NAPLEX Flashcards

Question

Zebeta

Answer 1

bisoprolol

Answer 2

verapamil *PO/IV for ventricular rate control *inhibitor/substrate of CYP3A4

Answer 3

diltiazem *PO/IV for ventricular rate control *inhibitor/substrate of CYP3A4

Answer 4

diltiazem *PO/IV for ventricular rate control *inhibitor/substrate of CYP3A4

Answer 5

amlodipine *substrate of CYP3A4 *weak inhibitor of CYP3A4

Answer 6

felodipine *substrate of CYP3A4 *ER *do not crush or chew *QD

Answer 7

nifedipine *substrate of CYP3A4

Answer 8

clonidine *1 patch q7d

Answer 9

guanfacine Tenex → ADHD

Answer 10

hydralazine *safe in pregnancy

Answer 11

Isosorbide dinitrate + hydralazine *used for HF

Answer 12

Prazosin *short acting *not for BPH *only for HTN [alpha 1-blocker]

Answer 13

doxazosin *indicated for HTN and BPH *titrate due to risk of orthostatic ↓BP [alpha 1-blocker]

Answer 14

terazosin *indicated for HTN and BPH *titrate due to risk of orthostatic ↓BP [alpha 1-blocker]

Answer 15

tamsulosin *SULFA *tk 30 min after same meal each day [alpha 1-blocker]

Answer 16

silodosin *QD *WITH FOOD *Caps can be opened and sprinkled onto applesauce [alpha 1-blocker]

Answer 17

alfuzosin *tk with same meal each day [alpha 1-blocker]

Answer 18

dutasteride *males: PO: 0.5mg QD alone or in combo with tamsulosin [5 Alpha-reductase Inhibitor]

Answer 19

finasteride *proscar: 5mg for BPH *propecia: 1mg for male pattern baldness [5 Alpha-reductase Inhibitor]

Answer 20

amlodipine + benazepril

Answer 21

bisoprolol + HCTZ

Answer 22

bisoprolol + HCTZ

Answer 23

bisoprolol + HCTZ

Answer 24

verapamil + tandolapril *with food

Answer 25

amlodipine + perindopril

Answer 26

amlodipine + valsartan

Answer 27

amlodipine + telmisartan

Answer 28

amlodipine + olmesartan

Answer 29

amlodipine + atorvastatin

Answer 30

amlodipine + celecoxib

Answer 31

IR: 20mg BID with the 2 doses given 7 hours apart

Answer 32

isosorbide dinitrate *dont administer around the clock to prevent tolerance; allow nitrate free interval ≥14h (IR) and ≥18h (SR) *IR : BID : 8AM and 1PM *TID: 8AM, 1PM, 6PM

Answer 33

nitroglycerin *IV must be in GLASS bottle

Answer 34

ranolazine *indicated for chronic stable angina *CI: hepatic impairment

Answer 35

*IV/SQ *IV: monitor Hgb, Hct, platelet, aPTT, signs of bleeding *Heparin lock flush is intended to maintain IV line open (NOT anticoagulant tx) *1,2,10,100 units/mL

Answer 36

enoxaparin *monitoring: platelet, hemoglobin , hematocrit, fecal occult blood, bleeding signs, anti-factor Xa levels (as appropriate), serum creatinine at baseline and during tx *DVT prophylaxis in hip/knee replacement: 30mg SC q12h, start 12-24h post-op for 7-10d 40mg SC QD CrCl <30: 30 mg SC QD *DVT prophylaxis in abdominal surgery: 40mg SC QD start 2h pre op no more than 12 days *DVT treatment: 1mg/kg SC q12h or 1.5mg/kg QD CrCl <30: 1mg/kg SC QD *MI/ unstable angina/ thrombolytic adjunct/ PIC: ID 30mg IV single bolus + 1 mg/kg SC q12h w/ aspirin *CI: pork allergy *antidote: protamine

Answer 37

dabigatran *direct thrombin inhibitor: inhibits factor IIa *antidote: idarucizumab (Praxbind) *KEEP IN ORIGINAL BOTTLE. Once opened - 4m

Answer 38

idarucizumab

Answer 39

apixaban *DOSED BID *antidote: Andexanet alfa (Andexxa) (IV)

