Namp Flashcards
1
Q
What provides the basis for establishing standard organizations, procedures, and responsibilities for the accomplishment of all maintenance on naval aircraft, associated material, and equipment?
A
Naval Aviation Maintenance program(NAMP)
2
Q
How many levels is the maintenance concept that the Naval |Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP) is founded upon?
A
3
3
Q
Which level of maintenance is performed by an operations unit on a day-to-day basis in support of its own operations?
A
O-level
4
Q
Which level of maintenance enhances and sustains the combat readiness and mission capability of supported activities by providing quality and timely material support at the nearest location with the lowest practical resource expenditure?
A
I-level
5
Q
Which level of maintenance is performed at or by Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) sites to ensure continued flying integrity of airframes and flight systems during subsequent operational service periods?
A
Depot
6
Q
What is considered the authority for specific Support Equipment (SE) item issue?
A
Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL)
7
Q
Which instruction lists maintenance functions and policy for guided missiles, aircraft guns, targets, bomb assemblies, rockets, jet assisted takeoff, and pyrotechnics?
A
OPNAVINST 8000.16
8
Q
What is defined as all equipment required on the ground to make an aeronautical system, support system, subsystem, or end item of equipment, operational in its intended environment?
A
Support Equipment (SE)
9
Q
Support Equipment (SE) is categorized as Common Support Equipment (CSE) and what else?
A
Peculiar Support Equipment (PSE)
10
Q
Who is responsible for managing Marine Air Traffic Control and Landing Systems (MATCALS)?
A
Commander, Naval Air Systems Command (COMNAVAIRSYSCOM)
11
Q
Which program can detect defects with a high degree of accuracy and with no adverse effect upon the use of the part or system being inspected?
A
Nondestructive Inspection (NDI)
12
Q
Which instruction assigns the responsibilities within Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIRSYSCOM) for the various elements of the Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) program?
A
NAVAIRINST 13070.1
13
Q
Which form provides a record of certification and recertification of Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) technicians and operators?
A
CNAF 4790/139
14
Q
The Naval Aircraft Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) Technician school and Fleet Readiness Centers (FRCs) shall retain records of training materials used, tests given, and individual test scores for a minimum of how many years?
A
3
15
Q
Which form will be used by all Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) Technicians and operators to record all Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) tasks, supervised work experience, and trial practice applications performed?
A
CNAF 4790/140
16
Q
What is the minimum enlisted paygrade required to become a Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) specialist?
A
E-7
17
Q
paygrade required to become a Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) technician?
A
E-4
18
Q
Recertification of each Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) method is required every how many years?
A
3
19
Q
How often is recertification of each Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) method for each Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) task required for Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) operators?
A
Annually
20
Q
How often at a minimum must all Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) technicians participate in at least one open facility X-ray inspection for activities authorized to perform open facility X-ray?
A
Quarterly
21
Q
Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) technicians with proficiency lapses up to how many consecutive months may regain their certification by making trial practice applications under the supervision of a Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) technician/specialist?
A
12
22
Q
Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) operators with proficiency lapses up to how many consecutive months may regain their certification by making trial practice applications under the supervision of a Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) technician?
A
6
23
Q
How many months of supervised work experience do newly certified Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) technicians require prior to being assigned at an activity without any experienced Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) technicians?
A
3
24
Q
How many years at a minimum of Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) experience is required for a technician to be considered experienced?
A
3
25
Which Personnel Qualification and Certification Program do all personnel fall under when handling cartridges, Cartridge Actuated Devices (CADs), pyrotechnics, and Propellant Actuated Devices (PADs)?
Explosives Handling
26
Which publication implements aviation requirements and shall be used as the governing document for all Aircraft Confined Space Program procedures both ashore and afloat?
NAVAIR 01-1A-35
27
Which program was designed to ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel cells and tanks?
Aircraft Confined Space Program
28
Which program provides a unique application of reconnaissance and surveillance through the use of recoverable and highly versatile airborne systems?
Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS)
29
What authorizes maintenance procedures performed under combat conditions and permits specific deviation from the peacetime policy of performing maintenance that restores the service life of a weapons system and ensures the flying integrity of airframes and flight systems during subsequent operational periods?
Aircraft Battle Damage Repair (ABDR)
30
Which program provides the data required for the effective management of Support Equipment (SE) at all levels of aircraft maintenance?
Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List (AMMRL)
31
Over how many end items of aircraft maintenance Support Equipment (SE) and OTPS elements (IMRL items) used throughout the Navy and Marine Corps by aircraft maintenance activities are covered by the Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List (AMMRL) program?
37,000
32
Who chairs the Common Support Equipment (CSE) Configuration Change Control Board?
Commander, Naval Air Systems Command (COMNAVAIRSYSCOM)
33
Who are responsible for scheduling Support Equipment (SE) into Designated Rework Points (DRPs)?
Support Equipment Controlling Authorities (SECAs)
34
What acts as the In-Service Support Center (ISSC) for Peculiar Support Equipment (PSE) for assigned weapon systems/equipment? (
Fleet Readiness Center (FRC)
35
What is the Support Equipment (SE) Custody and Maintenance History Record form number?
CNAF 4790/24A
36
Which publication can assignments of Inventory Control Points (ICPs) for Support Equipment (SE) be found in?
NAVSUP P-485
37
What provides coordination of technical data distribution and field engineering assistance and instruction for the maintenance, repair, and operation of Support Equipment (SE)?
Naval Aviation Technical Data and Engineering Services Command/Center (NATEC)
38
An Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) is constructed for all Navy and Marine Corps aviation maintenance activities by extracting applicable portions of the data from which system?
Support Equipment Resources Management Information System (SERMIS)
39
How many sections are Individual Material Readiness Lists (IMRLs) presented in?
5
40
How often at a minimum must the Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) manager conduct a physical inventory and submit it to the Support Equipment Controlling Authority (SECA) via the chain of command?
Annually
41
Which form is used by Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) activities for Support Equipment (SE) transaction reporting?
CNAF 4790/64
42
What is the Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) Revision Request form number?
NAVAIR 13650/1
43
Who has management responsibility for the Configuration Management (CM) program?
Commander, Naval Air Systems Command (COMNAVAIRSYSCOM)
44
Which publication will be the governing and primary screening tool for Technical Directive (TD) compliance of all aircraft and aircraft engines?
NAVAIR 00-500C
45
Which process is used for establishing and maintaining consistency of a product's performance and functional and physical attributes with its requirements, design, and operational information throughout its life?
Configuration Management (CM)
46
Which form should be used to requisition formal Technical Directives (TDs) by title and number?
DD1348
47
Which program is used for recording, by specific aircraft, engine, and equipment, the applicability and incorporate or not incorporated data for all Technical Directives (TDs) requiring logbook/records or Configuration Management (CM) Auto Log Set (ALS) records update?
Technical Directive Status Accounting (TDSA)
48
How often is List No. 02 Technical Directive Requirements Not Incorporated (NINC) Listing distributed to the reporting custodian?
Quarterly
49
Which program provides the means to ensure aircraft weight and center of gravity remain within established limits?
Weight and Balance (W&B)
50
NAVAIR 01-1B-40 along with which other publication contain detailed instructions for administering the Weight and Balance(W&B) program?
NAVAIR 01-1B-50
51
A record of the basic weight and moment at time of weighing and at time of delivery for all aircraft weighed at the facility must be maintained for a minimum of how many years by Weight and Balance (W&B) personnel?
5
52
Which instruction contains responsibilities for Weight and Balance (W&B) clearance for flight operations, including ferry flights?
OPNAVINST 3710.7
53
Which program provides the policy and procedures whereby maintenance activities can effectively accomplish their assigned engine maintenance responsibilities?
Gas Turbine Engine Maintenance
54
Which concept was the Gas Turbine Engine Maintenance program issued under?
Three-degree
55
What is disciplined logic which establishes required failure management strategies to enable equipment to perform with a specific probability of success at the lowest possible total expenditure of resources for system operation and support over the life cycle?
Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)
56
Engines, Aeronautical Equipment Service Records (AESRs), and Configuration Management (CM) Auto Log Set (ALS) Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) records will be thoroughly screened by the second and third-degree Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs)/Fleet Readiness Centers (FRCs) to determine if the required maintenance action is within the capability of the receiving Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA)/Fleet Readiness Center (FRC). Screening and disposition action will take place within how many days of receipt?
10
57
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) and Support Equipment Gas Turbine Engine (SEGTE) inspections are accomplished during which type of repair?
First-degree
58
Which program is intended to ensure proper fleet introduction of new or modified Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS)?
Fleet Air Introduction Liaison Survival Aircrew Flight Equipment (FAILSAFE)
59
Which instruction issues the policies, procedures, and responsibilities for activities supporting or performing ordnance maintenance?
OPNAVINST 8000.16
60
Activities operating and maintaining laser equipment must establish a Laser Hazard Control Program per which naval instruction?
OPNAVINST 5100.27
61
Government Furnished Equipment (GFE) will usually have a Work Unit Code (WUC) of what or higher?
5100
62
What are used to provide relocatable housing for aviation weapon system maintenance and Support Equipment (SE) maintenance functions
Mobile Facility (MF)
63
What is the primary accountability for aviation Mobile |Facilities (MFs) and major related equipment?
Logbook and Inventory Record (LIR)
64
Which instruction contains specific instructions for ordering copies of engineering drawing?
NAVAIRINST 5600.15
65
Which type of maintenance has been directed by COMNAVAIRSYSCOM to be applied to all in-service and future aircraft, engines, aircrew systems, weapon systems, aircraft launch and recovery equipment, and Support Equipment (SE), from technology development through disposal?
Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)
66
Which program established a process to evaluate the material condition of fleet aircraft?
Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA)
67
Which maintenance level are Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) evaluations performed at for evaluation of aircraft general material condition?
D
68
OPNAVINST 3110.11 requires an Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) evaluation between 6 months prior to and how many months after Period End Date (PED) of each Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) aircraft to determine its general material condition relative to established induction criteria?
3
69
No more than how many months should elapse between Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) insp0ections and the resulting adjusted Period |End Date (PED)?
18
70
Those activities with complements of more than 30 aircraft may schedule up to what percent of total complement simultaneously for Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) evaluation?
10 %
71
OPNAVINST 3110.11 requires rework induction not later than how many days after the current Period End Date (PED) when the Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) evaluation determines the aircraft general material condition satisfies rework induction criteria?
90
72
Which program is the removal of installed equipment from a stricken or damaged aircraft or engine prior to disposal?
Reclamation in Lieu of Procurement (RILOP)
73
Which program is the restoration or replacement of primary aircraft structures that have reached fatigue life limits?
Service Life Extension Program (SLEP)
74
Which program provides for accurate fatigue life tracking of individual aircraft component service life limits specified as fatigue indexes rather than flight hour limits?
Structural Appraisal of Fatigue Effects (SAFE)
75
How often are the Structural Appraisal of Fatigue Effects (SAFE) published by COMNAVAIRSYSCOM?
Quarterly
76
Which program provides an on-condition inspection developed to address special requirements of F/A-18 series aircraft?
PACE
77
Which program allows for the performance requirements of Standard Depot Level Maintenance (SDLM) at fleet facilities?
Enhanced Phase Maintenance (EPM)
78
Licensed Aircraft Taxi personnel must perform a taxi evolution once every how many days for the T/M/S aircraft for which they are assigned?
90
79
Which publication contains detailed procedures for obtaining required test weld plates/tubes, production and submission of test welds, and documentation?
NAVAIR 01-1A-34
80
What is the re-certification interval for I-level aeronautical welders?
1 year
81
What is the maximum number of days that Aircraft Controlling Custodian (ACC)/Type Commanders (TYCOMs) may extend a welders certification in cases where test welds have been submitted but results and recertification documentation have not been received from the cognizant examination and evaluation facility
90
82
How many retests are welders allowed whose test specimens fail to meet minimum certification requirements?
1
83
Within how many days of receiving notification of failure of first test welds must retest welds be submitted?
30
84
What provides the capability to detect faults and degradation in aircraft, dynamic components, and engines by the analysis of trends in vibration characteristics?
Vibration analysis
85
Which program was designed to provide the task Marine Air Ground Task Force (MAGTF) with a flexible capability to rapidly deploy and establish survivable, self-sustaining airfields in support of the Aviation Combat Element for employment in an Expeditionary Operation?
Expeditionary Airfield (EAF)
86
Which instruction sets forth the procedures to be used for aircraft eligible for Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA)?
NAVAIRINST 4730.10
87
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for monitoring equipment conditions in an effort to sustain a satisfactory level of aircraft survivability equipment /systems readiness?
Aircraft Survivability Equipment (ASE)
88
How often at a minimum must reviews be conducted of the Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) deployment strategy and implementation progress to ensure continued alignment with organizational goals and objectives?
Quarterly
89
Which program authorizes repair procedures to be performed by I-level activities for aircraft and components damaged beyond documented I-level repairable limits?
Fleet Engineering disposition (FED)
90
Which type of paint provides maximum flexibility, weather ability, and resistance to all aircraft fluids?
Polyurethane
91
Which publication contains detailed instructions for Support Equipment (SE) and coating maintenance?
NAVAIR 17-1-125
92
Protection standards limit work place unprotected exposure of Hexamethylene Diisocyanates or Toluene Diisocyanate to a concentration of how many Parts per Million (PPM) averaged over an 8 hour period?
0.005
93
Unprotected workers may not be exposed to Toluene Diisocyanate concentrations exceeding how many Parts per Million (PPM) for any 15-minute period?
0.02
94
Aircrew, plane captain, and ship name may be added to aircrafts with letters not to exceed how many inches in size?
2"
95
How many aircrafts per squadron are authorized to be painted with the squadron/air wing colors?
1
96
Which publication provides instructions for initial aircraft preservation treatment, preservation maintenance procedures, and necessary depreservation steps?
NAVAIR 15-01-500
97
For up to how many years can workloads for maintenance and rework facilities be forecast using usage rates derived from experiments and tests by the Configuration Management Information System (CMIS) Component Tracking System for Aircraft?
5
98
Which automated management information system provides standardized local management of Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) assets?
Local Asset Management System (LAMS)
99
Which system provides a consolidated, comprehensive online database of component and Support Equipment (SE) stock number catalog, designated overhaul point assignment and capability data, production history, and financial performance and obligation data?
Master Component Rework Control System
100
Which system is used for the recall and reporting of test equipment by means of automatic data processing techniques?
Metrology Automated System for Uniform Recall and Reporting (MEASUARE)
101
Which system provides O-Ievel, I-level, Aviation Supply Department (ASD) activities with a modern, real time, responsive, computer based Management Information System (MIS)?
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System (NALCOMIS)
102
How many objectives does Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System (NALCOMIS) have?
3
103
What provides the basis toward achieving a completely automated maintenance environment, which streamlines the entire maintenance process?
Configuration Management (CM)
104
What is the Navy's major logistics information system used in support of the COMNAVAIRSYSCOM Life Cycle Logistics System?
Naval Aviation Logistics Data Analysis (NALDA)
105
Which system provides online visibility of source, allowance, inventory, and rework data to aid in inventory control and is the repository of master data for printing Individual Material Readiness Lists (IMRLs)?
Support Equipment Resources Management Information System (SERMIS)
106
Which production control system is used by Fleet Readiness Centers (FRCs) to schedule, induct, and control D-level workloads?
NAVAIR Depot Maintenance System (NDMS)
107
Which Management Information System (MIS) is based on the collection, download, analysis, and visualization of available aircraft systems data to provide quantifiable and actionable information that can be used to enhance naval aviation readiness through improved maintenance, operational, safety, and training efficiencies?
Military Flight Operations Quality Assurance (MFOQA)
108
Who is responsible for the fleet-wide implementation of the Military Flight Operations quality Assurance (MFOQA) system?
Commander, Naval Air Forces (COMNAVAIRFOR)
109
What provides a standardized and methodical process supported by a variety of tool sets for the capability of rapidly identifying and remedying aircraft/system discrepancies and personnel deficiencies?
Automated Trending and Analysis
110
Which type of relationship exists between senior personnel and their subordinates?
Line
111
What provides scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload?
Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP)
112
Which day of the month must O-level Monthly Maintenance Plans (MMPs) be distributed by prior to the month to which it applies?
25th
113
Which type of labor is defined as work which contributes directly to the material value of the specific product involved?
Direct
114
Which type of labor is defined as work which is readily chargeable to, or identifiable with , a specific product but is incidental to and in support of the direct work and does not contribute directly to the material value of the product?
Indirect
115
Which term as used in industrial engineering is defined as a specific combination of working environment, plant layout, materials, tools, equipment, and the motion patterns involved in accomplishing a given operation or task?
Method
116
Which term as used in industrial engineering is defined as an established average (norm) for the measurement of time required for a fully qualified operator working at a normal pace to perform a given task?
Standard
117
Which program provides supervision and management with a sensitive indicator of worker or work force productive effectiveness within any organizational element as well as a uniform, defensible foundation for production workload planning and shop loading?
Performance Standard Program (PSP)
118
Which Act establishes broad general authority for training and development of employees of most federal agencies?
Government Employees Training Act
119
Who must sign the Plane Captain Designation (CNAF 4790/158)?
Commanding Officer
120
How often do I-level Commanding Officers (COs) chair Executive Planning Session to review the commands Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) strategic plan, assess progress towards achieving goals, prioritize the execution of future opportunities, and assist in the removal of barriers to the success of improvement opportunities?
Semi-annually
121
Who chairs the Plane Captain Selection and Examining Board?
Maintenance Officer (MO)
122
The Maintenance Officer (MO) must ensure that supervisory and Quality Assurance (QA) personnel are thoroughly familiar with compass calibration requirements per which reference?
MIL-STD-765A
123
The Maintenance Officer (MO) must establish an AIRSpeed Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) Work Center at I-level consisting of a minimum of how many four time personnel to include the AIRSpeed Officer?
4
124
Personnel assigned to the AIRSpeed Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) Work Center should be assigned for a minimum of how many months?
18 Months
125
How often at a minimum will maintenance planning meetings be convened by the I-level Maintenance Officer (MO) to coordinate and improve the overall maintenance program?
Monthly
126
How often at a minimum must the O-level Maintenance Material Control Officer (MMCO) validate Not Mission Capable Supply (NMCS)/Partial Mission Capable Supply (PMCS) status listings?
Daily
127
The O-level Maintenance Material Control Officer (MMCO) must provide pilots and aircrews with a record of aircraft discrepancies and corrective actions for how many preceding flights of the aircraft?
10
128
How often at a minimum must Aviation Non-Destructive Inspection Capability (NDICAP) reports be submitted by commands with Nondestructive Inspection (NDI) capabilities?
Quarterly
129
Who is responsible for the management of the Tool Control Program (TCP)?
Material Control Officer (MCO)
130
Which officer facilitates the implementation of the Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) strategic plan in support of organization goals?
AIRSpeed
131
How many months at a minimum must the AIRSpeed Officer be assigned for?
18 Months
132
How often at a minimum must the AIRSpeed Officer conduct reviews of the AIRSpeed Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) deployment strategy and implementation progress?
