MYE SPE (Cough) condensed Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

Acute vs. Chronic Bronchitis (hint: think time)?

A
  • Acute = 5+ days (usually 1-3 weeks)

- Chronic = 3+ months of year for 2 consecutive years

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2
Q

What is the MC etiology of Acute Bronchitis? Give an example of two pathogens

A

VIRAL

  • Influenza
  • Parainfluenza
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3
Q

What does the presence of purulent sputum indicate with Bronchitis?

A

NOTHING

- Purulent sputum does NOT mean bacterial infection

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4
Q

How do you dx Bronchitis?

A

Clinical

- CXR is NOT necessary (non-specific findings)

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5
Q

What is the recommended tx for Bronchitis (4)?

A

Symptomatic relief…

  • NSAIDs, ASA, Acetaminophen
  • ICS
  • Antitussives
  • Beta-2 Agonists
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6
Q

WHEN would abx be indicated in tx of Bronchitis?

A

Pertussis = BACTERIAL

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7
Q

What is the pathogen associated with Pertussis? What three sxs (triad) are associated with this condition?

A

Bordetella pertussis

  • Coughing spells (paroxysms of cough)
  • Inspiratory whoop
  • Posttussive emesis
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8
Q

What are the three phases of Pertussis (describe each), and how long does each last?

A
  1. Catarrhal = URI sxs, fever for 1-2 weeks
  2. Paroxysmal = triad of sxs (cough paroxysms, inspiratory whoop, posttussive emesis) for 2-6 weeks
  3. Convalescent = cough gradually improves for weeks/months
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9
Q

What dx test is the GOLD standard for Pertussis?

A

Culture (bacterial)

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10
Q

What is the recommended tx for Pertussis? What is an alternative option?

WHAT is the purpose of initiating tx?

A

Macrolides = Azithromycin
- Bactrim

Abx decrease transmission (do NOT resolve sxs)

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11
Q

Which are four examples of pathogens/conditions that cause cough and are reportable to the State Health Department?

A
  • Pertussis
  • COVID-19
  • Influenza
  • TB
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12
Q

What populations are at increased risk for VIRAL Bronchitis aka Influenza (7)?

A
  • Children <2
  • Adults 65+
  • Comorbidities
  • IC
  • Pregnant
  • Morbidly obese
  • Nursing home resident
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13
Q

What four symptoms are often seen with Influenza? What is the typical onset, and when is it most contagious?

A

ABRUPT onset of…

  • Fever
  • Myalgias
  • Malaise
  • HA

First 2 days

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14
Q

If outpatient, when is testing recommended for Influenza (3)? If inpatient, when is it recommended?

What additional test is also often ordered as the GOLD standard?

A

OP: NOT recommended unless high risk = 65+, children <5 years or IC

IP: ANY patient with sxs upon admission or during admission

GOLD standard = viral culture (3-10 days for results)

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15
Q

What is the MC complication of Influenza?

A

PNA

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16
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Influenza if severe or high-risk, and what is the window for giving it? How does this affect prognosis (2)?

A

Tamiflu (Oseltamivir) within 48 hours of sxs onset

- Reduces complications and shortens course by 1-2 days

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17
Q

What is the MC transmission of CAP?

A

Aspiration of oropharynx

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18
Q

What is the MC TYPICAL pathogen associated with CAP?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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19
Q

What is the MC ATYPICAL pathogen associated with CAP?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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20
Q

What is the MC etiology of CAP (and what pathogen)? What is the 2nd MC etiology (and what pathogen)?

A
  • MC = BACTERIAL: Streptococcus pneumoniae

- 2nd MC = VIRAL: Influenza

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21
Q

What three sxs are seen with TYPICAL CAP?

A
  • Acute onset
  • Fever
  • Cough
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22
Q

What three sxs may be seen with ATYPICAL CAP?

A
  • Subacute onset
  • NON-productive cough
  • Viral prodrome
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23
Q

What three PE findings are indicative of CAP (Typical or Atypical)?

A
  • Decreased breath sounds
  • Crackles/rales
  • Signs of consolidation (dullness to percussion, tactile fremitus, bronchophony, egophony)
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24
Q

What are four signs of consolidation, and what condition are these associated with?