Answer 40

Andexanet alfa

Answer 41

rivaroxaban *DVT prophylaxis: Knee (12d) or hip (35d): 10mg QD *Stroke prophylaxis in non-Valv Afib: CrCl>50 : 20mg QD with PM meal *DVT/PE tx: 15mg BID x 21d; then 20mg QD for 3m or + *Antidote: andexanet alfa (Andexxa) (IV)

Answer 42

warfarin *Monitor: INR, Hgb, Hit, hematocrit, bleeding signs *CYP inhibitors will ↑ INR, CYP inducer ↓ INR *Antidote: VitK (phytonadione) (Mephyton)

Answer 43

Phytonadione (Vitamin K)

Answer 44

clopidogrel *LD: 300mg → 75mg QD *Prodrug: CYP2C19 inhibitor ↓ plavix [ADP receptor P2Y12 inhibitor] irreversible

Answer 45

prasugrel *60mg LD →10mg QD [ADP receptor P2Y12 inhibitor] irreversible

Answer 46

ticagrelor *LD: 180mg (2 x 90mg) *MD: 90mg BID *BBW: aspirin dose >100mg reduces effectiveness [ADP receptor P2Y12 inhibitor] reversible

Answer 47

dipyridamole + aspirin *CI: salicylate allergy

Answer 48

Amiodarone *DI with warfarin (↑INR) *dont give sofosbuvir

Answer 49

dronedarone *with FOOD *avoid grapefuit juice *watch for liver failure and HF

Answer 50

dofetilide *PO *do not use if CrCl <20 *CI w/ HCTZ, citalopram: QT prolongation

Answer 51

digoxin Antidote: Digifab

Answer 52

*Lipid Panels *LFT: at baseline *Muscle aches: CPK: not routine: if muscle ache

Answer 53

atorvastatin *MAX 80mg

Answer 54

rosuvastatin *MAX 40mg except Asians (ID: 5mg/ MAX: 20mg)

Answer 55

rosuvastatin

Answer 56

simvastatin *MAX 40mg

Answer 57

ezetimibe + simvastatin

Answer 58

pravastatin *least drug interactions *MAX 80mg

Answer 59

lovastatin *IR with evening meal *MAX 80mg

Answer 60

gemfibrozil *do not use with statin: ↑ myopathy

Answer 61

fenofibrate *Lipofen and Antara taken with food

Answer 62

fenofibric acid

Answer 63

alirocumab *SQ once q2w *in the fridge [PCSK9 inhibitor]

Answer 64

evolcumab *SQ 140mg q2w or 420mg qm *in the fridge [PCSK9 inhibitor]

Answer 65

ezetimibe *10mg QD

Answer 66

Niacin (Vitamin B3) *with food *tk ASA 325mg 30min before dose to reduce flushing

Answer 67

omega-3 *↑risk of bleeding with warfarin

Answer 68

levothyroxine *T4 *must take on empty stomach

Answer 69

liothyronine *T3 *rapid absorption, rapid onset

Answer 70

propylthiouracil *preferred in 1st trimester of pregnancy *indicated for hyperthyroidism

Answer 71

methimazole *preferred in 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy *indicated for hyperthyroidism

Answer 72

testosterone *comes in gel and transdermal patches *CIII

Answer 73

estradiol *PO and vaginal cream

Answer 74

medroxyprogesterone *PO *Depo-Provera: IM/SQ: q3m

Answer 75

progesterone *CI: PEANUT ALLERGY

Answer 76

estradiol + norethindrone *1 patch twice weekly *REFRIGERATE

Answer 77

albuterol *Priming: Proair (3 sprays), Ventolin/Proventil (4 sprays) *Re-priming if not used >14d *RespiClick: Discard 13m after removal from foil pouch *for acute asthma

Answer 78

levalbuterol *Neb: once foiled is opened, good for 2w. out of foil, 1w *HFA: prime 4 sprays & after 3d of non=use *for acute asthma

