NASM - CES Flashcards
(316 cards)
0
Q
The systemic programming process used to address neuromusculoskeletal dysfunction through the use of inhibitory, lengthening, activation, and integration techniques.
A
Corrective exercise continuum
1
Q
A term used to describe the systematic process of identifying a neuromusculoskeletal dysfunction, developing a plan of action, and implementing an integrated corrective strategy.
A
Corrective exercise
2
Q
Corrective exercise techniques used to release tension or decrease activity of overactive neuromyofascial tissues in the body.
A
Inhibitory techniques
3
Q
Corrective exercise techniques used to increase the extensibility, length, and range of motion (ROM) of neuromyofascial tissues in the body.
A
Lengthening technique
4
Q
Corrective exercise techniques used to reeducate or increase activation of under active tissue.
A
Activation techniques
5
Q
Corrective exercise techniques used to retrain the collective synergistic function of all muscles through functionally progressive movement.
A
Integration techniques
6
Q
A study that uses principles of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within a living body.
A
Biomechanics
7
Q
The plane that bisects the body into right and left halves.
A
The Sagittarius plane
8
Q
The plane that bisects the body into front and back halves.
A
The frontal plane
9
Q
The plane that bisects the body to create upper and lower halves.
A
The traverse plane.
10
Q
Developing tension while a muscle is shortening; when developed tension overcomes resistive force
A
Concentric
11
Q
Developing tension while a muscle is lengthening; when resistive force overcomes developed tension
A
Eccentric
12
Q
When the contractile force is equal to the resistive force
A
Isometric
13
Q
The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length.
A
Length-tension relationship
14
Q
Muscles that act as prime movers
A
Agonists
15
Q
Muscles that act in direct opposition to prime movers
A
Antagonists
16
Q
Muscles that assist prime movers during functional movement patterns
A
Synergists
17
Q
Muscles that support or stabilize the body while the prime movers and synergists perform the movement pattern
A
Stabilizers
18
Q
Muscles that are predominantly involved in joint support or stabilization
A
Local musculature system
19
Q
Muscles responsible predominantly for movement and consisting of more superficial musculature that originates from the pelvis to the rib cage, the lower extremities, or both.
A
Global muscular systems
20
Q
The human movement systems response to internal and external environmental stimuli
A
Motor behavior
21
Q
The change in motor behavior over time throughout one’s lifespan
A
Motor development
22
Q
The data that the central nervous system receives from sensory receptors to determine such things as the body’s position in space and limb orientation, as well as information about the environment, temperature, texture, ect.
A
Sensory information
23
Q
The study of posture and movements with the involved structures and mechanisms used by the central nervous system to assimilate and integrate sensory information with previous experiences
A
Motor control
24
The utilization of sensory information and motor control through practice and experience leading to a relatively permanent change in one's capacity to produce skilled movements
Motor learning
25
A lever system with the fulcrum in the middle of the lever.
First class lever (nodding the head)
26
A lever system with the fulcrum one side of the lever and the effort on the other side of the lever
Second class lever (calf raise)
27
A lever system with the fulcrum on one side of the lever and the effort between the fulcrum and the resistance.
Third class lever (bicep curl)
28
A cycle whereby an injury will induce inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesion, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalances
Cumulative injury cycle
29
The state in which the structural integrity of the human movement system (HMS) is comprised because of the components are out of alignment
Movement impairment syndrome
30
The process whereby a tight muscle (short, overactive myofascial adhesions) causes decreased neural drive, and therefore optimal recruitment of its functional antagonist.
Altered reciprocal inhibition
31
The process by where a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production
Synergistic dominance
32
Usually characterized as having rounded shoulders and a forward head posture or improper scapulothoracic or glenohumeral kinematics during functional movements
Upper extremity impairment syndrome
33
Usually characterized by excessive foot pronation (flat feet), increased knee valgus (tibia internally rotated and femur internally rotated and adducted or knock-kneed), and increased movement at the limbo-pelvic-hip complex -LPHC (extension or flexion) during functional movements.
Lower extremity movement impairment syndrome
34
True or False: In 1985, the International Obesity Task Force deemed the prevalence of obesity an epidemic.
True
35
True or False: Today, approximately one sixth (16%) of adults are estimated to be obese.
False; Today, approximately one-third (33%) of adults are estimated to be obese.
36
True or False: Eighteen percent of today’s adolescents and teenagers are considered overweight.
True
37
True or False: Research suggests that musculoskeletal pain pain is less common now than it was 40 years ago because of the advancements of technology and manual labor saving devices.
False; Research suggests that musculoskeletal pain is more than it was 40 years ago. People are less actie and are no longer spending as much of their free time engaged in physical activity producing more inactive and nonfunctional people.
38
In the general population, plantar fascititis accounts for more than 1 million ambulatory care (doctor) visits per year.
True
39
It has been estimated that the annual costs attributable to low-back pain in the United States are greater than $26 billion.
True
40
More than one third of all work-related injuries involve the trunk, and of these, more than 60% involve the low back.
True
41
Approximately 20 - 25% of ACL injuries are non contact in nature.
False; Approximately 70 - 75% of ACL injuries are non contact in nature.
42
Shoulder pain is reported to occur in up to 21% of the general population
True
43
The less conditioned our musculoskeletal systems are, the higher the risk of injury.
True
44
________ are reported to be the most common sports-related injury.
Ankle sprain
45
Individuals who suffer a lateral ankle sprain are at risk of developing.
Chronic ankle instability
46
Low-back pain is one of the major forms of musculoskeletal degeneration seen in the adult population, affecting nearly
80% of all adults
47
An estimated _________ anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injuries occur annually to the general US population.
80,000 - 100,000
48
What is the most prevalent diagnosis of shoulders pain?
Shoulder impingement
49
Most ACL injuries occur between
15 and 25 years of age
50
According to the text, a comprehensive exercise strategy using the Corrective Exercise Continuum includes all of the following:
identify the problem (integrated assessment)
solve the problem (corrective program design)
implement the solution (exercise technique)
51
What is the correct order of the Corrective Exercise Continuum?
Inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate
52
Which phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum uses self-myofascial release techniques to decrease activity of overactive neuromyofascial tissues in the body?
