneous regions
47
Leprosy -- Pathogenesis
 Manifestations depend on host response  Cellular response (tuberculoid leprosy) most effective in limiting disease  Reversal reactions related to increasing cellular response
48
Leprosy -- Clinical
 Specific guidelines exist for staging leprosy on the tuberculous-lepromatous axis – tuberculoid > borderline tuberculoid > midborderline > borderline lepromatous lepromatous  Peripheral nerve involvement is primary pathology – Increased in lepromatous forms, and in lepromatous forms undergoing reversal reactions to tuberculoid
49
M. leprae -- Lab Hints
 Not cultivable  Diagnosed by tissue pathology – skin biopsies from lesion edges & earlobes – look for AFB with modified Wade-Fite stain
50
M. gordonae
 The ‘tap-water chromogen’; has been described as a pathogen but is almost always a contaminant.  Scotochromogenic and intensely pigmented  The most common contaminant isolated in AFB cultures
51
Unusual Isolation Requirements
```  M. marinum, M. hemophilum, and M. ulcerans have growth optima around 30oC -- all cause skin lesions  M. hemophilum requires hemin for growth – can also cause systemic disease in compromised hosts  M. genavense requires human blood for growth in vitro – systemic infections in HIVinfected patients ```