Quarterly
133
Which Navy Enlisted Classification (NEC) will Maintenance Master Chief Petty Officers (MMCPOs) be assigned to units on?
8300
134
Who is responsible to the Commanding Officer for all enlisted maintenance Marines' qualifications and professional development?
Aircraft Maintenance Chief (Marine Corps)
135
Who is responsible for the management of all aspects of the Maintenance Data System (MDS) to include Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System (NALCOMIS ) reports/inquiries at the activity level?
System Administrator/Analyst (SA/A)
136
How many System Administrators (SAs) must OMA NALCOMIS Optimized squadrons attend the NALCOMIS OOMA System Administrator course?
2
137
Which instruction provides the standardized policy and procedures for Aviation Logistics Information Management and Support (ALIMS) operations?
MCO 2020.1
138
How many hours prior to the aircraft's initial launch should fuel samples be taken?
24
139
What is the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record form number?
CNAF 47910/141
140
What is defined as an operational evolution where an aircraft is refueled while the engine is operating?
Hot refueling
141
What are required to determine whether the airframe, power plant, accessories, and equipment are functioning per predetermined standards while subjected to the intended operating environment?
Functional Check Flights (FCFs)
142
Functional Check Flights (FCFs) are required when an aircraft is returned to flight status that has not flown in how many or more days?
30
143
Pilots and crew members performing Functional Check Flights (FCFs) shall be qualified per the applicable aircraft Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) manual as well as which other instruction?
OPNAVINST 3710.7
144
How many months at a minimum must completed Functional Check Flight (FCF) checklists be retained in the aircraft maintenance file?
6
145
When determines when an aircraft will be placed into preservation?
NAVAIR 15-01-500
146
How many hours is the daily inspection valid for commencing from the date and time the inspection is completed provided no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing has been performed?
72
147
How many hours is the turnaround inspection valid for commencing from the date and time the inspection is completed, provided no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing has been performed?
24
148
Which type of inspection is conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight, verify proper servicing, and to detect degradation that may have occurred during the previous flight?
Turnaround
149
Which type of inspection is a general inspection of a specific area of an aircraft?
Zonal
150
An acceptance inspection must be performed when a reporting custodian accepts an Aircraft Transfer Order (ATO) aircraft under which XRAY Action Codes?
G and R
151
What is the Monthly Flight Summary form number?
CNAF 4790/21A
152
What is the Equipment Operating Record form number?
CNAF 4790/31
153
Aircraft will require a complete transfer inspection before transferring the aircraft to another reporting custodian that were originally planned for short-term transfer, but due to operational or Test Evaluation (TE) requirements exceed how many days?
90
154
OPNAVINST 3110.11 requires an Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) evaluation between 6 months prior to and how many months after Period End Date (PED) of each Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) aircraft to determine its general material condition relative to established induction criteria?
3
155
No more than how many moths should elapse between the Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) inspection and the resulting adjusted Period End Date (PED)?
18
156
Up to what percent of the total complement can be simultaneously scheduled for Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) evaluations for those activities with complements of over 30 aircrafts
10%
157
OPNAVINST 3110.11 requires rework induction not later than how many days after the current Period End Date (PED) when the Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) evaluation determines that aircraft general material condition satisfies rework induction criteria?
90
158
Which type of defect constitutes a hazard to air worthiness and the condition is such that corrective action is required prior to release of the aircraft for flight?
Critical
159
Which type of defect materially reduces the use of the unit or part for its intended purpose?
Major
160
Which type of defect does not materially reduce the use of the unit or part for its intended purpose?
Minor
161
How many days of advance notice is required prior to sending and aircraft to the AMARC for storage?
10
162
Which maintenance concept divides the total scheduled maintenance requirements into small packages or phases that are accomplished sequentially at specified intervals?
Phase
163
Engines with major inspection intervals of 400 or more hours will have major inspections performed if what percent or less of the interval remains until the next inspection?
25%
164
What is the Supporting Equipment Transaction Report form number?
CNAF 4790/64
165
What is used to record acceptance information, custody and transfer, rework, preservation and depreservation, Technical Directives (TDs), and any7 other miscellaneous history required to accompany the Support Equipment (SE) throughout its service life?
CNAF 4790/51
166
Which series of manuals contains the scheduled maintenance requirements for aircraft and man-mounted equipment?
NAVAIR 13-1-6
167
What provides scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload?
Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP)
168
Who is responsible for preparing and publishing the Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP)?
Maintenance Material Control Officer (MMCO)
169
What was designed to provide operating units with a sufficient number of safe, reliable, mission capable aircraft to perform their assigned missions?
Standard rework
170
What is the Standard Depot Level Maintenance Special Work Request form number?
4790/65
171
What was designed to protect the material condition of aircrafts which are not expected to be flown for extended periods of time?
Aircraft preservation
172
Who is responsible for determining when an aircraft is required to be placed to preservation?
Maintenance Officer (MO)
173
Aircraft systems will be exercised once every how many days (+/- 3 days) using applicable Maintenance Instructions Manuals (MIMs) when they don't have specific T/M/S operational system check Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)?
28
174
Which category of Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) is anticipated to be used within the next 90 days?
Category A
175
Which category of Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) could possibly be used within the next 180 days?
Category B
176
Which category of Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) won't be needed for extremely long periods of time as in over at least 180 days?
Category C
177
Support Equipment (SE) failing under which preservation categories should be removed from the Maintenance Requirement Card (MRC) inspection?
B or C
178
What directs the work performed on preserved aircraft/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE)?
Maintenance Control
179
What is assigned to all Navy activities to determine priorities for material support based on their mission?
Force Activity Designator (FAD)
180
Which series contains instructions for using the material priority system and for assigning Force Activity Designators (FADs)?
OPNAVINST 4614.1
181
Which project code is assigned by the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) when requisitioning material to repair Support equipment (SE) that is inoperative and a workaround, redundancy, or local backup is available?
BK0
182
How often at a minimum must validation of Awaiting Part (AWP) items using the Awaiting Part (AWP) list provided by the aviation support division be performed jointly with the Awaiting Part (AWP) unit?
Weekly
183
What performs maintenance of logs and records and Configuration Management (CM) Auto Log Set (ALS)?
Production Control
184
Who will be established in I-level activities to monitor, control and apply the Maintenance Data System (MDS) within the activity?
Maintenance Database Administrator/Analyst (MDBA/A)
185
Which type of Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) Support Equipment (SE) report occurs when there is an item of inoperative Support Equipment (SE) and there is no redundancy in that piece of Support Equipment (SE), or the redundancy is inadequate such that aircraft support will be impacted, thereby, jeopardizing the operational readiness of supported units?
Broad Arrow (BA)
186
What is defined as the overhaul, repair, check, test, certification, modification, or manufacturing of aeronautical material mission equipment, engines, and Support Equipment (SE)?
Component Repair
187
Which codes specify if a component is intended to be repaired at the O,I, or D level maintenance level?
Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM&R)
188
How often at a minimum must Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) conduct Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) capability and Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) reviews?
Monthly
189
Which centers are the contact points within maintenance organizations where requirements for indirect material are coordinated with the Aviation Support Division (ASD)?
Material Control
190
Within how many months of assuming the position must the O-Level Material Control Supervisor attend the Financial Management for Naval Aviation Operating Target Accounting course?
6
191
Which instruction contains responsibilities and procedures for establishing, maintaining, and modifying the Naval Supply (NAVSUP) WSS Consolidated Remain in Place List (CRIPL)?
OPNAVINST 4440.25
192
Within how many hours of receipt must Material control turn in defective repairable Consolidated Remain in Place List (CRIPL) components?
24
193
Which website provides preservation and packaging requirements for specific repairable components?
P700-CNP
194
Which type of items are all solid state electronic components and assemblies containing such components considered to be?
Electrostatic Discharge Sensitive (ESDS)
195
What is responsible for internal and external preservation (prior to packing ) of all components?
Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA)
196
How often is an Operations and Maintenance, Navy (O&MN) appropriation enacted by Congress?
Annually
197
What finances Aviation Depot Level Repairable (AVDLRs)?
Navy Working Capital Fund (NWCF)
198
Which funds will be used to finance paints, wiping rags, towel service, cleaning agents, and cutting compounds used in preventive maintenance and corrosion control of aircraft?
Aviation Fleet Maintenance (AFM)
199
What must be established by each ship, aviation squadron, and command to record Operating Target (OPTAR) grants and the value of transactions authorized to be incurred as chargeable to the Aircraft Controlling Custodian (ACC)/Type Commander (TYCOM) operating budget?
NAVCOPT 2155
200
What is the Operating Target (OPTAR) Document Transmittal Report form number?
NAVCOMPT 2156
201
How often must the Summary Filled Order/Expenditure Difference Listing (SFOEDL) be forwarded by the Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) to individual Operating Target (OPTAR) holders for each Operating Target (OPTAR) held?
Monthly
202
How often will Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) forward an Age Unfilled order Listing (AUOL) to individual Operating Target (OPTAR) holders for each Operating Target (OPTAR) held?
Quarterly
203
Age Unfilled order Listings (AUOLs) list all unfilled orders held in Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) files over how many days old which have not matched with related expenditure documents and have not been cancelled?
120
204
How often will Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) forward an unmatched expenditure listing to individual Operating Target (OPTAR) holders?
Quarterly
205
Which NAVSUP publication contains detailed flight packet information?
NAVSUP-485
206
What are all components received in the Repairable Material Section (RMS) Supply Screening Unit (SSU) from O or I level maintenance units processed through to determine whether the component is within the check, test, or repair capability of the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA)?
Aeronautical Material Screening Unit (AMSU)
207
Which program provides the required data for the effective management of Support Equipment (SE) at all levels of aircraft maintenance?
Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List (AMMRL)
208
What are used to establish a formal, continuous chain of accountability for specific equipment and material installed on or designated for use on any aircraft of a specified T/M/S?
Aircraft Inventory Records (AIR)
209
Who is the sole authority for changes and revision of Aircraft Inventory Records (AIRs)?
Commander, Naval Air Systems Command (COMNAVAIRSYSCOM)
210
Which form must be prepared prior to transfer listing all missing Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR) and Mission Essential Subsystems Matrix (MESM) related items?
CNAF 4790/112
211
Within how many days must the receiving organization itemize shortages and submit a list of such shortages to the organization from which the aircraft was received after receiving an aircraft and discovering shortages upon receipt that are not properly recorded in the Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR)?
10
212
What is the Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR) from number?
CNAF 4790/110
213
Which department is responsible for providing NCTSS IT21 Optimized OMA NALCOMIS support for tenant fleet aircraft and reserve squadrons?
Combat Information Systems
214
How many parts is the Navy Aeronautical Publications Index made up of?
4
215
What are used as guides in establishing Individual Material Readiness Lists (IMRLs)?
Allowance Lists
216
What is a list of all aviation peculiar items authorized to be carried in stock by activities for support of aircraft and missiles?
Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL)
217
What are listings of equipment and material required for performance of specific missions?
Table of Basic Allowances (TBAs)
218
Which list specifies all maintenance significant repair parts associated with the equipment and is the basis for allowances?
Allowance Parts List (APL)
219
Which list describes a system supported by an authorized range of operating space items?
Allowance Equipage List (AEL)
220
Which manual provides functional procurement, receipt, expenditure, inventory and financial management procedures, and some policies for all Marine Aviation Logistic Squadrons (MALS) using the Shipboard Uniform Automated Data Processing System (SUADPS)/Real Time (RT) and NALCOMIS Phase II and beyond?
MCO P 4400.177
221
Which procedure is required when Navy property and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) material in Navy custody is lost, damaged, or destroyed?
Survey
222
Which form will be used in connection with survey procedures?
Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (DD 200)
223
Which instruction should be referred to for reporting procedures for those activities with reportable engines?
NAVAIRINST 13700.15
224
How many years are logbooks/records of aircraft/equipment lost in combat or that have been involved in a mishap resulting in death, missing in action, personal injury, or substantial damage to other than government property retained by the operating activity before being forwarded to the Washington National Records Center?
1
225
Which reference contains procedures for transferring records to the Washing ton National Records Center?
SECNAV M-5210.1
226
Which reference provides guidance for shipping classified information to the Washington National Records Center?
SECNAV M-5510.30
227
Which form is used to monitor structural life limited components designated for D-level replacement which do not require Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) or Assembly Service Record (ASR) documentation?
Structural Life Limits (CNAF 4790/142)
228
Which form is designed to permit the monthly compilation of significant flight operational data throughout the service life of an aircraft?
Monthly Flight Summary (CNAF 4790/21A)
229
Which form provides a record of all scheduled and conditional inspections performed on the aircraft during each period and on equipment for which an Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) is required?
Inspection Record (CNAF 4790/22A)
230
O0level activities maintaining helicopter dynamic components requiring an Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) are not required to log repetitive Nondestructive Inspections (NDIs) based on less than how many hour intervals?
100
231
Which form contains a complete record of all repair, reconditioning, standard rework, conversion, modification, modernization, and Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) inspections performed on the aircraft by a repair activity or on the equipment by any I-level or D-level activity?
Repair/Rework Record (CNAF 4790/23A)
232
Which form contains a record to Technical Directives (TDs) affecting the airframe structure and its integral parts?
Technical Directives (CNAF 4790/24A
233
Which form is used to record significant information affecting the aircraft for which no other space is provided in the logbook?
Miscellaneous/History (CNAF 4790/25A)
234
An entry in which form is required whenever preservation, represervation, or depreservation is performed on aircraft or equipment?
Preservation/Depreservation Record (OPNAV 4790/136A)
235
Which publication should be referred to for aircraft preservation requirements if they are not contained in the applicable preservation Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs) for the selected aircraft?
NAVAIR 15-01-500
236
Which form is used to maintain a current inventory of all equipment, components, and assemblies requiring a Module Service Record (MSR), Assembly Service Record (ASR), HER, or Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) card?
Inventory Record (CNAF 4790/27A)
237
Who is responsible for screening engine Module Service Record (MSR), Assembly Service Record (ASR), HER, or Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) cards(s) upon receipt of an engine to verify the time remaining on engine components?
Logbook Clerk
238
Which record is designed to provide the current configuration and inspection record of a parachute assembly and its components?
Parachute Record (OPNAV 4790/101)
239
Which record is designed to provide configuration and inspection information for a Seat Survival Kit (SSK) and its components?
Seat Survival Kit Record (OPNAV 4790/137)
240
Which record is designed to provide a current configuration and inspection record of Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) components, kits, and assemblies?
Aircrew Systems Record (OPNAV 4790/138)
241
Which record is designed to provide a record of the current configuration of all personal survival equipment issued to the aircrewman?
Aircrew Personal Equipment Record (OOPNAV 4790/159)
242
Which form is intended for use with all aeronautical equipment requiring the monthly compilation of significant operating data?
Equipment Operating Record (CNAF 4790/31A)
243
Which publication contains the maximum ground test stand/engine test cell time a propeller may accumulate?
NAVAIR 03-20CBBK-1
244
What is the Assembly Service Record form number?
CNAF 4790/106A
245
Which form provides a method of monitoring specific maintenance data on designated components and equipment that not qualify for a Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) card?
Equipment History Record (EHR) Card (CNAF 4790/113)
246
What is the Scheduled Removal Component Card form number?
CNAF 4790/28A
247
What contains the electronic baseline, actual inventory, and historical information on aircraft, engines, Support Equipment (SE), Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS), and associated assemblies?
Configuration Management (CM) Auto Log Set (ALS)
248
Which type of inspections are conducted as a result of a specific over limit condition or as a result of circumstances or events which create an administrative requirement for an inspection?
Conditional
249
Which type of inventory are explosive devices treated as?
Component
250
Which type of engine design allows I-level activities to readily remove and replace interchangeable modules with Ready for Issue (RFI) spares?
Modular
251
NAVAIRINST 13120.1 along with which other instruction provide policy for management of the Structural Life Limit Program?
NAVAIRINST 13130.1
252
What is used to record maintenance history for repairable components not designated as life limited?
Tracked Component Record (TCR)
253
Which system provides the Offices of the Secretary of Defense, the Department of the Navy (DON), and subordinate commands with comprehensive information on Navy and Marine Corps aircraft?
Aircraft Inventory and Readiness Reporting System (AIRRS)
254
What is the primary means of recording aircraft status changes, from acceptance into the inventory until final strike?
XRAY
255
Which instruction lists the Operating Service Life (OSL) which represents the total Operating Service Months (OPSERMOS) the aircraft can be expected to serve before retirement?
OPNAVINST 3110.11
256
What is a subset of the aircraft Standard Depot Level Maintenance (SDLM) specification which establishes inspection procedures to determine an individual aircraft's material condition prior to induction to or a 12 month deferral of Standard Depot Level Maintenance (SDLM)?
Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA)
257
How many steps are required to add aircraft to the Naval inventory?
2
258
Who maintains and controls a master bureau number log to ensure that once a Bureau Number (BUNO) is assigned it is not reassigned?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
259
Who is responsible for maintaining records and acting as the reporting custodian when Naval aircraft are loaned to non-Naval activities?
Commander, Naval Air Systems Command (COMNAVAIRSYSCOM)
260
How often will the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) approve a list of aircraft strikes?
Semi-annually
261
How many categories are there in which to declare an aircraft strike?
4
262
Which strike category via XRA|Y will be used by reporting custodians if an aircraft is lost (not recovered) or destroyed?
Category 1
263
Which strike category covers obsolescent or excess aircraft and aircrafts intentionally destroyed in tests, training or battle?
Category 3
264
What is the controlling custodian for pre-accepted aircraft?
NAVAIR ACC
265
How often at a minimum are reporting custodians required to report aircraft hours in life?
Quarterly
266
Which investigative procedure is conducted on high value, long lead time, and other critical parts for which little or no failure history is available?
Threshold samplling
267
What publishes a list of threshold sampling candidates, quantities, and milestones for each engine?
In-Service Support Center (ISSC)
268
A plus or minus deviation of what percent of the engine inspection interval is allowed for scheduling purposes unless otherwise directed by Periodic Maintenance Information Cards (PMICs)?
10%
269
Which type of equipment allows aircrew members to survive on land or water and interface with rescue forces?
Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS)
270
0-level activities are not authorized to requisition or stock Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) assemblies or parts beyond those required to outfit what percentage of their assigned aircraft and aircrew?
100%
271
What contains the description, preparation for use, and handling instructions for rocket catapults and rocket motors for Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS)?
NAVAIR 11-100-1.1-CD
272
Which Naval instruction establishes the Explosives Handling Personnel Qualification and Certification Progeram which personnel in the Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) Branch must be qualified in?
OPNAVINST 8023.24
273
What is the Monthly Flight Summary form number?
CNAF 4790/21A
274
Which record was designed to provide the current configuration and inspection record of a parachute assembly and its components?
Parachute Record (OPNAV 4790/101)
275
Which record is designed to provide configuration and inspection information for a Seat Survival Kit (SSK) and its components?
Seat Survival Kit Record (OPNAV 4790/137)
276
Which record is designed to provide a current configuration and inspection record of Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) components, kits, and assemblies?
Aircrew Systems Record (OPNAV 4790/138)
277
Which record shall be initiated by the cognizant O-level activity upon the initial issue of personal equipment to the aircrew member?