Answer 79

fluticasone *QD *for asthma + COPD

Answer 80

mometasone *discard 45 days after removal from pouch *for asthma + COPD

Answer 81

mometasone + formoterol *for asthma + COPD

Answer 82

budesonide *DOC during pregnancy *for asthma + COPD

Answer 83

budesonide + formoterol *good for 90 days after opening foil wrap [MDI] *for asthma + COPD

Answer 84

beclomethasone *do not use a spacer *prime or shake *for asthma + COPD [breath-actuated aerosol inhaler]

Answer 85

salmeterol *expires 6w after opening *for asthma + COPD

Answer 86

montelukast *oral granules cannot be mixed in any liquid other than baby formula or breast milk *can cause flu-like symptoms, mood changes, and restlessness *for asthma + COPD

Answer 87

zarfirlukast *EAT LATER *must be taken on empty stomach *for asthma + COPD

Answer 88

zileuton *LFT *for asthma + COPD

Answer 89

ipatropium *anticholinergic *shaking NOT needed *solution *for COPD

Answer 90

ipatropium + albuterol *anticholinergic *respimat (PTOP) *shaking not needed *discard 3m after cartridge inserted *for COPD

Answer 91

ipatropium + albuterol *anticholinergic *for COPD

Answer 92

tiotropium *anticholinergic *Handihaler: inhale 1 capsule QD *Spiriva Respimat: inhale 2 puffs QD *for COPD

Answer 93

umeclidinium *anticholinergic *Ellipta: dry powders *NO SHAKING *NO PRIMING *discard 6w after removal from foil *for COPD

Answer 94

aclidinium *anticholinergic *NO SHAKING *Discard after 45d after removal from pouch *for COPD

Answer 95

glycopyrrolate *anticholinergic *reversal of bradycardia: IV(Rubinul, Glyrx-P) IM used for reduction of secretions PO(Glycate, Cuvposa-soln) used for drooling and hyperhidrosis *for COPD

Answer 96

olodaterol *for COPD

Answer 97

formoterol *requires refrigeration and is not mixed with other drugs *for COPD

Answer 98

fluticasone + salmeterol *after opening, good for 30d *for COPD

Answer 99

fluticasone + vilanterol *Ellipta formulation expires 6w after removal from pouch *for COPD

Answer 100

umeclidinium + vilanterol *Ellipta formulation expires 6w after removal from pouch *for COPD

Answer 101

olodaterol + tiotropium *for COPD

Answer 102

fluticasone + umeclidinium + vilanterol *Ellipta formulation expires 6w after removal from pouch *for COPD

Answer 103

roflumilast *QD *CI in liver impairment *3A4 substrate; suicidal events; wt loss *for COPD

Answer 104

roflumilast *QD *CI in liver impairment *3A4 substrate; suicidal events; wt loss *for COPD

Answer 105

Sacubitril + valsartan *dont give within 36 hours of ACEinhibitor

Answer 106

Sacubitril + valsartan

Answer 107

glulisine *RT 28 d *vials: 100u/ml (10ml) = 1000u/vial *pens: 100u/ml (3ml) = 300 u/pen [Rapid acting] : Clear

Answer 108

lispro *RT 28 d *vials: 100u/ml (10ml) = 1000u/vial *pens: 100u/ml (3ml) = 300 u/pen [Rapid acting] : Clear

Answer 109

aspart *RT 28 d *vials: 100u/ml (10ml) = 1000u/vial *pens: 100u/ml (3ml) = 300 u/pen [Rapid-acting] : Clear

Answer 110

Insulin regular *Humulin R: RT 31d *Novolin R: RT 42d [Short-acting] : Clear

Answer 111

insulin NPH (OTC) *Humulin N: RT 31d *Novolin N: RT 42d [Intermediate acting] Cloudy

Answer 112

determir *RT 42d [Basal] (long acting)

Answer 113

glargine *Lantus: RT 28d *DO NOT MIX with other insulin [Basal] (long acting)

Answer 114

degludec *RT 56d *DO NOT MIX with other insulin [Basal] (long acting)

Answer 115

pramlinitide *SQ TID immediately before meals

Answer 116

metformin *hold metformin if contrast dye 48h after *CI in patients with CrCl <30ml/min

Answer 117

glyburide *long acting: more hypoglycemia *avoid ≥ 65 y/o [Sulfonylureas]