Inhibit
53
Which phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum uses isolated strengthening exercises and positional isometric techniques?
Activate
54
___________ is a multiplanar, synchronized joint motion that occurs within eccentric muscle function.
Pronation
55
___________ is a multiplanar, synchronized joint motion that occurs within concentric muscle function.
Supination
56
What are the major muscles groups of the lateral sub-system?
Gluteus medius, tensor fascia latae, adductor complex, quadratus lomborum
57
What are the major muscles groups of the deep longitudinal sub-system?
Erector spinae, thoracolumbar fascia, sacrotuberous legament, biceps femoris, peroneus longus
58
What are the major muscle groups of the anterior oblique sub-system?
Internal and external obliques, adductor complex, hip external rotators
59
Which sub-system works synergistically with the deep longitudinal sub-system and consists of the gluteus maximus, thoracolumbar fascia, and contralateral latissimus dorsi?
Lateral sub-system
60
The joint support system of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC) includes the following muscles.
Traverse abdominis, multifidus, internal oblique, diaphragm, pelvic floor muscles
61
What is the cumulative neural input from sensory afferents to the central nervous system?
Proprioception
62
What part of the nervous system is designed to optimize muscle synergies?
Central
63
Flexion at the ankle is more accurately termed what?
Dorsiflexion
64
What is the concentric function of the anterior tibialis?
Accelerates ankle dorsiflexion and inversion
65
What is the eccentric function of the gluteus medius (posterior fibers)?
Decelerates hip adduction and internal rotation
66
What is the concentric function of the latissimus dorsi?
Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
67
What is the concentric of the posterior tibialis?
Accelerates ankle plantar flexion and inversion
68
What is the concentric function of the biceps femurs (short head)?
Accelerates knee flexion and tibial external rotation
69
What is the concentric function of tensor fascia latae?
Accelerates hip flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
70
What is the eccentric function of the pectorals major?
Decelerates shoulder extension, horizontal abduction, and external rotation.
71
True or False: Because the human movement system is an integrated system, impairment in one system leads to compensations and adaptations in other systems.
True
72
True or False: If one segment of the human movement system is out of alignment, then other movement segments have to compensate in attempts to balance the weight distribution of the dysfunctional segment.
True
73
True or False: If the gluteus medius is under active, then the tensor fascia latea (TFL) may become synergistically dominant to produce the necessary force to accomplish frontal plane stability of the limbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC).
True
74
True or False: Once a joint has lost its normal arthrokinematics, the muscles around that joint may spasm in an attempt to minimize the stress at the involved segment.
True
75
True or False: Synergistic dominance is the process by which tight muscle causes decreased neural drive of its its functional antagonist.
False - this is known as altered reciprocal inhibition.
76
True or False: A tight psoas decreasing the neural drive and optimal recruitment of the gluteus maximus is an example of synergistic dominance.
False - this is an example of altered reciprocal inhibition
77
True or False: If a client has a weak gluteus medius, then synergists (tensor fascia latea, adductor complex, and quadrates lumborum) oftentimes become synergistically dominant to compensate for the weakness.
True
78
True or False: Individuals with lower extremity movement impairment syndrome are usually characterized by excessive foot pronation (flat feet), increased knee valgus (knock-knee), and increased movement at the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (extension or flexion) during functional movements.
True
79
True or False: Individuals with upper extremity movement impairment syndrome are usually characterized as having rounded shoulders and a forward head posture or improper scapulothoracic or glenohumeral kinematics during functional movements
True
80
True or False: Individuals who present with lower extremity movement impairment syndrome typically develop predictable patterns of injury including rotator cuff impingement, shoulder instability, biceps tendinitis, thoracic outlet syndrome, and headaches.
False - these patterns of injury typically accompany an upper extremity movement impairment syndrome.
81
It is hypothesized that decreased posterior glide of the _______ can decrease _________ at the ankle.
talus, dosiflexion
82
Most knee injuries occur during non contact ________ in the frontal and __________ plane.
deceleration, transverse
83
Abnormal contraction intensity and onset timing of the ________ and __________ have been demonstrated in subjects with patellofemoral pain (PFP).
vastus médiales oblique, vastes lateralis
84
Potentially tightened or overactive muscles accompanying a lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include which of the following.
Peroneals, soleus, lateral gastocnemius
85
Potentially weakened or inhibited muscles accompanying an lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include which of the following.
Posterior tibialis, anterior tibialis, pes anserine complex
86
Individuals with upper extremity movement impairment syndrome are usually characterized as having rounded shoulders and a forward head posture
Pectoralis major, anterior deltoid, latissimus dorsi
87
Potentially weakened or inhibited muscles accompanying an upper extremity movement impairment syndrome include which of the following.
Lower trapezius, teres minor, infraspinatus
88
Subjects with low back pain (LBP) have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation, and abnormal muscle recruitment patterns (diminished activation) of the
Transverse abdominis and multifidus
89
Which muscles are lengthened, altering the normal scapulothoracic force-couple relationship when an individual exhibits a rounded shoulder posture?
Rhomboids, lower trapezius
90
What are the three main pieces of information a health and fitness processional should obtain from the health risk appraisal?
1. Physical readiness for activity
2. General lifestyle information
3. Medical history
91
What is the purpose and function of the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR Q)?
It is designed to help determine if a person is ready to undertake low-to-moderate-to-high activity levels. Furthermore, it aids in identifying people for whom certain activities may not be appropriate or who may need further medical attention.
92
Briefly explain how sitting for extended periods of time has an impact on the human movement system.
If an individual is sitting a large portion of the day, their hips are flexed for prolonged periods of time. This can lead to tight hip flexors that cause postural imbalances within the kinetic chain. Also, if an individual is working with a computer, there is a tendency for the shoulders and head to fatigue under the constant influence of gravity. This often leads to postural imbalance of round of the shoulders and head.
93
From a human movement system standpoint, briefly describe how construction workers and painters can develop muscle imbalances and injury of the upper extremities.
Construction workers and painters often work with the arms overhead for long periods of time. This may lead to possible shoulder soreness and tightness of the latissimus dorsi and weakness of the rotator cuff. This imbalance does not allow for proper shoulder motion and/or stabilization during activity.
