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N Clex Review Flashcards

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1
Q

Which classification of medications should a client with glaucoma avoid?

A

C. anticholinergics

Anticholinergics can increase intraocular pressure, which is harmful for glaucoma patients.

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2
Q

What are osmotic diuretics used for in medical treatment?

A

Osmotic diuretics are used to reduce intracranial and intraocular pressure

They help by drawing fluid out of tissues, decreasing pressure.

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3
Q

True or False: Beta-adrenergic blockers are safe for clients with glaucoma.

A

True

Beta-adrenergic blockers are often used to lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma patients.

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4
Q

Fill in the blank: Clients with glaucoma should avoid _______ due to their potential to increase intraocular pressure.

A

anticholinergics

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5
Q

What role do alpha-2 adrenergic blockers play in treating glaucoma?

A

They help lower intraocular pressure

Alpha-2 adrenergic blockers can be beneficial in managing glaucoma.

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6
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8
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9
Q

What is required for the treatment of tuberculosis?

A

Perfection requires multi-drug therapy; exposure can be managed with a single agent alone.

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10
Q

What is the exception for the use of streptomycin?

A

Streptomycin is for IM use only.

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11
Q

What should you learn to give yourself?

A

You will need to learn to give yourself subcutaneous injections.

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12
Q

What is the most appropriate activity for client care?

A

Let the client do most of the procedure and report the expected output.

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13
Q

Which option indicates that client teaching is needed?

A

The client smokes 1/2 pack of cigarettes per day.

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14
Q

What are core principles of medical asepsis?

A

Options 1, 2, and 5 are core principles of medical asepsis.

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15
Q

What should be avoided during the nadir period following chemotherapy?

A

Medications that inhibit platelet aggregation should be avoided.

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16
Q

What is an example of a medication that can be used for sinus issues?

A

Guaifenesin (Robitussin).

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17
Q

What action can reduce the spread of microorganisms?

A

Place the client in a private room.

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18
Q

What should be done after removal of gloves?

A

Handwashing should be done after removal of gloves.

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19
Q

What is the white blood cell count mentioned?

A

White blood cell count is 12,260/mm.

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20
Q

What is the serum creatinine level mentioned?

A

Serum creatinine level is 0.9 mg/dL.

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21
Q

What is encouraged to facilitate group goals?

A

Encourages the formation of self-directed work teams.

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22
Q

What type of sleep consists of equal amounts of REM and NREM sleep?

A

Light sleep.

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23
Q

What happens during crowning when the client’s partner shouts?

A

The mouth and nose cannot be suctioned during crowning because they are not accessible, nor is it timely.

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24
Q

What is the first sign of the baby’s head during delivery?

A

The nurse first starts to see a little of the baby’s head.

