Myeloprolifertive Disorders Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

What is the most common gene mutation in myeloproliferative disease?

A

JAK-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is polycythaemia?

A

Increased in red cell count and PCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Over-production of red cells
Increase in Hb and Hct
May have excessive production of other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is JAK2?

A

Tyrosine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does polycythaemia rubra vera present?

A
Tiredness
Itching
Vertigo
Headache
Visual problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which group tend to present with polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

> 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What may be common when a patient with polycythaemia rubra vera is hot?

A

Itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the major complications of PRV?

A

Haemorrhage

Thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What may be found on examination of polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Cyanosis
Splenomegaly
Hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is found on FBC in PRV?

A

High Hb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does bone marrow aspirate show in PRV?

A

Hypercellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is PRV managed?

A

Venesection to get Hct <0.45
Low dose aspirin
Cytotoxic oral chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is essential thrombocythaemia?

A

Overproduction of abnormal platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does essential thrombocythaemia present?

A

Usually with thrombosis

Erythromelalgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is erythromelalagia?

A

severe burning pain, erythema and warmth at the extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is essential thrombocythaemia diagnosed?

A

Persistently high platelet count with no identifiable cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What may cause secondary polycythaemia?

A

Chronic hypoxia
Smoking
EPO-secreting tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What may cause pseudopolycythaemia?

A

Dehydration
Diuretic therapy
obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a psuedopolycythaemia?

A

When the plasma volume is reduction so the ratio seems high but the number of platelets is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the JAK2 mutation cause in PRV?

A

loss of auto-inhibitions and activation of erythropoiesis in the absence of a ligand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What cytotoxic chemo drug is given to treat PRV?

A

Hydroxycarbamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why does essential thrombocythaemia present with bleeding sometimes?

A

Causes acquired vWF disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In which scenarios may a reactive thrombosis occur?

A

Blood loss
Inflammation
Malignancy
Iron def

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which mutations may be present in essential thrombocythaemia?

A

JAK2
CALR
MPL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What diagnosis should be excluded on suspicion of essential thrombocythaemia?
CML
26
How is ET managed?
Anti-platelets Anagrelide Hydroxycarbamide Interferon alpha
27
What is the action of anagrelide?
Inhibits megakaryocyte differention
28
What is myelofibrosis?
Clonal proliferation of stem cells and abnormal myeloid cells
29
What causes the fibrosis in myelofibrosis?
Hyperplasia of abnormal megakaryocytes which release fibroblast stimulating factors
30
Give an example of a fibroblast stimulation factor
Platelet-derived growth factor
31
"Tear drop" red cells are seen in which conditions?
Idiopathic myelofibrosis
32
How does myelofibrosis present?
Marrow failure - anaemia, bleeding, infection Splenomegaly Extramedullary haemopoeisis
33
Which mutations are seen in myelofibrosis?
JAK2 | CALR
34
How is idiopathic myelofibrosis treated?
Transfusions Abx Allogenic stem cell transplant JAK2 inhibitors
35
Give an example of a JAK2 inhibitor
Ruxolitinib
36
What is the most common cause of raised cell counts?
Reactive
37
What characterises CML?
Uncontrolled growth of myeloid cells
38
Why is there less growth of non-myeloid cells in CML?
Overgrowth of myeloid cells push out the other cells and stop them growing
39
Which gene is abnormal in CML?
BCR-ABL1
40
Which chromosomal mutation is present in CML?
t(9;22) | Philadelphia chromosome
41
Where is the abnormal ABL gene in CML?
Chromosome 9
42
What is the effect of BCR-ABL mutations on DNA repair?
Inhibitory
43
Why may upper abdo pain be present in CML?
Hepatosplenomegaly
44
Why may CML cause poor appetite?
Spleen compresses stomach
45
What does FBC show in CML?
Leucocytosis Increased white cells Normocytic/normochromic anaemia
46
Why is gout more common in CML?
Increased cell turnover causes excess of purines
47
Why does CML cause dyspnoea and fatigue?
Anaemia
48
What causes the neurological defects in CML?
Hyperviscosity of the blood
49
What are the three main stages of CML?
Chronic Accelerated Blast crisis
50
Describe the chronic phase of CML
Asymptomatic | Mild fatigue or fullness
51
Describe the accelerated phase of CML
Sign that disease is progressing and blast crisis is imminent
52
What are the criteria for accelerated CML phase
Platelet counts <100,000 or >1,000,000 Increasing splenomegaly 10-19% myeloblasts >20% basophils
53
Describe the blast crisis phase of CML
Final phase which behaves like an acute leukaemia
54
What are the criteria for blast crisis CML?
>20% myeloblasts or lymphoblasts in blood or marrow Large clusters of blasts in bone marrow Chloroma
55
What is a chloroma?
Extramedullary solid collection of leukaemia cells
56
What does biochemistry show in CML?
Raised lactate dehydrogenase | Raised urate
57
What does blood film show in CML?
Granulocytes at all stages of development
58
How is CML managed?
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors | Bone marrow transplant
59
Give an example of a tyrosine kinase inhibitor?
Imatinib
60
How is response to imatinib treatment monitored?
PCR of BCAR-ABL
61
When would a bone marrow transplant be offered in CML?
No response to medical treatment Young, healthy patient Offers cure