94
Briefly describe how wearing shoes with an elevated heel (dress shoes, high heels) can have an impact on the human movement system.
Wearing shoes with a heel puts the ankle complex in a plantar flexion position for extended periods of time. This can lead to tightness of the gastrocnemius and soles causing postural imbalance, such as over-pronation at the food and ankle complex (flattening of the arch of the foot).
95
True or False: Mental stress or anxiety can lead to a dysfunctional breathing pattern that can further lead to postural distortion and kinetic chain disfunction
True
96
True or False: Questions pertaining to an individuals recreational activities and hobbies are not an essential component of the health risk appraisal.
False, By finding out what recreational activities and hobbies an individual performs, a health and fitness professional can better design a program to fit these needs.
98
True or False: One of the best predictors of future injuries is past injury.
True
99
True or False: Ankle sprains have been shown to decrease the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles.
True
100
True or False: Knee injury can cause a decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints and lead to further injury.
True
101
True or False: Low-back injuries can cause decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core, resulting in poor stabilization of the spine and possible further dysfunction of the upper and lower extremities.
True
102
True or False: Surgery will cause pain and inflammation that can alter neural control to the affected muscles and joints if not rehabilitated properly.
True
103
True or False: It is estimated that roughly 25% of the American adult population does not partake, on a daily basis, in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity.
False, It is estimated that roughly 75% of the American adult population does not partake, on a daily basis, in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity.
104
True or False: One of the roles of a health and fitness professional (i.e., personal trainer, athletic trainer, strength coach) is to administer, prescribe, and educate on the usage and effects of common medications.
False, It is not the role of a health and fitness professional t administer, prescribe or educate on the usage and effects of any of these medications.
104
The basic function of Beta-Blockers
Generally used as antihypertensive (high blood pressure); may also be prescribed for arrhythmias (irregular heart rate)
105
True or False: At best, an individual/client can recall on half his or her injury history, so a close examination of imbalances through further assessment can turn up additional areas of potential risks.
True
106
The basic function of Calcium-Channel Blockers
Generally prescribed for hypertension and angina (chest pain)
107
The basic function of Nitrates
Generally prescribed for hypertension, congestive heart failure.
108
The basic function of diuretics
Generally prescribed for hypertension, congestive heart failure and peripheral edema.
109
The basic function of bronchodialtors
Generally prescribed to correct or prevent bronchial smooth muscle constrictor in individuals with asthma and other pulmonary diseases.
110
The basic function of vasodilators
Used in the treatment of hypertension and congestive heart failure.
111
The basic function of antidepressants
Used in the treatment of various psychiatric and emotional disorders.
113
How an individual physically presents themselves in stance. It is reflected in the alignment of the body.
Static Posture
114
How an individual is able to maintain an erect posture while performing functional tasks.
Dynamic Posture
115
The connective tissue in and around muscles and tendons.
Myofascial
116
Alternation in the functional relationship between pairs or groups of muscles.
Muscle imbalance
117
Restricted motion
Hypomobility
118
A postural distortion syndrome characterized by an anterior tilt to the pelvis and lower extremity muscle imbalances.
Lower Crossed Syndrome
119
A postural distortion syndrome characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders with upper extremity muscle imbalances.
Upper Crossed Syndrome
119
Shortened muscles in Lower Crossed Syndrome
Gastrocnemius, Soleus, Hip flexor complex, adductors, latissimus dorsi, erector spinae
120
A postural distortion syndrome characterized by foot pronation and lower extremity muscle imbalances.
Pronation Distortion Syndrome
121
Lengthened muscles in Lower Crossed Syndrome
Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, traverse adominis, internal oblique
122
Shortened muscles in Upper Crossed Syndrome
Upper trapezius, levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, latissimus dorsi, teres major, subscapularis, pectoralis major/minor
123
Lengthened muscles in Upper Crossed Syndrome
Deep cervical flexors, serratus anterior, Rhomboids, mid-trapezius, lower trapezius, teres minor, infraspinatus
124
Shortened muscles in Pronation Distortion Syndrome
Gastrocnemius, Soleus, Peroneals, Adductors, illiotibial band, hip flexor complex, bicep femoris (short head)
125
Lengthened muscles in Pronation Distortion Syndrome
Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, vastus medialis, gluteus medius/maximus, hip external rotators
127
Establishing normal length-tension relationships, which ensure proper length and strength of each muscle around a joint.
Muscle Balance
128
“Kinetic” denotes the force transference from the nervous system to the muscular and skeletal systems as wells from joint to joint, and “chain” refers to the interconnected linkage of all joints in the body.
Kinetic Chain
129
Assessments that involve movement without a change in one’s base of support.
Transitional movement assessments
130
Assessments that involve movement with a change in one’s base of support.
Dynamic Movement Assessments
130
The transitional movement assessments include:
Overhead squat, single-leg squat, push up, standing cable row, standing overhead dumbbell press, star balance excursion, upper extremity assessments
131
The distance one can squat down on one leg while keeping the knee aligned in a neutral position (in line with the second and third toes).
Balance threshold
132
The dynamic postural assessments include:
Gait, Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test, tuck jump test, Davies test
134
The amount of motion available at a specific joint
Range of motion
135
The amount obtained by the examiner without any assistance by the client.
Passive range of motion
136
The amount of motion obtained solely through voluntary contraction from the client.
Active range of motion
137
The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external force.
Strength
138
Muscle strength testing performed with a specialized apparatus that provides variable resistance to a movement, so that no matter how much effort is exerted, the movement takes place at a constant speed. Such testing is used to assess and improve muscular strength and endurance especially after injury.
Isokinetic Testing
139
The process of measuring forces at work using a handheld instrument (dynamometer) that measures the force of muscular contraction.
Dynamometry
140
Continual rubbing of the IT-band over the lateral femoral epicondyle leading to the area becoming inflamed.
IT-band syndrome
140
True or False: A static postural assessment provides indicators of problem areas that must be further evaluated to clarify the problem at hand.
True
141
At the end of available range, at the point in the range where the muscle is most challenged, the client is asked to hold that position and not allow the examiner to “break” the hold with manual resistance.