Answer 118

glyburide + metformine [Sulfonylureas]

Answer 119

glyburide + metformine

Answer 120

glipizide *DOC in renal failure [Sulfonylureas]

Answer 121

glimepiride *8mg QD [Sulfonylureas]

Answer 122

glimepiride *8mg QD

Answer 123

pioglitazone *BBW: HF, fractures, fluid retention, and liver failure *MAX 45mg QD [Thiazolidinediones]

Answer 124

exenatide *bydureon: qw (refrigerate; RT 4w) *BCise : Suspension : SHAKE 15s *Byetttea: BID (refrigerate; RT 30d) [GLP1 agonist]

Answer 125

liraglutide *1.8mg QD for DM *3mg QD Saxenda for wt loss *Refrigerate; RT 30d [GLP1 agonist]

Answer 126

dulaglutide *dosed weekly *Refrigerate; RT 14d [GLP1 agonist]

Answer 127

dulaglutide *dosed weekly *Refrigerate; RT 14d [GLP1

Answer 128

saxagliptin * ↑risk of HF *CYP3A4 substrate [DPP4 inhibitors]

Answer 129

sitagliptin *25, 50, 100 mg QD *dose adjust in renal [DPP4 inhibitors]

Answer 130

alogliptin *↑ risk of HF [DPP4 inhibitors]

Answer 131

linagliptin *no dose adjustment renal/hepatic *CYP3A4 substrate [DPP4 inhibitors]

Answer 132

sitagliptin + metformin

Answer 133

saxagliptin + metformin

Answer 134

alogliptin + metformin

Answer 135

canagliflozin *QAM * Do not initiate if GFR < 30 *SE: UTI, ↑LDL, ↑K, ↑Mg, ↑PO4, ↓wt, ↓BP, bone FRACTURE [SGLT2 Inhibitor]

Answer 136

empagliflozin *QAM * Do not initiate if GFR < 30 *SE: UTI, ↑LDL, ↑K, ↑Mg, ↑PO4, ↓wt, ↓BP, bone FRACTURE [SGLT2 Inhibitor]

Answer 137

dapagliflozin *FDA approved for HF *QAM * Do not initiate if GFR < 45 *SE: UTI, ↑LDL, ↑K, ↑Mg, ↑PO4, ↓wt, ↓BP, bone FRACTURE [SGLT2 Inhibitor]

Answer 138

ertugliflozin *QAM * Do not initiate if GFR < 45 *SE: UTI, ↑LDL, ↑K, ↑Mg, ↑PO4, ↓wt, ↓BP, bone FRACTURE [SGLT2 Inhibitor]

Answer 139

*tk on empty stomach

Answer 140

amoxicillin *regardless of food

Answer 141

amoxicillin + clavulanate *w/ FOOD *suspension must be refrigerated

Answer 142

piperacillin + tazobactam *ANTIPSUDOMONAL *CrCl >40: 3.375g q6h nosocomial pneumonia: 4.5g q6h *CrCl20-40: 2.25g q6h nosocomial pneumonia: 4.5g q8h/3.375g q6h

Answer 143

cephalexin

Answer 144

cefdinir *dont refrigerate oral suspension *seperate from vitamins/antacids

Answer 145

ceftazidime *ANTIPSEUDOMONAL *IV/IM

Answer 146

ceftazidime + avibactam *ANTIPSEUDOMONAL *IV *Intra-abdominal infections *HAP

Answer 147

N. gonorrhoeae treatment mono therapy <150 kg: 500mg IM x1 ≥150 kg: 1g IM x1 IM: gluteal injection

Answer 148

azithromycin *Azasite: ophthalmic *refrigerate - discard after 14d *DO NOT refrigerate oral suspension

Answer 149

erythromycin *most macrolides are strong 3A4 inhibitor : NEVER use in combo with theophylline or warfarin *refrigerate suspension

Answer 150

clarithromycin *XL with food

Answer 151

clindamycin *BBW: C difficile colitis *DO NOT refrigerate suspension

Answer 152

daptomycin *gram (+) *SE: neuropathy, myopathy, *IV in D5W QD *DO NOT USE for pneumonia (binds to surfactant of lung)