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25
What occurs to the baby's head between pushing contractions?
The baby's head recedes upward.
26
What is being done to the mouth and nose during crowning?
The mouth and nose are being suctioned.
27
What is an ineffective initial response by a nurse to a client's concerns?
"You're concerned about the personnel, but you have no need to worry."
28
What is a better question for exploring a client's concerns?
"Can you tell me about why you are interested in the personnel?"
29
What occurs after three defibrillation attempts?
Consciousness would only occur once the ventricular rhythm is terminated.
30
What is the correct option for an increase in the level of consciousness?
Option 3 contains the higher value.
31
What are the normal pH and serum potassium levels?
pH 7.40; serum potassium 3.8 mEq/L.
32
What is the primary medication used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias?
Lidocaine ## Footnote Lidocaine reduces ventricular irritability, making it more amenable to shock therapy.
33
What therapeutic response should the nurse expect after administering a lidocaine bolus of 100 mg IV?
A reduction in ventricular irritability
34
Which task could be most appropriately delegated to the unlicensed assistive person (UAP) for a client receiving enteral feedings via gastrostomy tube?
Administering a bath and changing bed linens
35
What laboratory values would the nurse expect to find in a client with metabolic acidosis?
pH 7.2; serum potassium 6.2 mEq/L
36
What indicates effective teaching when a laboring client's partner shouts, 'She's crowning!'?
The perineum is thin and stretching around the occiput. ## Footnote Crowning is the point in time when the perineum is thin and stretching around the fetal head both between and during contractions. Delivery is imminent when crowning occurs.
37
What is the critical word in the question regarding crowning?
The critical word is 'crowning'. ## Footnote Use knowledge of what occurs during crowning and the process of elimination to make a selection.
38
What should a nurse's initial response be to a client's concern about personnel in the operating room?
The most therapeutic response is, 'Can you tell me about why you are interested in the personnel?' ## Footnote This helps the nurse understand the client's frame of reference and allows the nurse to best address the client's concern.
39
What are ineffective responses a nurse might give to a client's concern about OR personnel?
Options 1 and 3 offer false reassurance and can give the impression that the nurse did not listen. ## Footnote Option 2 is a close-ended question and may not help the nurse explore the client's concerns.
40
Why is heparin being ordered for a postoperative client?
Heparin is being used to prevent blood clots from forming as a result of surgery or decreased mobility.
41
What is the indication for low-dose heparin therapy in postoperative clients?
Low-dose heparin therapy is indicated in many postoperative clients to prevent the development of thromboembolic episodes.
42
What is a common misconception about heparin therapy in postoperative clients?
Heparin is essential during the postoperative period to maintain adequate blood clotting levels.
43
What approach demonstrates shared leadership in a nursing environment?
Encourages the formation of self-directed work teams.
44
What change in sleep patterns is expected in middle-aged adults?
6 to 8 hours of sleep per night with about 20% REM sleep and a decrease in Stage IV NREM sleep.
45
What is an expected sleep pattern in older adults?
6 to 8 hours of sleep per night with about 20 to 25% of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and a marked decrease in Stage IV non-REM (NREM) sleep.
46
What is the elevated white blood cell count for a 58-year-old client with fever and diarrhea?
12,260/mm ## Footnote Normal range is 5,000-10,000/mm³.
47
What is the normal sodium level for a 58-year-old client?
142 mEq/L ## Footnote Normal range is 135-145 mEq/L.
48
What is the significance of elevated BUN in a client with fever and diarrhea?
It indicates possible dehydration due to diarrhea. ## Footnote Normal BUN range is 0.8-22 mg/dL.
49
What psychological issue might a 10-year-old child develop from unrealistic expectations?
Inferiority ## Footnote Based on Erikson's theory of development.
50
What are the normal potassium and serum creatinine levels?
Potassium: 3.5-5.1 mEq/L; Serum creatinine: 0.8-1.6 mg/dL ## Footnote Both are within normal limits.
51
What is the procedure for changing the dressing for a diabetic ulcer?
Use sterile gloves.
52
What should be done before withdrawing a dose from an insulin vial?
Wipe the rubber stopper.
53
What should the nurse avoid administering during the nadir period following chemotherapy?
Medications that inhibit platelet aggregation, such as aspirin, ibuprofen, and indomethacin. ## Footnote Tylenol is the drug of choice for mild pain and fever.
54
What is a situational leader?
A leader who recognizes that leadership style depends on the readiness and willingness of the group or individuals to perform assigned tasks.
55
What action should the nurse prioritize to reduce the spread of microorganisms?
Wash hands before and after client care. ## Footnote Handwashing should be done after removal of gloves.
56
What should the nurse report to the physician regarding white blood cell count?
The white blood cell count is elevated (normal 5,000-10,000/mm³).
57
What should be taped to the edge of a cast for protection?
A soft towel should be taped to the edge of the cast to provide some protection from the rough edges.
58
How should the cast edges be secured?
Petal the cast edges with strips of adhesive tape, placing the tape from just inside the cast over the edge to outside the cast.
59
What should be withheld during leukemia exacerbations?
Immunizations should be withheld during leukemia exacerbations because the immune system is compromised.
60
What is the baby diagnosed with?
The baby is diagnosed with leukemia.
61
What is the plan of care for a 3-month-old infant with leukemia?
The baby will be NPO during chemotherapy.
62
What task can a registered nurse delegate to a beginning student nurse?
Ambulating a client who delivered by cesarean 2 days ago.
63
Which task should not be delegated to a student nurse?
Completing the admission assessment on a newly delivered client.
64
What vital signs indicate a stab wound to the right upper abdominal quadrant?
BP 85/60, pulse 125, and respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute.
65
What organ is primarily located in the right upper quadrant?
The liver.
66
What should the nurse encourage a client undergoing a barium enema to do?
Increase fluid intake if possible.
67
What is a common concern for clients undergoing a barium enema?
Clients often express concern that the barium will not be evacuated.
68
What is an appropriate response to a client concerned about barium retention?
You will be given extra fluids, laxatives, and an enema if you have not expelled the barium within 24 hours.
69
What should a nurse do if a client has not spoken during a group session?
Allow the client to remain present but nonparticipative.
70
What medication should be prepared for a client experiencing seizure activity?
Phenytoin (Dilantin).
71
What laboratory results are expected after an electrical burn?
An elevated potassium level, elevated hematocrit, and elevated white blood cell count.

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