Break test
142
True or False: Treating symptomatic complaints using anti-inflammatory medications, modification of activities, or simply pushing through the path may lead to further dysfunction, adding layer on layer of structural and neuromuscular adaptations.
True
143
True or False: Looking for causative factors (versus treating symptomatic complaints) of inflammation, discomfort, or poor performance will likely result in the selection of effective intervention strategies to alleviate the dysfunction.
True
144
True or False: A static postural assessment can accurately identify whether a problem is structural (or biomechanical) in nature or is derived from the development of poor muscular recruitment patterns with resultant muscle imbalances.
False, The assessment may not be able to specifically identify if a problem is structural (or biomechanical) in nature or if it is derived from the development of poor muscular recruitment patterns with resultant muscle imbalances.
145
True or False: There may be several causative factors for changes in joint alignment including quality and function of myofascial tissue and alterations in muscle-tendon function.
True
146
True or False: The combination of tight and weak muscles typically does not alter normal movement patterns.
False, The combination of tight and weak muscles can alter normal movement patterns.
147
True or False: Work (computer) stations at home and at the office frequently contribute to neck and arm dysfunction.
True
148
True or False: Muscle that is repeatedly placed in a shortened position, such as the iliopsoas complex during sitting, will eventually adapt and tend to remain short.
True
149
True or False: Chronic use of the right lower extremity while driving, without awareness of trying to maintain symmetry, may allow the body to shift to the right and promote external rotation of the left lower extremity.
True
150
True or False: Immobilizations through splinting or self-immobilization as a result of pain may allow tissue to tighten.
True
151
According to the text, which of the following muscles is prone to lengthening (weakness)?
Vastus medialis oblique
152
According to the text, which of the following muscles is prone to tightness?
Pectoralis major/minor
153
All of the following are potential factors that cause postural imbalance EXCEPT:
Static stretching of overactive tissues before competition.
154
Which postural distortion pattern is characterized by increased lumbar lordosis and an anterior pelvic tilt?
Lower crossed syndrome
155
Which postural distortion pattern is characterized by rounded shoulders and a forward head posture?
Upper crossed syndrome
156
Which postural distortion pattern is characterized by excessive foot pronation (flat feet), knee flexion, internal rotation, and adduction (knock-kneed)?
Pronation distortion syndrome
157
True or False: Muscle balance is essential for optimal recruitment of force-couples to maintain precise joint motion and ultimately decrease excessive stress placed on the body.
True
158
True or False: Any muscle, whether in a shortened or lengthened state, can be under active of weak because of altered length-tension relationships or altered reciprocal inhibition.
True
159
True or False: Alterations in muscle activity will change the biomechanics motion of the joint and lead to increased stress on the tissues of the joint and eventual injury.
True
160
True or False: Movement assessments can be categorized into two types: transitional assessments and dynamic assessments.
True
161
True or False: Transitional movement assessments are assessments that involve movement with a change in one’s base of support such as walking and jumping.
False, Transitional movement assessments that involve movement without a change in one’s base of support such as squatting, pressing, pushing, pulling, and balancing.
162
True or False: Dynamic movement assessments are assessments that involve movement without a change in one’s base of support such as squatting, pressing, pushing, pulling, and balancing.
False, Dynamic movement assessments are assessments that involve movement with a change in one’s base of support such as walking and jumping.
163
True or False: Knee valgus during the overhead squat test is influenced by decrease hip adductor and hip internal rotation strength, increased hip abductor activity, and restricted ankle plantar flexion.
False, Knee valgus during the overhead squat test is influenced by decreased hip abductor and hip external rotation strength, increased hip adductor activity, and restricted ankle dorsiflexion.
164
True or False: If an individual’s knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment, but the compensation is the corrected after elevating the heels, the primary region that most likely needs to be addressed is the foot and ankle complex.
True
165
True or False: If an individual’s low back arches during the overhead squat assessment, but the compensation is then corrected when performing the squat with hands on hips, the primary regions most likely need to be addressed are the latissimus dorsi and pectoral muscles.
True
166
True or False: The single-leg squat assessment assesses dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control.
True
167
True to False: Precise neuromuscular control of range of motion at each joint will ultimately decrease excessive stress placed on the body.
True
168
True or False: If one joint lacks proper range of motion (ROM), then adjacent joints and tissues (above or below) must move to compensate for the dysfunctional joint’s ROM.
True
169
True or False: If an individual possesses less than adequate ankle dorsiflexion, he or she may be at greater risk or injury to the knee, hip, or low back.
True
170
True or False: In most normal subjects, active ROM is slightly greater than passive ROM.
False, In most normal subjects, passive ROM is slightly greater than active ROM.
171
True or False: Some joints are constructed so that the joint capsule is the limiting factor in movement whereas other joints rely solely on ligamentous structures for stability.
True
172
True or False: Intertester reliability refers to the amount of agreement between goniometric values obtained by the same tester.
False, INTRATESTER reliability refers the amount of agreement between goniometric values obtained by THE SAME TESTER.
173
True or False: A soft end-feel may acknowledge the presence of edema, whereas a firm end-feel may be describe increased muscular tonicity.
True
174
True or False: Intrastester reliability refers to the amount of agreement between goniometric values obtained by different testers.
False, INTERTESTER reliability refers to the amount of agreement between goniometric values obtained by DIFFERENT TESTERS.
175
True or False: Reliability of joint motion assessment reflects how closely the measurement represents the actual angle or total available range of motion.
False, Validity of joint motion assessment reflects how closely the measurement represents the actual angle or total available range of motion.
176
True or False: Validity refers to the amount of agreement between successive measurements.
False, Reliability refers to the amount of agreement between successive measurements.
177
When measuring dosiflexion of the talocrural joint (ankle), what are the primary muscles being assessed?
Gastrocnemius and soleus
178
When measuring dorsiflexion of the talocrural joint (ankle), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?
20 degrees
179
When measuring extension of the tibiofemoral joint (knee), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?
20 degrees
180
When measuring extension of the tibiofemoral joint (knee), what are the primary muscles being assessed?
Hamstring complex, gastrocnemius, neural tissue (sciatic nerve)
181
What is the tool used to measure joint end ranges of motion?
Goniometer
182
When measuring flexion of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what are the primary muscles being assessed?