Aircrew Personal Equipment record (OPNAV 4790/159)
278
Which system formally ensures that aeronautical equipment is maintained throughout its life cycle by controlling degradation resulting from time, operational cycles, use, or climatic exposure?
Planned Maintenance System (PMS)
279
To ensure positive control of inspection progress, individual crew members should not be issued Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs) at any one time with task totals in excess of how many hours?
2
280
How many compasses at a minimum will be carried onboard all naval aircrafts?
2
281
Which type of system is defined as any system or instrument which uses the earth's magnetic field as its primary source of heading information, whether employed as a navigational aid, computer input for weapons delivery systems, or magnetic variation computations in inertial navigation?
Compass
282
Compass systems must be calibrated at least once every how many months from the last calibration?
12
283
Compass systems must be calibrated within how many days prior to a scheduled extended deployment of 60 or more days?
90
284
Which compass calibration method uses an in-flight procedure to compare compass headings against those generated by the onboard Inertial Navigation system?
Verification
285
Which program provides the policy and procedures whereby maintenance activities can effectively accomplish their assigned engine maintenance responsibilities?
Gas Turbine Engine Maintenance Program
286
How many groups of technical manuals exist for the control and performance of engine repair?
2
287
Which sets provide step by step procedures and instructions for engine disassembly to a controlled depth?
Complete Engine Repair Requirements Card (CERRC)
288
Which type of message will be used to forward a jet engine test cell malfunction report to the Aircraft Controlling Custodian (ACC)/Type Commander (TYCOM) when a facility becomes inoperative to the extent that an unacceptable production delay is anticipated?
Broad Arrow (BA)
289
What is the maximum interval between Engine Test Cell Correlations to maintain engine performance integrity?
3 years
290
Which manual is a single source of information relating to COMNAVAIRSYSCOM policies for naval aircraft and related hose and tube assemblies?
NAVAIR 01-1A-20
291
Which Work Center is responsible for managing and performing calibration and repair on selsected Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic equipment (TMDE)?
Work Center 670
292
Which publication contains the procedures that all maintenance, supply handling, and account of communications security and telecommunications security equipment will be performed with?
CMS-1
293
Which series establishes the policy used to conduct the cleaning and corrosion prevention and control of avionics equipment?
NAVAIR 01-1A-509
294
Which instruction contains maintenance functions, policy, and responsibilities for armament equipment?
OPNAVINST 8000.16
295
How many days of Ready For Issue (RFI) shelf life are spare Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) assemblies authorized that are maintained in the IMA 800 Division rotatable pool before they begin to accumulate time for inspection purposes?
90
296
Which series of manuals provide technical information related to the configuration, application, function, inspection, and maintenance of Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS)?
NAVAIR 13-1-6
297
What are used to present the maintenance tasks required to maintain the equipment in an effective operational status?
Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)
298
How many levels is the Department of the Navy's maintenance concept?
3
299
What is defined as a scheduled performance evaluation and correction requirement for certain specified Support Equipment (SE) items?
Calibration
300
Who is responsible for ensuring all Support Equipment (SE) maintenance is optimally scheduled?
Maintenance Material Control Officer (MMCO)
301
Which category of Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) is anticipated to be used within the next 90 days?
Category A
302
Which category of Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) could possibly be used within the next 180 days?
Category B
303
Which category of Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) won't be needed for extremely long periods of time as in over at least 180 days?
Category C
304
Component repair of engines included in the COMNAVAIRSYSCOM Non-avionic Common Support Equipment (CSE) Quick Engine Change Assembly (QECA) program will be performed per which instruction?
NAVICPINST 400.75
305
Which instruction specifies naval aviation mishap reporting procedures, and requires maintenance personnel to participate in investigating, reporting, and preventing ground mishaps?
OPNAVINST 3750.6
306
OPNAVINST 5100.23 along with which other instruction contain safety precautions that require implementation by maintenance personnel on assigned equipment and spaces?
OPNAVINST 5100.19
307
Which publication provides basic information for the safe and professional use of Support Equipment (SE) in the hazardous work environment of naval aviation?
NAVAIR 00-80T-96
308
Which instruction contains D-level maintenance policy, procedures, and responsibilities for Support Equipment (SE)?
NAVAIRINST 13680.1
309
How often are D-level overhaul requirements submitted by the Support Equipment Controlling Authority (SECA) to COMNAVAIRSYSCOM for input to the Support Equipment Resources Management Information System (SERMIS) for planning, funding, and scheduling for the fiscal year?
Annually
310
How many categories of Support Equipment (SE) Technical Directives (TDs) are there?
2
311
Which form is used when a new item of Support Equipment (SE) is introduced into the Navy system and is originated by the manufacturer and is signed by the appropriate authorized government representative for inspection and acceptance?
Material Inspection and Receiving Report (DD 250)
312
Which form is used to request work or assistance from a Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) overhaul point that is beyond the activity capability?
Work Request Customer Service (OPNAV 4790/36A)
313
Which form is used to request scheduling of end items of Support Equipment (SE) that are beyond the requesting Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA)/Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) capability?
Support Equipment (SE) Schedule Request (CNAF 4790/80)
314
What is the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) form number?
OPNAV 4790/29
315
Which program is an inventory management and reporting system for Support Equipment (SE) at O-level, I-level, and D-level activities?
Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List (AMMRL)
316
Which instruction contains provisions for revising Support Equipment (SE) allowances in the Support Equipment Resources Management Information System (SERMIS) and in the activities Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL)?
NAVAIRINST 13650.1
317
How many major categories can accountable Support Equipment (SE) be classified into?
3
318
What provides a record for the administrative review of the condition of accountable Support Equipment (SE), the cause of the condition, responsibility, and a recommendation for disposition?
Survey
319
Which program was designed to ensure that the required Support Equipment (SE) is available in the activity, similar D-level work unit, or team?
Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL)
320
Which personnel are permanently assigned to a production or fleet readiness aviation maintenance personnel work center and have a collateral duty for inspecting work done by the work center?
Collateral Duty Inspectors (CDIs)
321
Who is responsible for assisting Quality Assurance (QA) in implementing Maintenance Department/Division safety?
Work Center Supervisor (WCS)
322
Which reference contains requirements for lead-acid and nickel-cadmium battery safety?
NAVAIR 17-15BAD-1
323
How often must the Work Center Supervisor (WCS) review the work centers Pre-Expended Bin (PEDB) requirements and compare them against actual Pre-Expended Bin (PEB) stocking levels?
Monthly
324
Which type of training is conducted by fleet activities to complement formal training and increase professional safety, technical knowledge and proficiency?
In-Service Training (IST)
325
Which concept uses technology infusion to standardize tracking, monitoring, and management of all training into an integrated, cohesive "cradle-to-grave" system?
Aviation Maintenance Training Continuum System (AMTCS)
326
Which software application module supports Aviation Maintenance Training Continuum System (AMTCS) in the schoolhouse and the fleet and is designed to document qualifications/certifications progress with the Electronic/Certification Record?
Advanced Skills Management ( ASM)
327
Which program identifies tasks, skills, and knowledge requirement for each Military Occupational Specialty (MOS)?
Maintenance Training Management and Evaluation Program (MATMEP)
328
Which program is a compilation of written requirements for as specific watch station or unit team member?
Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS)
329
Who is responsible for the training of naval personnel and for directing the various commands and offices in providing resources required to implement the training program?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
330
Which command is responsible for providing the necessary planning, programing, and budgeting for manpower and training resources to support fleet training requirements?
Naval Personnel Development Command (NPDC)
331
Which class of Navy Training School teaches the basic knowledge/skills that are required for entry level performance?
Class A
332
Which class of Navy Training School teaches advanced knowledge and skills that are required to fill a billet coded with a Navy Enlisted Classification (NEC)?
Class C
333
Which class of Navy Training School is defined as professional Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) mandated or non-pipeline refresher training?
Class D
334
Which class of Navy Training School teaches individual functional skill training by fleet or Aircraft Controlling Custodian (ACC)/Type Commander (TYCOM)?
Class F
335
Which class of Navy Training School is a segment course of a Navy Enlisted Classification (NEC) producing pipeline?
Class G
336
Which automated system was designed to be responsive to demands for training information by the Naval Educational Training Command (NETC) as wells as other commands?
Navy Integrated Training Resources and Administration System (NITRAS)
337
What is the official statement of billets, personnel, and training input and resource requirements to support the introduction and operational use of aircraft, systems, subsystems, equipment, and other developments, including non-hardware related developments?
Navy Training System Plans (NTSP)
338
Which instruction contains Navy Training System Plans (NTSP) development, approval, and implementation procedures?
OPNAVINST 1500.76
339
Who is responsible for providing policy direction, exercising control and coordination of the Training Audit Program?
Commander, Naval Air Systems Command (COMNAVAIRSYSCOM)
340
Which instruction outlines the Aviation Maintenance Training (AMT) program and specifies Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) policy in aviation maintenance training at both the O-level and I-level?
OPNAVINST 1540.2
341
Which publication defines rates and ratings by describing the Navy's requirements and identifies additional skills required in specific billets which are supplemental to rating skill requirements?
NAVPERS 18068F Volume II
342
Which publication contains information on schools and courses offered through Navy training commands?
NAVEDTRA 10500
343
Which instruction provides information, policies, tasking's, and procedures for Navy manpower management?
OPNAVINST 1000.16
344
Which system is the single authoritative source for manpower data?
Total Force Manpower Management System (TFMMS)
345
What is the Navy's single integrated training feedback system?
Navy Training Feedback System (NTFS)
346
Which program provides a systematic and efficient method for gathering, analyzing, and maintaining information on the quality characteristics of products, the source and nature of defects, and their immediate impact on the current operation?