Answer 153

vancomycin *gram(+) *SE: neuropathy, ototoxicity, red man syndrome *IV over 1 hour

Answer 154

gram (-) SE: ototoxicity, neuropathy

Answer 155

amikacin *IM,IV 5-7mg/kg/dose q8h *GFR 10-50: q24-72h *Peak: UTI 15-20/serious 20-25/ life threatening inf 25-40 *trough: <5-8

Answer 156

linezolid *PO, IV: 600mg BID *Monitor: thrombocytopenia (CBC), eyes MAOI, renal

Answer 157

Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole *1:5 *watch for SULFA allergy *hydrate to ↓ risk of crystalluria *IV-D5W *DO not refrigerate *discard after 6h

Answer 158

Nitrofurantoin *UTI *tk with food Macrobid: nitrofurantoin monohydrate + macro crystals BID Macrodantin: nitrofurantoin macrocrystals :PO 50-100mg q6h

Answer 159

ciprofloxacin *ANTIPSEUDOMONAL *BBW: tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, CNS (avoid if seizure history) *Do NOT use cipro suspension down the NG tube *indicated for UTI, not CAP

Answer 160

levofloxacin *ANTIPSEUDOMONAL *BBW: tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, CNS (avoid if seizure history)

Answer 161

moxifloxacin *ANTIPSEUDOMONAL *BBW: tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, CNS (avoid if seizure history) *greater risk of QT prolongation *indicated for CAP, not UTI

Answer 162

ofloxacin *ANTIPSEUDOMONAL *BBW: tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, CNS (avoid if seizure history)

Answer 163

minocycline *avoid in preggo *CI: patients ≤8 y/o (tooth discoloration)

Answer 164

doxycycline *avoid in preggo *CI: patients ≤8 y/o (tooth discoloration) *use doxy in renal impairment *Oracea on an empty stomach

Answer 165

metronidazole *tk ER on empty stomach

Answer 166

IV: vancomycin Vanco-resistant: Ceftaroline, Daptomycin, Linezolid, Tedizolid, Telavacin, Dalbavancin, Oritavancin PO: Clindamycin, Bactrim, Doxycycline, Minocycline, Linezolid, Tedizolid

Answer 167

Linezolid, Tedizolid, Daptomycin, Oritavancin, Tigecycline, Quinupristin/Dalfopristin

Answer 168

Zosyn , Ceftazidime, Ceftazidime/Avibactam, Cefepime, Ceftolozane/tazo, aztreonam, meropenem, doripenem, imipenem/ cilastatin; gentamycin, tobramycin, amikacin, plazomycin; cipro, levaquin, delafloxacin

Answer 169

amoxicillin/ clavulanate acid, ampicillin/sulbactam, zosyn, cefoxitin, cefotetan, carbapenems, eravacycline, omadacycline, tigecycline, moxiflaxacin, delafloxacin, clindamycin, metronidazole

Answer 170

oseltamivir *for influenza, start within 2d of symptoms 75mg BID x 5d prevention: 75mg qd x7d

Answer 171

acyclovir *indicated for HSV *oral: 400mg TID/ 200mg 5 x QD for 7-10d

Answer 172

valacyclovir *indicated for HSV *prodrug: 1g BID x7-10d

Answer 173

fluconazole *single dosing: 150mg tab x 1 for vaginal candidiasis

Answer 174

ketoconazole *BBW: hepatotoxicity

Answer 175

nystatin *oral yeast infection "swish and swallow" 4-5x QD

Answer 176

Terbinafine *1st line for onychomycosis *PO (RX) *250mg QD 6-12w

Answer 177

itraconazole *for onychomycosis *PO (RX)

Answer 178

ciclopirox *for onychomycosis *topical (Rx)

Answer 179

efinaconazole *for onychomycosis *topical (Rx) *QD

Answer 180

tavaborole *for onychomycosis *topical x48w

Answer 181

TDF + emtricitabine

Answer 182

efavirenz + emtricitabine + TDF *empty stomach

Answer 183

rilpivirine

Answer 184

doravirine

Answer 185

Risperidone -LAI (SQ)

Answer 186

Aripiprazole

NAPLEX Flashcards

(215 cards)