Gluteus maximus, adductor magnus, upper portion of the hamstring complex
183
When measuring flexion of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?
120 degrees
184
When measuring abduction of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?
Adductor complex, pubofemoral ligament, iliofemoral ligament, medial hip capsule
185
When measuring abduction of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?
40 degrees
186
When measuring internal rotation of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?
Piroformis and hip external rotators, adductor magnus (oblique fibers), ischiofemoral ligament
187
When measuring internal rotation of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?
45 degrees
188
When measuring external rotation of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?
adductor magnus (longitudinal fibers), iliofemoral ligament, pubofemoral ligament
189
When measuring external rotation of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?
45 degrees
190
When measuring extension of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?
psoas, iliacus, rectus femoris, TFL, sartorius
191
When measuring extension of the iliofemoral joint (hip), what is the normal value when taking this measurement?
0 - 10 degrees
192
When measuring flexion of the shoulder complex, what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?
latissimus dorsi, teres major, teres minor, infraspinatus, suscapularis
193
When measuring flexion of the shoulder complex, what is the normal value when taking this measurement?
160 degees
194
When measuring internal rotation of glenohumeral joint, what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?
infraspinatus, teres minor, posterior glenohumeral joint capsule
195
When measuring internal rotation of glenohumeral joint, what is the normal value when taking this measurement?
45 degrees
196
When measuring external rotation of glenohumeral joint, what are the primary muscles and ligaments being assessed?
Subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, trees major, pectoralis major, anterior deltoid, anterior glenohumeral joint capsule
197
When measuring external rotation of glenohumeral joint, what is the normal value when taking this measurement?
90 degrees
198
True or False: The ability of the nervous system to recruit and activate muscles dictates muscle strength.
True
199
True or False: One must be a qualified health and fitness professional (i.e., licensed professional) to apply manual muscle testing techniques on clients.
True
200
True or False: Manual muscle testing is more objective and reliable than isokinetic testing and hand held dynamometry.
False, While other methods of evaluating muscle function exist that are more objective and reliable than manual muscle testing, such as isokinetic testing or hand held dynamometry, manual muscle testing provides an opportunity to assess muscle function with low cost and difficulty.
201
True or False: Manual muscle testing provides an opportunity to assess muscle function with low cost and difficulty.
True
202
True or False: Overactivity of a shortened muscle will reciprocally inhibit its functional antagonist leading to a false reading that a muscle is weak when in fact the strength impression is purely a factor of joint position.
True
203
True or False: Manual muscle testing is an assessment process used to test the recruitment capacity and contraction quality of individual muscles or movements.
True
204
True or False: In addition to tight muscles, restrictions in skin, neural tissue, and articular ligaments can also result in muscle inhibition.
True
205
True or False: The numeric grade of 1 represents a client who maintains good structural alignment and holds the end-range position agains the assessor’s pressure.
False, The numerical grade of 3 represents a client who maintains good structural alignment and holds the end-range position agains the assessor’s pressure, which indicates pure isometric contraction is present.
206
True or False: A numeric grade of 3 indicates little or no ability of the client to withstand or resist pressure from the assessor.
False, A numerical grade of 1 indicates little or no ability of the client to withstand or resist pressure from the assessor.
207
True or False: Muscle weakness can be related to several factors but the most common factors in a healthy individual are atrophy and inhibition.
True
208
Step 1 of the NASM manual muscle testing process includes the following:
- place the muscle in a shortened position or the the point of joint compensation
- Ask the client to hold that position while applying pressure
- Gradually increase pressure
- Client’s strength is graded
- If client can hold the position without compensation, then the muscle is noted as strong.
- If the muscle is weak or compensates, move to step 2
209
To improve the reliability and safety, as well as reduce errors with an MMT assessment, the following guidelines should be followed:
- The same health and fitness professional should be used with a single client to reduce inter tester variability
- Do not test a muscle in a fully lengthened position because it can lead to over stretching and injury
- Ensure proper position of the joint before performing the test
- Ensure proper stabilization to minimize compensations
- Establish a time (4 seconds) for the client to hold the isometric muscle contraction
- Provide gradual increases in pressure at a constant speed
210
True or False: Evidence supporting the rationale for using self-myofascial release (SMR) for flexibility purposes is derived from research on ischemic compression and myofascial release techniques.
True
211
True or False: Any trauma to the tissue of the body creates inflammation. Inflammation in turn activates the body’s pain receptors and initiates a protective mechanism, increasing muscle tension or causing muscle spasm.
True
212
True or False: Adhesions (i.e., knots or trigger points) can begin to form permanent structural changes in the soft tissue that is evidenced by Davis’s law.
True
213
True or False: Self-myofascial release techniques may help in releasing the micro spasms that develop in traumatized tissue and break up the facial adhesions that are created through the cumulative injury cycle process.
True
214
True or False: Self-myofascial release is believed to stimulate receptors located throughout the muscle, fascia, and connective tissues (Golgi tendon organ, interstitial receptors, and Ruffini endings) through sustained pressure to produce an inhibitory response to the muscle spindle and decrease gamma loop activity.
True
215
True or False: Type III and type IV receptors (interstitial receptors) in conjunction with Ruffini endings have been shown to have autonomic functions that include changes in heart rate, blood pressure, respiration and tissue viscosity.
True
216
True or False: Decreasing vasodilation improves the ability of tissues to receive adequate amounts of oxygen and nutrients as well as removal of waste byproducts (via the bloodstream) to facilitate tissue recovery and repair.
False, Increasing vasodilation, the tissue can receive adequate amounts of oxygen and nutrients as well as the removal of waste byproducts (via blood) to facilitate tissue recovery and repair.
217
True or False: Faulty breathing patterns (shallow chest breathing) can lead to synergistic dominance of secondary breathing muscles.
True
218
True or False: The autonomic nervous system’s response to sustained pressure increases global muscle tonus as well as fluid dynamics to increase viscosity and the tonus of the smooth muscle cells located in fascia.
False, The autonomic nervous system’s response to sustained pressure changes global muscle tonus as well as fluid dynamics to decrease viscosity and the tons of the smooth muscle cells located in fascia
219
True or False: Increasing sympathetic tone reduces the prolonged faulty contraction of muscle tissue that can lead to the cumulative injury cycle.