Quality Assurance (QA)
347
Which Quality Assurance (QA) tem is defined as the examination and testing of supplies and services that include raw materials, components, and intermediate assemblies, to determine whether they conform to specific requirements?
Inspection
348
Which Quality Assurance (QA) term is defined as a periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, policies, procedures, products, directives, and records?
Audit
349
Which Quality Assurance (QA) term is defined as an ongoing review of details, plans, policies, procedures, products directives, and records?
Monitor
350
How often at a minimum must O,I, and D-level quality Assurance (QA) accompany Collateral Duty Inspectors (CDIs) during scheduled and unscheduled maintenance tasks to recheck their qualifications?
Annually
351
How many months at a minimum must comp0leted Functional Check Flight (FCF) checklists be retained in aircraft history files?
6
352
What is the Quality Assurance Representative/Inspector Recommendation/Designation form number?
CNAF 4790/12
353
The Officer in Charge (OINC) of a detachment may designate Quality Assurance (QA) personnel if all procedures and requirements for designating Quality Assurance (QA) personnel are accomplished by the detachment and the deployment is in excess of how many days?
90
354
What are provided for certain maintenance tasks that, if improperly performed, could cause equipment failure or jeopardize the safety of personnel?
Quality Assurance (QA) Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)
355
Which type of inspections are specific Quality Assurance (QA) functions required during the performance of maintenance requirements and actions where satisfactory task performance cannot be determined after the task has been completed?
In-process
356
Who oversees and coordinates the efforts of the Quality Department?
Director of Quality
357
Quality Assurance (QA) stamps may not be reassigned within a period of how many months?
3
358
Which maintenance level do quality Assurance (QA) specialists have to be at to accomplish Type I verifications?
D-level
359
What is the minimum pay grade required to be appointed as a Quality Assurance Representative (QAR)?
E-6
360
Who perform, administer, monitor, and review processes and practices to ensure the quality of maintenance performed for the Department of Defense (DoD)?
Quality Assurance (QA) specialists
361
What is the Artisan Inspector Designation form number?
CNAF 4790/11
362
How often at a minimum must a working-level forum be held by the area Quality Assurance Specialist with the Artisan Inspectors (AIs) to evaluate program performance, monitoring results and improvement opportunities?
Monthly
363
How often are executive-level forums held by the Director of Quality with the D-level Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) Commanding Officer (CO) to review program performance and process monitoring results of all areas?
Monthly
364
What provides a central source of up0to0date information for the use of all personnel in the performance of their work?
Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL)
365
Technical Manual Application System (TMAPS) along with what else are the only authoritative source for all technical data, whether pre-flight, in flight, or post flight for aircraft/engines or any equipment/systems supporting naval operation?
Joint Knowledge Caching Servers (JKCS)
366
Which central repository is the authoritative source for Central Technical Publications Libraries (CTPLs) to validate the most current copies of technical manuals and associated records maintained in individual command Enhanced Library Management System (ELMS) account?
Technical Manual Application System (TMAPS)
367
Which publication contains detailed procedures for establishing and operating Central Technical Publications Libraries (CTPLs)
NAVAIR 00-25-100
368
How many calendar days does Naval Air Technical Data and Engineering Center (NAATEC) have to respond directly to activities that sent an assistance request letter because they were unable to locate applicable COMNAVAIRSYSCOM approved technical publications or have determined that the publication does not exits?
30
369
Which publications provide a basis for planning, scheduling, and complying with scheduled maintenance requirements?
Planned Maintenance System (PMS)
370
What provide the instructions required for the efficient performance of scheduled maintenance tasks?
Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)
371
What indicate which Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs) are to be complied with, the numbers and specialties of personnel required, times during which the separate jobs are scheduled for completion, Power/Air off or on conditions required during the work, and the area where the work is to be performed?
Sequence Control Cards (SCCs)
372
Which instruction contains instructions for maintenance personnel participation in command aviation safety programs?
OPNAVINST 3750.6
373
Quality Assurance (QA) must visually review every welder's proficiency against the welder's test plate ever how many days?
90
374
What is the Support Equipment (SE) Misuse/Abuse form number?
CNAF 4790/108
375
How many years must completed Support Equipment (SE) Misuse/Abuse report forms be retained for?
2 Years
376
Which program was designed to ensure a safe environment when working on aeronautical equipment fuel cell and tanks?
Aircraft Confined Space Program
377
Which publication contains Aircraft Confined Space Program and Entry Authority (EA) certification requirements?
NAVAIR 01-1A-35
378
Which term is generally defined as the probability that an item will successfully perform its designated function for a specified period of time under specified operational conditions?
Reliability
379
Which maintenance concept is naval aviation dedicated to applying to in-service and future naval aircraft, engines aircrew systems, weapon systems, aircraft launch and recovery equipment, and Support Equipment (SE)?
Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)
380
Which program provides monitoring, analysis, and specialized knowledge to initiate preventive actions that are effected by engineering, production, and other departments?
Depot level Quality Program (DLQP)
381
What is the material Inspection and Receiving Report form number?
DD250
382
Which term refers to the determination of product conformance by actual examination, measurement, witnessing of test, witnessing redundant or concurrent certification, or review of documented objective evidence describing product or quality characteristics and comparison to prescribed quality requirements?
Verification
383
Which verification category is assigned to characteristics which would be classified as critical if found defective?
Type I
384
Which verification category temporarily imposes mandatory verification requirements and may be conducted on high failure rate items?
Type II
385
Which type of audits are independent reviews conducted to compare some aspect of performance with set quality standards for the performance?
Quality
386
Which type of action is defined as the resolution of a problem or deficiency?
Corrective
387
Which Information Technology (IT) system will be used to document corrective and preventive actions?
Electronic Continual Analysis and Metrics (eCAM)
388
How many different ways are deficiencies classified as?
3
389
Which type of deficiency is a defect that judgment and experience indicate is likely to result in hazardous or unsafe conditions for individuals using or maintaining it?
Critical
390
Which type of deficiency is a defect that is likely to result in the failure or reduced material utility of a unit or product?
Major
391
Which type of deficiency is a defect that isn't likely to materially reduce the utility of a unit or product or is a departure from established standards having little bearing on the use or operation of a unit?
Minor
392
Which automated system collects procedural deviations and deficiencies?
Process Correction Reporting System
393
Which program was established to ensure the customer receives a product which satisfies their needs and requirements?
Customer Liaison
394
What systematically evaluates non-conforming material in order to achieve material recovery and savings?
Material Review Board (MRB)
395
How many workdays after the Material Review Board (MRB) form has been prepared must Material Review Board (MRB) action Commence?
10
396
Aircraft Battle Damage Repair (ABDR) is only performed under which conditions?
Combat
397
Which aircraft weapons systems are used to located and neutralize sea mines?
Airborne Mine Countermeasures (AMCM)
398
Which system provides material in support of the operation and maintenance of aeronautical equipment?
Navy Supply System
399
What is assigned by the Uniform Material Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) to all navy establishment activities for determining priorities for material support?
Force Activity Designator (FAD)
400
Which instruction contains instructions for using the material priority system and for assigning Force Activity Designators (FADs)
OPNAVINST 4614.1
401
How often at a minimum must meetings be held between Supply, O and I level maintenance representatives, and unit Quality Assurance (QA) NAVDRP personnel to discuss not Mission Capable Supply (NMCS), Partial Mission Capable Supply (PMCS), Engineering Investigation (EI)/ Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) exhibits, and other high priority related requirements?
Weekly
402
How often at a minimum must meetings be held between Supply, O and I level maintenance representatives to resolve problems, establish local procedures, and to promote material support effectiveness?
Monthly
403
Which program was established at Navy Inventory Control Points (ICPs) to standardize previously existing programs for intensive management of high cost, critical aviation and shipboard repairable item?
Intensive Repairable Item Management (IRIM)
404
Which fund has the Department of Defense Comptroller approved Aviation Depot Level Repairable (AVDLR) financing through?
Navy Working Capital Fund (NWCF)
405
Which publication contains complete Advanced Traceability and Control (ATAC) procedures as well as exceptions to the program?
NAVSUP P-485
406
What will be used for shipping Engineering Investigation (EI) and Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) exhibits?
Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS)
407
The maintenance department must review Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM&R) codes for accuracy and adequacy using the standard Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) and request changes per which instruction?
NAVSUPINST 4423.29
408
What is the smallest aviation unit designed for relatively independent operations with no outside assistance except access to a source of supply?
Marine Aircraft Group (MAG)
409
Which system can be used via message by afloat Supply Departments using shipboard communication facilities to transmit requisitions?
Streamlined Automated Logistics Transmission System (SALTS)
410
What is a procedure where all supply action documents in support of maintenance are entered and merged with the material reporting history file for reporting to COMNAVAIRSYSCOM?
Material reporting
411
What is used to identify each type of supply action document?
RECTYPE
412
Where is weapon system costing accomplished?
Naval Supply Weapon Systems Support (NAVSUP WSS)
413
What is the process of determining the range and quantity of items that are required to support and maintain an end item of material for an initial period of service?
Provisioning
414
Which codes are used to communicate maintenance and supply instructions?
Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM&R)
415
Which system is the authorized medium for directing and accomplishment and recording of modifications and one-time inspections of equipment?
Technical Directive Status Accounting (TDSA)
416
Which purpose codes will be used to identify an operating site's fixed allowance material?
W and L
417
How often are Naval Supply Weapon Systems Support (NAVSUP WSS) controlled material allowances adjusted by Naval Supply Weapon Systems Support (NAVSUP WSS) for Transaction Item Report (TIR) activities?
