N Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

What’s the main cause of anaemia in ckd

A

Reduced EPO ( hormone made in kidneys released during hypoxia to increase RBC production in the bone marrow)

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2
Q

Why can you get Pruitt is in ckd

A

Secondary to uraemia

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3
Q

How does CKD cause osteomalacia

A

Phosphate and calcium have a counterfeit relationship as phosphate binds to calcium reducing the amount of free calcium in the bloodstream

Therefore as calcium is low in ckd patients (due to kidneys not able to hydroxylate vit d) the phosphate levels become high which ‘drags’. Calcium out of the bones resulting in osteomalacia

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4
Q

What is minimal change disease and how is it treated

A

Nephrotic syndrome in kids (75% in kids) usually idiopathic

Features - nephrotic syndrome, normotensive, albumin in urine

Manage with oral corticosteroids

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5
Q

What is epididymo-or hit is usually spread from

A

STI - e.g. chlamydia, gonorrhoea (usually sexually active younger males)
Or the bladder - e.coli (the latter)

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6
Q

Features of multiple myeloma ?

A

Mm= Plasma cell proliferation

Features
CRABBI
C- hypercalcaemia due to osteoclastic bone resorption
R- renal damage presents as dehydration and thirst
A- anaemia - bone marrow crowding suppressing epo
B- bleeding - bone marrow crowding results in thrombocytopenia (low platelets i.e. less clotting)
B- bones- lyric bone lesions from osteoclasts presents as pain particularly back
I- infection, reduced immunoglobins

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7
Q

What is the triad of nephrotic syndrome

A

Protinuria >3g/24hr
Hypoalbuminaemia
Oedema

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8
Q

Causes of nephritic syndrome

A

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
IGA nephropathy
Alport syndrome - genetic disorder of glomerular basement membrane main affecting kids

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9
Q

Does nephrotic syndrome cause blood clots or bleeding disorders

A

Blood clots due to loss of antithrombin III and plasminogen (breaks down fibrin in clots)

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10
Q

What causes a false positive PSA - > 4NG/ML when determining if raised PSA is due to cancer?

A

Prostatitis, UTI, BPH, vigorous DRE

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11
Q

What’s the most common type of prostate cancer

A

95% are adenocarcinoma (cancer originating from glandular tissue)

Often multifocal and lie in the peripheral zone of prostate

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12
Q

What’s the sentinel lymph node for prostate cancer ?

A

Obturator nodes and Local prostatic spread to the seminal vesicles is associated with distant disease

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13
Q

What would urinalysis of acute interstitial nephritis show?

A

White cell casts with sterile Pyuria (presence of raised white cells in absence of bacteria)

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14
Q

How long to anticoagulate in provokes vs unprovoked pe

A

Provoked- 3 months e.g. surgery
Unprovoked 6 months

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15
Q

What is the most appropriate investigation for renal stones

A

Non-contrast CT KUB

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16
Q

Following radiotherapyy for prostate cancer, which cancers have an increased risk?

A

Bladder, colon, rectal

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17
Q

Are NSAIDs safe to use in an AKI

A

No as they may worsen renal function EXCEPT- aspirin if at cardiac dose e.g. 75mg od

18
Q

If a patient presents with anaemia on a background of ckd what should be looked at?

A

Despite EPO deficiency being common in those with ckd you must rule out other causes prior to starting EPO such as iron or b12 deficiency

19
Q

What is the investigation of choice for cluster eadachers

A

MRI with gadolinium contrast

20
Q

Define henoch-schonlein purpura and its presentation

A

IgA small vessel vasculitis typically seen in children following viral infection

Presents with rash from legs to buttox linked to burgers disease (IgA nephropathy), polyarthritis abdo pain

21
Q

What is the characteristic rash associated with sarcoidosis

A

Lupus pernio - bluish-red nodules and plaques over nose and cheeks

22
Q

What cancer is myasthenia gravis associated with

23
Q

After staring an ACEi what may be the cause of renal deterioration and what is normal

A

Undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis

Normally there may be a rise in creatinine )up to 30% increase from baseline) and potassium up to 5.5mmol/l

24
Q

What is the most common cause of acute urinary retention in older males

25
What is used for management of urge incontinence
Bladder retraining - min 6 weeks to slowly increase ice between voiding Anticholinergics: oxybutynin, tolterodine, (both immediat release) or darifenacin Botulin toxin type a id these fail
26
What urge incontinence medication should be avoided in frail older women or close angle glaucoma ? And what’s an be used instead
Anticholinergics/antimuscarinicse.g. Oxybutynin Use miragabegron
27
What is used to manage stress incontinece
Pelvic floor exercises- 8 contractions 3x daily for 3 months Surgical: mid-urethral tape, intramural bulking agents, colposuspension If they decline surgery- duloxetine
28
When do you give EPO for anaemia in CKD patients
After correcting iron Check iron and b12 levels prior to
29
ACEi or ARB should be started in diabetic patients with a urinary albumin-creatinine ratio if what?
3mg/mmol or higher - this indicates microalbinuria - an early marker for diabetic nephropathy so they should be started to reduce intraglomerular pressure, preventing further renal damage
30
What would you find in the urine of someone with multiple myeloma
Bence johns proteins they are called monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins when in serum
31
What is the AKI staging criteria
Stage 1: increased creatinine by 1.5-1.9x baseline/ increase creatinine >=26.5/ urine output <0.5 for 6 or more hours Stage 2: increase creatinine by 2-2.9x baseline/ urine output <0.5 for 12 or more hours Stage 3: increase creatinine by 3 or more x baseline/ urine output <0.3 for 24 or more hours
32
Use of 0.9% NaCl for fluid therapy in patients requiring large volumes gives you a risk of what type of acid-base imbalance?
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis as the access chloride disrupts the homeostatic balance with bicarbonate, causing it to fall
33
What is the management for urge incontinence
Bladder retraining (6 weeks minimum to gradually increase intervals between voiding) Bladder stabilising drugs : antimuscarinics - first line e.g. oxybutinin, tolterodine (both immediate release) or darifenacin one daily preparation
34
What urge incontinence medication should be avoided in frail older women?
35
What is the first line management for BPH
Alpha 1 antagonists - tamsulosin first line if moderate-severe voiding symptoms - relax smooth muscle in prostate and bladder neck 5 alpha reductase inhibitors- finasteride if significantly enlarged prostate and considered high risk of progression - slows disease progression but takes time - blocks conversion of testosterone to DTH (which induces BPH)
36
What is the first line screening test for autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Abdominal USS
37
What is he management for ADPKD
Tolvaptan - vsopressin receptor 2 antagonist
38
What is the management for renal stones
Renal stones: Watchful waiting : <5mm and asymptomatic 5-10mm shockwave lithotripsy 10-20mm shockwave OR uteruscopy >20mm percutaneous nephrolithotomy Uteric stones: Shockwave +/- alpha blockers 10-20mm ureteroscopy
39
HUS is generally seen in kids and produces a triad of what?
AKI Microanngiopathic haemolytic anaemia -mechanical destruction of RBCs passing through small thrombosed vessels Thrombocytopenia
40
What would you find on a blood film with HUS
Schistocytes Anaemia Thrombocytopenia
41
What is the management for HUS
Supportive
42
What is seen in the urine of someone with acute tubular necrosis
Muddy brown casts- collections of dead renal tubular cells