False, Decreasing sympathetic tone reduces the prolonged contraction of muscle tissue that can lead to cumulative injury cycle.
220
True or False: Individuals who have never performed self-myofascial release should begin by using a dense and rigid roller (such as a PVX roller) because it offers increased penetration into the soft tissue.
False, One hold begin using a softer foam roller, which offers less penetration into the soft tissue due to its increased compressibility.
221
True or False: Progression when using balls as a self-myofascial release tool should be made by beginning with a large diameter ball (i.e., medicine ball), then going to a smaller diameter, firmer ball (i.e., tennis ball, softball, baseball, golf ball).
True
222
True or False: At the current time, there are no known reasons that self-myofascial release cannot be performed on a daily basis.
True
223
True or False: Individuals performing self-myofascial release should hold the foam roller on a tender area for roughly 30 seconds at high intensity (maximal pain tolerance) and 90 seconds for lower intensity (minimum pain tolerance) before moving to the next region.
True
224
True or False: Precautionary measures do not apply for self-myofacial release techniques, and it is considered safe for all populations including people with organ failure, bleeding disorders, cancer, and contagious skin conditions.
False, Anyone using SMR techniques should follow the same precautionary measures as those established for massage and/or myofasical release. SMR should be cautioned or avoided by people with congestive heart failure, kidney failure, and/or any organ failure such as liver and pancreas, bleeding disorders, and contagious skin conditions.
225
A flexibility technique used to inhibit overactive muscle fibers.
Self-myofacial release
226
Tissue trama, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance
Cumulative Injury Cycle
227
States that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress.
Davis’s Law
228
The phenomenon of the human movement system seeking the path of least resistance during function movement patterns (or movement compensation).
Relative Flexibility
229
Inhibition of the muscle spindle resulting from the Golgi tendon organ stimulation.
Autogenic Inhibition
230
The reflex arc consisting of small anterior horn nerve cells and their small fibers that project to the intrafusal bundle and produce its contraction, which initiates the afferent impulses that pass through the posterior root to the anterior horn cells, inducing, in turn, reflex contraction of the entire muscle.
Gamma loop
231
A feedback circuit that can decease the excitability of motor neurons via the interneuron called the Renshaw cell.
Recurrent inhibition
232
A muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle.
Stretch reflex
233
The act of taking the muscle to its end ROM, actively contracting the muscle to be stretched, passively (or actively) moving to a new end ROM, then statically holding the new position for 20 - 30 seconds.
Neuromuscular stretching
234
True or False: The second phase in the Corrective Exercise Continuum is to lengthen overactive or tight neuromuscular tissues.
True
235
True or False: Although the exact mechanisms responsible for the efficacy of static stretching are not fully understood, it is believed that static stretching may produce both mechanical and neural adaptations that result in increased range of motion
True
236
True or False: The ability of an individual to perform static stretching without assistance and the slow-minimal to no motion required has led this form of flexibility training to be associated with the lower risk for injury during the stretching routine and deemed the safest to use.
True
237
True or False: Neurologically, static stretching of neuromyofascial tissue to the end range of motion appears to decrease motor neuron excitability, possibly through the inhibitory effects from the Golgi tendon organs (autogenic inhibition) as well as possible contribution from the Renshaw recurrent loop (recurrent inhibition).
True
238
True or False: In general, it is thought that static stretching for 5 - 10 seconds cause an acute visoelastic stress relaxation response, allowing for an immediate increase in range of motion.
False, In general, it is though that static stretching of 20 - 30 seconds causes an acute visoelastic stress relaxation response allowing for an immediate increase in range of motion.
239
True or False: Increasing musculotendinous flexibility through stretching will lead to a decrease muscle energy absorption and trauma to muscle fibers with a decrease in injury risk being the potential result.
True
240
True or False: Decreasing muscle stiffness through stretching will decrease the work required to perform a particular activity and potentially increase overall performance.
True
241
True or False: Stretching exercises are primarily used to increase the available range of motion (ROM) at a particular joint, specifically if the ROM at that joint is limited by tight neuromyofascial tissues.
True
242
True or False: The scientific literature does not support the use of stretching exercises to achieve increased joint range of motion.
False, Stretching exercises are primarily used to increase the available ROM at a particular joint. The scientific literature strongly supports the use of stretching exercises to achieve this goal.
243
True or False: Several researchers suggest that each joint and muscle group may respond similarly to stretching protocols; this stretching protocols may not need to be different for each ROM limitation found.
False, Several researchers suggest that each joint and muscle group may respond differently to stretching protocols, thus each tissue to be stretched should be carefully evaluated, and the stretching protocol may need to be different for each range of motion limitation found.
244
True or False: A tight or shortened hip flexor group may create an anterior pelvic tilt, causing the hamstring complex tot be lengthened under normal resting positions, which may inhibit normal hip flexion range of motion.
True
245
True or False: Reviews of the best available research suggest that, acutely, stretching may have a detrimental effect on muscular strength and power.
True
246
True or False: The current evidence suggests that acute pre-exercise stretching has a significant impact on injury risk although the effects of chronic, long-term stretching protocols tend to lead to increased injury rates.
False, The current evidence suggests that pre-exercise stretching does not have a significant impact on injury risk although the effects of chronic, long-term stretching protocols tends to lead to decreased injury rates.
247
True or False: Recent research suggest that range of motion (ROM) can be improved via the application of heat or ice (either heating or cooling the tissue), suggesting that warming-up of tissue is not necessary to improve ROM.
True
248
True or False: There is moderate evidence to indicate that regular stretching improves range of motion, strength, and performance, and decreases injury risk in healthy individuals without identified limitations in flexibility.
True
249
True or False: There is moderate evidence to indicate that acute, pre-exercise stretching performed in isolation decreases strength and performance and does not affect the injury risk in healthy individuals without identified limitations in flexibility
True
250
True or False: Studies have found that stretching reduces both physiologic (elecromyographic) and self-reported muscle tension, results in decreased feeling of sadness, and can decrease the levels of stress-related hormones.
True
251
True or False: Contraindications for applying stretching techniques include osteoporosis, acute rheumatoid arthritis, and acute injury or muscle strain or tear.