Quarterly
418
Preliminary allowance documents are initially provided to air station Supply departments by Naval Supply Weapon Systems Support (NAVSUP WSS) as well as every how many years thereafter?
2
419
Which instruction contains detailed Operational Support Inventory (OSI) and Shore Consolidated Allowance List (SHORCAL) policy and procedures?
NAVICPINST 4441.16
420
Every how many months at a minimum must Marine Aircraft group (MAG) Aviation Consolidated Allowance Lists (AVCALs) be reviewed and revised?
36
421
Which instruction contains detailed Operational Support Inventory (OSI) and Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL) policy and procedures?
NAVICPINST 4441.15
422
Which instruction governs aeronautical material outfitting and supply support of the operating forces?
OPNAVINST 4441.12
423
What were established and maintained to provide a retail outlet for non-technical supplies of an administrative and housekeeping nature?
SERVMARTs and MINIMARTs
424
Which type of material are items having a unit of issued greater than the unit of application categorized as?
Indirect
425
What is designed to provide users with the name, address, and socioeconomic data on all manufacturers and non-manufacturers doing business with the federal government?
H4/H8
426
How many different types of organizations are addressed in H4/H8?
3
427
Which publication establishes policies for the operation and management of afloat supply departments and shore-based units of the fleet operating forces under afloat procedures?
NAVSUP P-485 Volume I
428
Which publication lists current publications, directives, and forms used throughout the Navy that have stock numbers assigned?
NAVICP P-2003
429
Which instruction provides information to assist users in managing hazardous materials to minimize the risk involved in performance of various jobs?
DODINST 6050.05
430
Which publication promulgates policy and procedures for the management of aircraft tires and tubes
NAVAIR 04-10-506
431
Which publication contains information related to, and procedures for, maintaining Operating Targets (OPTARs) and defines terms used in the resources management system pertaining to activities, ships, and squadrons?
NAVSO P-3013-1
432
What are listings of the equipment and material that is required for performance of specific missions?
Table of Basic Allowances (TBAs)
433
What specifies all maintenance significant repair parts associated with the equipment and is the basis for allowances?
Allowance Parts List (APL)
434
How many different types of equipment lists are currently originated by Naval Supply Weapon System Support (NAVSUP WSS)?
3
435
What lists repairable assemblies, supporting repair parts, attaching parts, loose equipment, and accessories used on various aircraft?
Weapons Equipment List (WEL)
436
Which publication serves as a handy reference for personnel responsible for originating and processing MILSTRIP and MILSTRIP documents and contains those common definitions, coding structures, and abbreviated code definitions used on a day -to-day basis?
NAVSUP P-409
437
What was designed to let Supply and Maintenance personnel identify and order replacement parts for the aircraft or equipment?
Illustrated Maintenance Parts List (IPB)
438
Which manual is applicable to all Department of Defense (DOD) activities in the reporting, redistribution, and use of excess, surplus, and foreign excess personal property?
DOD 4160.21-M
439
Approximately how many line items stocked in General Services Administration (GSA) supply distribution facilities are listed in the General Services Administration (GSA) Federal Supply Catalog?
20,000
440
Which publication is the official naval guide for correspondence preparation?
SECNAVINST 5216.5
441
Which manual provides standard subject identification numbers for classifying correspondence, numbering instructions and notices, and assigning report symbols?
SECNAV M-5210.2
442
Which officer is the single point of contact for maintenance activities requiring direct supply support?
Aviation Support Division (ASD)
443
How many sections is the Aviation Support Division (ASD) composed of?
2
444
How often is the Awaiting Parts (AWP) status report provided to the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA)?
Daily
445
What is a detailed statement of an I-level repair facility's component repair capability?
Individual Component Repair List (ICRL)
446
Which form must be prepared and submitted by air detachments to request material in support of helicopter maintenance from the host air capable ship?
DD 1348
447
What serves as the point of contact for satisfying maintenance material requirements?
Supply Response Section(SRS)
448
How many units is the Supply Response Section (SRS) divided into?
5
449
Which unit is under the functional control of the Supply Resp0onse Section (SRS) and is responsible for processing and expediting high priority requisitions?
Program Management Unit (PMU)
450
What is responsible for ensuring research is performed on all requisitions received that fails initial system validation?
Technical Research Unit (TRU)
451
Which Supply Response Section (SRS) unit is responsible for the pickup and delivery of all material to supported activities?
Material Delivery Unit (MDU)
452
What shortens the issue and accounting procedures for recurring issues of maintenance related materials?
Pre-expended Bin Unit (PEB)
453
The quantity of each item pre-expended will not exceed an estimated supply of how many days?
30
454
Eligible items with a unit cost of what amount or under may be routinely established in pre-expended stocks?
$150
455
How often at a minimum must stock records be reviewed to ensure all items have sufficient usage to be retained in a pre-expended status and to correct any mixing of pre-expended items?
Quarterly
456
Which section is responsible for repairable management by accounting for repairable store in Local Repair Cycle Asset (LRCA) storage areas, in the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) repair cycle, and those being processed for shipment to Designated Rework Points (DRPs)?
Component Control Section (CCS)
457
How many units is the Component Control Section (CCS) divided 9into?
4
458
Which Component Control Section (CCS) unit is responsible for maintaining control of repairable components in all phases of the repair cycle?
Document Control Unit (DCU)
459
What is responsible for the receipt, storage, issue, and accountability of repairable assets under the control of the Aviation Support Division (ASD)?
Local Repair Cycle Asset Storage Unit (LRCA)
460
Which publication contains procedures for retrograding Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) repairables received from the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA)?
NAVSUP P-485
461
the foam in place packaging technique surrounds the repairable in a container with a bed of semi-rigid foam that is applied as a liquid that expands how many times?
200
462
Which form must be used to document the removal of a suspected defective component from a ship or surface craft scheduled for repair at a designated Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA)?
OPNAV 4790/2K
463
Which system is the authorized means for directing accomplishment and documentation of modification or one-time inspections of equipment procured by COMNAVAIRSYSCOM?
Technical Directive (TD)
464
What is the Technical Directive (TD) Kit Shipment Report form number?
NAVAIR 13053/1
465
Which type of components represent the most significant dollar investment in the entire aeronautical item inventory?
Repairable
466
Which revolving fund funded by Congress finances the purchase and maintenance of stocks of common supply items required for support and operation of the Navy (expense type items)?
Navy Working Capital Fund (NWCF)
467
What is the primary Inventory Control Point (ICP) responsible for material support of the Naval Aviation Program with respect to technical aviation material?
Naval Supply Weapon Systems Support (NAVSUP WSS)
468
What are Fleet Readiness Centers (FRCs) not authorized to stock in the Navy Industrial Fund (NIF) retail store inventories?
Aviation Depot Level Repairables (AVDLRs)
469
Which type of items are those ordered for as specific customer job order and in the quantities required for scheduled work based on a bill of material?
Direct Material Inventory (DMI)
470
Which automated data processing and information system was designed to enable Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) material managers to control the flow of material to appropriate store rooms?
NAVAIR Industrial Material Management System (NIMMS)
471
Which program is used to permit all government furnished material requirements of each commercial contractor to be properly processed by the government Supply System through a single Supply activity regardless of which Department of Defense (DOD) Supply activity is assigned inventory control responsibility?
single Supply Support Control Point (SSSCP)
472
For cost effectiveness, rework contracts are developed to provide services in yearly increments of up to how many years?
5
473
Which program reviews all Integrated Logistics Support (ILS) elements to determine affordable overall support solutions?
BOSS III
474
Logistics Engineering Change Proposals (LECPs) are funded by the Navy Working Capital Fund (NWCF) if the Return on Investment (ROI) is two to one over how many years?
10 years
475
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing training within aviation maintenance activities?
Maintenance In-Service Training Program (NAMPSOP)
476
Which type of training consists of personnel performing maintenance tasks, by demonstration and simulation, under the supervision of designated, qualified personnel?
On-Job Training (OJT)
477
Which program provides standardization of in-service training at Navy aviation units using NAVEEDTRA approved Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS)
Qualified and Proficient Technician (QPT)
478
Which program includes the training associated with all aircraft, Marine Corps maintenance personnel, O-level and Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) aircraft Support Equipment (SE) maintenance personnel, and other ground aviation support personnel in Occupation Fields 59 and 70?
Maintenance Training Management and Evaluation Program (MATMEP)
479
Which software application was designed for the Aviation Maintenance Training Continuum System (AMTCS) to identify job task requirements, assist in determining proficiencies, document qualification/certifications, and track completed training and aviation maintenance personnel progress within their respective Qualified and Proficient Technician (QPT)/Maintenance Training Management and Evaluation Program (MATMEP)?
Advanced Skills Management (ASM)
480
What is an online Interactive Multimedia Instruction (IMI) repository for aviation Interactive Multimedia Instruction (IMI) courses containing over 1,200 modules of training?
Media Trax
481
Which online tool supports life cycle management related to the upkeep and revision of training procedures, training applications, software, and hardware for Interactive Multimedia Instruction (IMI) items?
Training Tool Change Management System (TTCMS)
482
What is the minimum enlisted grade that personnel should be to be designated as the Advanced Skills Management (ASM) Fleet Administrator?
E-6
483
Within how many days of reporting to the maintenance department should personnel receive indoctrination training per Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP) training requirements?
30
484
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing procedures to maintain a satisfactory level of aircraft and engine fuel systems purity?
Fuel Surveillance Program (NAMPSOP)
485
What is the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record form number?
CNAF 4790/141
486
Flight deck control should be notified not to move an aircraft or test cell to the hangar bay if it receives, or is suspected of receiving, any fuel other than jp-5 until the flashpoint has been certified to be above which temperature?