A

CAP

  • Dullness to percussion
  • Tactile fremitus = put medial side of hand on pt back and have them say “99” with increased vibration
  • Bronchophony = spoken words louder/clearer
  • Egophony = spoken “e” heard as “a”
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25
What is the GOLD standard finding on CXR for CAP? What other two findings may be seen?
Infiltrates | - Also, consolidation and/or cavitation
26
What are three complications of PNA?
- Bacteremia (in blood) - Sepsis (bacteremia/other infection triggers systemic infection) - Abscess
27
What is CURB-65 and what condition is it associated with? What is it used to determine?
If 2+ present = admit for PNA (3+ = ICU) - Confusion - Urea of 7+ - RR of 30+ - BP <90/60 - 65+ years old
28
What is the recommended OUTPATIENT tx for bacterial PNA if uncomplicated (1, 1) vs complicated (2, 1)?
- OP uncomplicated = Azithro OR Doxy | - OP complicated = Augmentin + Azithro OR Levofloxacin
29
What is the recommended OUTPATIENT tx for bacterial PNA if uncomplicated (2)?
- Azithromycin | - Doxy
30
What is the recommended OUTPATIENT tx for bacterial PNA if complicated (2 or 1)?
- Augmentin + Azithro | - Levofloxacin
31
What is the recommended INPATIENT tx for bacterial PNA (2, 2)?
- Augmentin + Azithro | - Augmentin + Levofloxacin
32
What is the minimum length of abx OP tx for PNA?
5 days
33
What is the dx criteria for HAP/VAP PNA (__ AND 2/3)
New/progressive lung infiltration on imaging PLUS 2+... - Fever - Purulent sputum - Leukocytosis
34
What etiology of PNA is most associated with HIV, and what is the pathogen?
FUNGAL | - Pneumocystis jirovecii
35
What two sxs are associated with PCP (Pneumocystis jirovecii) PNA? What finding is seen on CXR?
- Fever - NON-productive cough Ground glass opacities seen on CXR
36
What is the preferred tx for PCP (Pneumocystis jirovecii) PNA?
Bactrim
37
What is the MC finding seen on CXR for Aspiration PNA?
RLL infiltrate
38
What is the MC etiology and pathogen associated with Common Cold/URI?
VIRAL | - Rhinovirus
39
What four sxs are often seen with Common Cold/URI? When is it most contagious?
- NON-productive cough - Clear/watery rhinorrhea - Nasal congestion - Sore throat (dry/scratchy) First 2-3 days
40
What are two possible complications of Common Cold/URI?
- Acute rhinosinusitis | - AOM
41
What is the typical course of Common Cold/URI, and what is the treatment (2)?
SELF-LIMITING (1-2 weeks) - NSAIDs/Acetaminophen - Antihistamines (Sudafed)
42
Compare mild intermittent, mild persistent, moderate persistent and severe persistent Asthma (3 components each)?
- Mild intermittent = <2 days/week, night awake <2 x/month, FEV1 80%+ - Mild persistent = 2+ days/week, night awake 3-4 x/month, FEV1 80%+ - Moderate persistent = daily, weekly, FEV1 60-80% - Severe persistent = throughout day, awake nightly, FEV1 <60%
43
What three sxs are associated with Asthma?
- SOB - Wheezing - Cough (worse at night)
44
What two findings may be seen on sputum culture with Asthma?
- Curschmann's spirals | - Charcot-Leyden crystals
45
What are the six steps of Asthma treatment, and how do they relate to the Asthma classifications (1, 1 or 1, 1 or 2, 2 or 2, 2, 3)?
- Step 1 = Mild Intermittent: SABA PRN - Step 2 = Mild Persistent: low-dose ICS daily OR LTRA (Montelukast) - Step 3 = Moderate Persistent: medium-dose ICS daily OR low-dose ICS + LABA; consider referral - Step 4 = Severe Persistent: medium-dose ICS + LABA OR medium-dose ICS + LTRA; REFER - Step 5 = been referred: high-dose ICS + LABA - Step 6 = been referred: high-dose ICS + LABA + oral steroids
46
What six sxs are associated with GERD?
- Heartburn (30-60 min postprandial) - Regurgitation - CHRONIC COUGH - Wheezing - Hoarseness - Dental enamel loss
47
What is the recommended dx test for GERD?
Upper endoscopy
48
What is the recommended tx for GERD (2)?
1. Lifestyle modifications | 2. H2 Blockers (Ranitidine) vs. PPIs (Omeprazole)
49
What four symptoms are seen with LEFT-sided CHF?
LEFT: - DOE - PND - Orthopnea - Fatigue
50
What four symptoms are seen with RIGHT-sided CHF?
RIGHT: - JVD - Hepatic congestion - Ascites - Edema
51
What condition can present with pulsus alternans?
LEFT-sided CHF
52
What is the recommended treatment for ACUTE exacerbation of CHF (5)?
LMNOP - Lasix - Morphine - Nitrates - O2 - Position (sit up)
53
What four drugs/groups of meds can be used to treat CHF? What other patient education should be provided to CHF patients (4)?
- Loop diuretics - ACE-I - BBs - Entresto (Sacubitril/Valsartan) Can consider... - Aldosterone Antagonists - Hydralazine/Nitrates Education: weight loss, low sodium, lower fluids, daily weight monitoring
54
What two condition are you at increased risk for with Asbestosis?
- Bronchogenic Carcinoma | - Malignant Mesothelioma
55
How can you differentiate a nodule from a mass with Solitary Pulmonary Nodules (SPNs)? What is there increased chance of with a mass? What are the MC type of SPN?
- Nodule = <3 cm - Mass = 3+ cm; greater change of CA MC = infectious granulomas (TB, Cocci, abscess)
56
What three findings are indicative of a BENIGN Solitary Pulmonary Nodule (SPN)?
- SLOW growth - Round/smooth - Calcifications
57
What three findings are indicative of a MALIGNANT Solitary Pulmonary Nodule (SPN)?
- RAPID growth - Irregular/speculated - Cavitation with thick walls
58
What is the greatest RF associated with Bronchogenic Carcinoma?
SMOKING
59
What are the two types of Bronchogenic Carcinoma, and what are the subtypes of each (1, 3)?
SCLC - Oat Cell NSCLC - Adenocarcinoma - SCC (Squamous Cell) - LCC (Large Cell)
60
Which two subtypes of Bronchogenic Carcinoma present most often with cough?
- SCLC (Oat Cell CA) | - Squamous Cell CA (type of NSCLC)
61
What are three major RF associated with COPD, and which is most common?
- SMOKING = MC - Secondhand smoke - Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency
62
What three sxs are often seen with COPD?
- Excess sputum production - Cough - DOE
63
What value are the four grades of COPD based on (GOLD), and what are the four grades?
Based on FEV1... - GOLD 1 = FEV1 of 80%+ - GOLD 2 = FEV1 of 50-70% - GOLD 3 = FEV1 of 30-49% - GOLD 4 = FEV1 of <30%
64
What are the four categories of treatment of COPD (1, 2 or 2, 2, 2 or 3)
- Category A = SABA - Category B = SABA + LABA, SABA + LAMA - Category C = SABA + LAMA - Category D = SABA + LAMA, SABA+ LABA + LAMA