True
252
True or False: In a corrective exercise program, static stretching should only be applied to muscles that have been determined to be underactive, weak, or lengthened during the assessment process.
False, In a corrective exercise program, static stretching should only be applied to muscles that have been determined to be overactive/tight during the assessment.
253
True or False: Most of the current research has demonstrated that neuromuscular stretching is not as effective at increasing range of motion when compared with static stretching.
False, Most of the current research has demonstrated that neuromuscular stretching is equally effective at increasing range of motion when compared to static stretching.
254
True or False: Neuromuscular stretching is a technique that involves a process of isometrically contracting a desired muscle in a lengthened position to induce a relaxation response on the tissue, allowing it to further elongate.
True
255
True or False: It is believed that the isometric contraction used during neuromuscular stretching increases motor neuron excitability as a result of stimulation to the muscle spindle and that this leads to an increased resistance to a change in length (or, ability to increase length of tissue).
False, It is believed that the isometric contraction used during neuromuscular stretching decreases motor neuron excitability as a result of stimulation to the Golgi tendon organ and that this leads to autogenic inhibition, resulting in decreased resistance to a change in length (or ability to increase length of tissue).
256
True or False: The premise behind neuromuscular stretching (NMS) is very similar to static stretching; however, NMS usually requires the assistance of another person, and this is traditionally used under the supervision of a health and fitness professional.
True
257
True or False: Neuromuscular stretching can be performed daily unless otherwise stated.
True
258
True or False: Neuromuscular stretching is commonly called proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF).
True
259
True or False: Neuromuscular stretching involves taking the muscle to its end range of motion (ROM), actively contracting the muscle to be stretched for 5 - 10 seconds, then passively moving the joint to a new end ROM and holding this position for 20 - 30 seconds.
True
260
True or False: Typically neuromuscular stretching involves the aid of a partner to provide a resistance to the active muscle contraction and passively stretch the joint into the new range of motion.
True
261
True or False: Acute static stretch held for at least 30 seconds does appear to decrease muscular strength and power, where as ballistic or neuromuscular stretching does not have the same effect.
True
263
True or False: Like static stretching, neuromuscular stretching should only be applied to muscles that have been determined to be overactive or tight during the assessment.
True
264
True or False: Activation refers to the stimulation (or reeducation) of under active myofascial tissue.
True
265
True or False: The use of multiple joint actions and multiple muscle synergies helps to reestablish neuromuscular control, promoting coordinated movement amount the involved muscles.
True
266
True or False: Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase inter muscular coordination of specific muscle groups.
False - Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase intramuscular coordination of specific muscles.
267
True or False: The eccentric component involved with isolated strengthening has been proven to play a role in the recovery of muscle injury and tendinopathies, and in preparation for integrated training.
True
268
True or False: Integrated dynamic movement enhances the functional capacity of the human movement system by increasing multiplanar neuromuscular control.
True
269
True or False: Multi-joint motions versus single-joint motions promote and require greater inter muscular coordination.
True
270
True or False: Research has shown that the short-term use of unilateral exercises is ineffective at increasing performance measures.
False - Research has shown that the short-term use of unilateral and bilateral exercises is both effective at increasing performance measures and that unilateral exercise has a greater influence on unilateral performance.
271
True or False: Overhead movements, often used in integrated dynamic movements, help to place increased stress on core musculature.
True
272
True or False: Resistance training performed on unstable surfaces may be challenging and should not be considered as an effective mode to improve a client’s movement patterns.
False - Resistance training performed on unstable surfaces can be challenging and could be considered to assist in improvements in movement.
273
True or False: Integrated dynamic movement performed within a corrective exercise program should involve heavy loads with an explosive tempo to maximize postural stabilization.
False - integrated dynamic movement involves low load and controlled movement in ideal posture.
274
All of the following are reasons to perform inhibitory and lengthening techniques before isolated strengthening EXCEPT:
a. When a joint is not free to move, the muscles that move it cannot be free to move it.
b. Muscles can be restored to normal even if the joints that they move are not free to move.
c. Normal muscle function is dependent on normal joint movement.
d. Impaired muscle function perpetrates and may cause deterioration in abnormal joints.
b - Muscles can be restored to normal even if the joints that they move are not free to move.
275
What is the MOST appropriate repetition tempo during isolated strengthening exercises?
a. 1 second isometric hold at end-range and 1 second eccentric action.
b. 2 seconds isometric hold at end-range and 2 second eccentric action.
c. 2 seconds isometric hold at end-range and 4 seconds eccentric action.
d. 4 seconds isometric hold at end-range and 4 seconds eccentric action.
c
276
Isolated strengthening exercises are used to isolate particular muscles to increase the force production capabilities through.
a. enhanced motor unit activation.
b. enhanced motor unit sychonization.
c. enhanced motor unit firing rate.
d. enhanced relative flexibility.
a
277
Which of the following is an example of an isolated strengthening exercise for the hip?
a. Wall slides
b. Prone iso-abs
c. Floor cobra
d. Ball combo 2 with dowel rod
a
278
Which of the following is an example of an isolated strengthening exercise for the intrinsic core stabilizers?
a. Towel scrunches
b. Chin tucks with blood pressure cuff
c. Squat to row
d. Side iso-abs
d
279
Which of the following is an example of an isolated strengthening exercise for the shoulder?
a. Single-arm row to arrow position
b. Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise
c. Standing cable external rotation
d. Ball squat to overhead press
c
280
It is suggested that many injuries occur during _______ in the frontal and transverse planes.
a. concentric acceleration
b. eccentric deceleration
c. eccentric acceleration
d. concentric deceleration
B
281
Multi-joint motions promote and require greater
a. intermuscular coordination
b. relative flexibility
c. synergistic dominance
d. autogenic inhibition
a
282
Which of the following is an appropriate progression when using integrated dynamic movement?
a. Ball wall squat > step-up > lunge > single-leg squat
b. Step-up > ball wall squat > lunge : single-leg squat
c. Lunge > step-up > ball wall squat > single-leg squat
d. Ball wall squat > single-leg squat > lunge > step-up
a
283
The purpose of positional isometrics is to increase the ________ of specific muscles necessary to heighten activation levels before integrating them back into their functional synergies.