120 F
487
Aircrew, prior to commencing helicopter in-flight refueling operations, must be trained to perform inspection of fuel samples per which publication?
NAVAIR 00-80T-109
488
How many hours prior to the aircraft's initial launch should fuel samples be taken unless otherwise specified in aircraft Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)?
24
489
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for monitoring equipment condition in an effort to detect impending failures without equipment removal or extensive disassembly?
Navy Oil Analysis Program (NOAP)
490
What is the Oil Analysis Requests form number
DD 2026
491
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing and maintaining techniques to prevent contamination of aircraft oxygen systems and components through careful and safe handling, surveillance, and quality control?
Aviators Breathing Oxygen (ABO)
492
How many states does oxygen come in?
2
493
How many qualified persons at a minimum are required to perform all Liquid Oxygen (LOX)/gaseous oxygen operations?
2
494
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing and maintaining techniques to achieve and maintain a satisfactory level of fluid purity in hydraulic systems and provides for safe and efficient operation of naval aircraft, weapon systems, and Support Equipment (SE)?
Hydraulic Contamination Control Program (HCCP)
495
What is the maximum acceptable hydraulic fluid particulate contamination level for aircraft?
Navy Standard Class 5
496
What is the maximum acceptable hydraulic fluid particulate contamination level for Support Equipment (SE)?
Navy Standard Class 3
497
What is defined as the process of removing air, water, solid particles, and chlorinated solvents from hydraulic fluids?
Purification
498
Which type of filtration will all servicing Support Equipment (SE) be equipped with?
3-micron (absolute)
499
Work Center Supervisors must ensure that all hydraulic components/system repair, disassembly, inspection, reassembly, and testing are conducted per NAVAIR 01-1A-17 and which other publication?
NAVAIR 01-1A-20
500
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing procedures for maintaining and storing aircraft, Support Equipment (SE), and Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE) tires and wheels in all Navy and Marine Corps aviation activities?
Tire and Wheel Maintenance Safety Program
501
Ready For Issue (RFI) aircraft tire/wheel assemblies shall not exceed 100 pounds PSIG or what percent of test pressure, whichever is less, when being stored?
50%
502
All Ready For Issue (RFI) tires being transported off station shall not exceed how many PSIG of pressure?
25
503
Tires shall not be discarded or scrapped until they have been determined as non-serviceable per which reference?
NAVAIR 04-10-506
504
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for evaluating performance throughout the Maintenance Department?
Quality Assurance (QA) Audit Program
505
What serve as an orderly method of identifying, investigating, and correcting deficiencies on a scheduled and unscheduled basis?
Audits
506
What provides a standardized objective measurement tool to conduct audits?
Computerized Self Evaluation Checklist (CSEC)
507
How many years must audit files be retained by program managers?
2
508
How often at a minimum must Quality Assurance (QA) conduct work center audits to evaluate the overall quality of each work center's performance?
Semi-annually
509
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for monitoring aircraft equipment condition in an effort to detect impending failures without equipment removal or extensive disassembly?
Oil Consumption Program
510
Which maintenance level of Fleet Readiness Centers (FRCs) are not required to maintain an Oil Consumption Program?
D-level
511
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities and requirements for reporting substandard workmanship, improper quality Assurance (QA) procedures, and deficiencies in material and publications?
Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy ;Reporting Program (NAMDRP)
512
Per which instruction is locally procured material found to be deficient by the buyer reported?
SECNAVINST 4855.3
513
Per which reference are Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM&R) code change recommendations submitted?
NAVSUP P-719
514
Which form is used to report FMS items under the International Logistic Program, after conveyance of title, under SECNAVINST 4355.18?
Supply Discrepancy Report (SF 364)
515
How many was months at a minimum is it recommended that the Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program (NAMDRP) Program Manager be assigned for to ensure continuity?
12
516
Within how many calendar days after receipt of a Hazardous material Report (HMR), Hazardous Material Report (HMR)/Engineering Investigation (EI), CAT I Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) must the In-Service Support Center (ISSC)/Lead Maintenance Technology Center (LMTC), Quality Team, or Cognizant screening point required to respond to Deficiency Reports (DRs), via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) Acknowledge Receipt Tool?
1
517
Within how many calendar days after receipt of an Engineering Investigation (EI), CAT II Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) or Acceptance Inspection Deficiency Report (AIDR) must the In-Service Support Center (ISSC)/Lead Maintenance Technology Center (LMTC), Quality Team, or Cognizant screening point required to respond to Deficiency Reports(DRs), via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) Acknowledge Receipt Tool?
30
518
What provide a standard method for reporting material deficiencies which, if not corrected, could result in death or injury to personnel, or damage to or loss of aircraft, equipment, or facilities?
Hazardous Material Reports (HMRs)
519
What provide an investigation process to determine cause and depth of fleet-reported material failures?
Engineering Investigations (EIs)
520
What are used to report product deficiencies attributable to the supplier, contractor, or rework facility through deficient material or manufacturing and substandard workmanship or rework?
Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDRs)
521
Which instruction provides the overarching policy guidance for the Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) program?
SECNAVINST 4855.3
522
Which category of Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDRs) will be used for all quality deficiencies which may cause death, injury, or severe occupational illness?
Category I
523
Within how many hours from the time the deficiency was discovered must Category I Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDRs) be submitted by routine precedence message via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS)?
24
524
Which category of Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDRs) will be used for quality deficiencies assessed to have significant and widespread material or human resource impact but do not affect safety of personnel or impair combat efficiency?
Category II
525
Within how many days from the time the deficiency was discovered must Category II Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDRs) be submitted via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) to the In-Service Support Center (ISSC)/Lead Maintenance Technology Center (LMTC)?
5
526
Which report identifies/documents defects in newly manufactured, modified, or reworked aircraft to ensure better quality maintenance and newly rework procedures?
Acceptance Inspection Deficiency Report (AIDR)
527
Within how many days from the time the acceptance inspection was completed must an Acceptance Inspection Deficiency Report (AIDR) be submitted via the Joint Deficiency System (JDRS)?
5
528
How many different ways are deficiencies categorized as?
3
529
Which type of defects constitute hazardous or unsafe conditions, or as determined by experience and judgment could conceivably become so, thus making the aircraft unsafe for flight or endangering operating personnel?
Critical
530
Which type of defects could result in failure or materially reduce usability of the unit for its intended purpose?
Major
531
Which type of defects are not likely to materially reduce usability of the unit or product for its intended purpose, or depart from established standards?
Minor
532
Which type of reports provide a simplified procedure to submit technical publications safety hazards and routine deficiencies to the Fleet Support Team (FST) with engineering responsibility for the equipment covered by the technical publications?
Technical Publications Deficiency Reports (TPDRs)
533
What must be used to submit all Technical Publications Deficiency Reports (TPDRs)?
Joint Deficiency Reporting System(JDRS)
534
Within how many hours of discovery must a Category 1 Technical Publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) be initiated and sent by Priority message via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) when a safety related technical publication deficiency is detected which, if not corrected, could result in death or injury or damage to or loss of aircraft, equipment, or facilities?
24
535
A Category 2 Technical Publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) is a non-safety related deficiency that results in ineffective maintenance that directly impacts mission readiness in an adverse manner, causing a maintenance delay of how many or more hours?
8
536
Which Technical Publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) category would a non-safety related technical publication deficiency resulting in a maintenance delay of less than 8 hours through an acceptable workaround fall under?
Category 3
537
Which Technical Publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) category is a non safety related technical publication deficiency of a non-technical or administrative nature that has no impact on mission readiness?
Category 4
538
What is the central distribution manager for all COMNAVAIRSYSCOM technical publications and the central clearing house for COMNAVAIRSYSCOM'S Technical publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) Program?
Naval Aviation Technical Data and Engineering Services Command/Center (NATEC)
539
Which reports are used to report NTCSS Optimized OMA NALCOMIS baseline deficiencies found in a specific Program Manager-Air (PMA) baseline?
Baseline Trouble Report (BTR)
540
Which program establishes policy, procedures, and responsibilities for the timely and accurate incorporation of Technical Directives (TDs)?
Technical Directive (TD) Compliance Program
541
Which publication will be executed to direct, control, accomplish, and record modification and changes to Naval aircraft, associated equipment, and systems procured by or for COMNAVAIRSYSCOM?
NAVAIR 00-25-300
542
Which system provides online configuration status accounting for naval aircraft, engines, Support Equipment (SE), maintenance trainers, and serial numbered weapon system components?
Technical Directive Status Accounting (TDSA)
543
How often are Technical Directive Status Accounting (TDSA) databases updated to reflect new Technical Directive (TD) compliance actions against applicable equipment items?
Daily
544
How many Technical Directive (TD) categories are there?
4
545
Which Technical Directive (TD) category is assigned when unsafe conditions exist which, if uncorrected, could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel, or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?
Immediate Action
546
Which Technical Directive (TD) category is assigned when factors of combat necessity, potential hazardous conditions which could result in personal injury or damage to valuable property, or unacceptable reductions in operational readiness exist and such conditions, if uncorrected, would compromise safety or embody risks which are calculated to be acceptable within defined time/performance limits?
Urgent Action
547
Which Technical Directive (TD) category is assigned to Formal Change Technical Directives (TDs) issued to document configuration changes that have been incorporated in all affected equipment by the change designer/originator before the Technical Directive (TD) is issued?
Record Purpose
548
How many types of Technical Directives (TDs) are there?
4
549
Which type of technical Directive (TD) directs a one-time inspection to determine if a given condition exists and specifies what action shall be taken if the condition is found?
Bulletin pg 32 ques 78