a. intermuscular coordination
b. intramuscular coordination
c. autogentic inhibition
d. reciprocal inhibition
b
284
Positional isometrics can be used as needed and consists of _________ set of _________ repetitions.
a. one, two
b. one, four
c. two, six
d. two, eight
b
285
Positional isometrics are used to heighten the activation of ___________ muscle(s) of a joint.
a. underactive
b. overactive
c. hypertonic
d. tight
a
286
Isometric muscle contractions generate ________ levels of tension than concentric muscle contractions and provide functional strength at approximately ____________ degrees on either side of the joint angle of contraction.
a. higher, 10
b. lower, 20
c. equal, 50
d. lower, 70
a
287
What is the proper sequence of intensity when performing positional isometrics?
a. 25% > 50% > 75% > 100%
b. 20% > 40% > 60% > 80%
c. 15% > 30% > 45% > 60%
d. 10% > 20% > 30% > 40%
a
288
A combination of pain, swelling, and impaired performance commonly associated with the Achilles’ tendon.
Tendinopathy
289
Pain in the front of the tibia caused by an overload to the tibia and the associated musculature.
Medial tibial stress syndrome
290
A membrane that lines the outer surface of all bones.
Periosteum
291
Irritation and swelling of the thick tissue on the bottom of the foot. The most common complaint is pain in the bottom of the heel.
Plantar fascititis
292
Damage to a tendon at a cellular level, but does not present to inflammation.
Tendinosis
293
An injury to the ankle ligaments in which small tears occur in the ligaments.
Ankle sprain
294
A flattened medial arch during weight-bearing.
Pes planus
295
Repetitive episodes of giving way at the ankle, coupled with feelings of instability.
Chronic ankle instability
296
A high medial arch when weight-bearing.
Pes cavus
297
True or False: Compensation or dysfunction in one region, such as the foot and ankle, may lead to dysfunctions in other areas of the body.
True/False
298
True or False: The foot and ankle complex must withstand a high amour of contact force (ground reaction force) with each step taken as it is closest to the impact site (foot strike).
True/False
299
True or False: The tarsal bones consist of the cuboid, medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiforms, navicular, talus, and calcaneus.
True/False
300
True or False: The subtler joint consists of the talus and tibia.
True/False
301
True or False: The talocrural joint (tibia, fibula, and talus) is commonly called the ankle joint.
True/False
302
True or False: The transverse arch consists of the cuboid and cuneiforms.
True/False
303
True or False: The medial longitudinal arch is made up of the proximal, middle, and distal phalanges.
True/False
304
True or False: Lack of ankle dorsiflexion, an increased body mass index, and a pronated foot type have been associated with plantar fascititis.
True/False
305
True or False: The plantar fascia is a thick, fibrous band of tissue that runs from the calcaneus and fans out to insert on the metatarsal heads to support the longitudinal arch of the foot.
True/False
306
True or False: The gastrocnemius complex, which consists of the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, share a common Achilles’ tendon that inserts on the base of the talus.
True/False
307
All of the following are risk factors for medial tibial stress syndrome EXCEPT:
a. excessive running or training
b. lack of muscular endurance of the calf musculature
c. over-pronation of the foot/ankle
d. 20 degrees of ankle dorsiflexion
d
308
Lateral ankle sprains are the most common type of sprain, and PRIMARILY affect the lateral ankle ligaments including the:
a. anterior talofibular ligament, calcaneofibular ligament, and posterior talofibular ligament.
b. lateral collateral ligament, medial collateral ligament, and anterior cruciate ligament
c. dorsal tarsomelateral ligament, dorsal cuneonavicular ligament, and dorsal talonavicular ligament
d. medial talocalcaneal ligament, plantar calcaneonavicular ligament, and posterior talocalcaneal ligament
a
309
Risk factors for ankle sprain include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. decreased ankle dorsiflexion range of motion
b. previous ankle sprain
c. women with increase calcaneal eversion range of motion
d. stretching the calf musculature before activity
d
310
Musculature imbalance and tightness of the lower leg is theorized to contribute to knee valgus, specifically tightness of the lateral ankle musculature including the:
a. lateral gastrocnemius, soleus and peroneals
b. medial gastrocnemius, anterior tibilalis, and posterior tibialis
c. gracilis, popliteus, and semimembranosus
d. sarorius, semitendinsus, and flexor digitorum longus
a
311
Pes planus (increased pronation) is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. flattening, externally rotating, and everting of the feet
b. knee valgus
c. internal rotation of the femur
d. a high medial arch during weight-bearing activities
d
312
If the knees come together during the squat (medial knee displacement) the individual may have all of the following EXCEPT:
a. decreased calf flexibility
b. greater hip external range of motion
c. increased hip abductor strength
d. decreased plantar flexion strength
c
313
According to the text, key goniometric assessments to determine range of motion deficiencies that may be contributing to foot and ankle dysfunction include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. first metatarsophalangeal joint
b. ankle dorsiflexion
c. hip extension
d. glenohumeral internal rotation
d
314
Key regions to inhibit via foam rolling for an individual with a foot/ankle impairment(s) include the:
a. soleus/lateral gastrocnemius, peroneals, biceps femoris, and tensor fascia
b. medial gasrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, anterior tibialis, and posterior tibialis
c. semimembranosus, semitendinosus, vastus medialis, and gluteus medius
d. Achilies’ tendon, popliteus, and gluteus maximus/medius
a
315
Key lengthening exercises via static of neuromuscular stretches for an individual with a foot/ankle impairment(s) include the
a. medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, anterior tibialis, and gluteus medius
b. soleus/gastrocnemius, biceps femoris, and tensor fascia latae
c. semimembranosus poplieus, and gluteus maximus/medius
d. Achillies’ tendon, semitendinosus, vastus medialis, and posterior tibialis
b
316
Key muscles to activate via isolated exercises or positional isometrics techniques for an individual with a foot/ankle impairment(s) include the:
a. Soleus/gastrocnemius, biceps femoris, and tensor fascia latae
b. toe flexors and intrinsic, foot muscles, medial gastrocnemius medial
c. peroneus longus, peroneus brevis, and peroneus teritus
d. lateral gastrocnemius, vastus lateralis, and psoas major
b
