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NASM Practice Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Contracting the glutes while performing a static standing TFL stretch will cause which of the following effects?

A

Reciprocal Inhibition of the TFL

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2
Q

When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; what is this an example of

A

Altered Reciprocal Inhibition

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3
Q

What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation?

A

Gluteus Maximus

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4
Q

What is a characteristic that distinguishes type II muscle fibers from type I muscle fibers?

A

Decreased Oxygen Delivery

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5
Q

Purpose of the stretch-shortening cycles?

A

To produce the necessary force to change the direction of an object’s center of mass efficiently

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6
Q

What represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood?

A

Diastolic

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7
Q

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is most likely lengthened

A

Internal Oblique

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8
Q

An obese client who has been diagnosed with Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?

A

Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily (Zone 1 cardio respiratory)

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9
Q

While observing a new client perform the pushing assessment, the personal trainer notices that hid head protrudes forward. Which of the following muscles are probably overactive?

A

Levator Scapulae

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10
Q

The observation of excessive forward lean during an overhead squat assessment is most likely caused by what?

A

An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius

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11
Q

Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?

A

Bicycles

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12
Q

Which of the following muscles is probably underactive if a client’s support or standing leg falls inward during a single-leg squat assessment?

A

Gluteus Medius

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13
Q

During a single-leg squat assessment, the client’s standing leg caves inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?

A

Gluteus Medius

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14
Q

A client’s shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive?

A

Lower Trapezius

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15
Q

During a pushing assessment your clients shoulders elevate, which of the following muscles would most likely be underactive?

A

Mid and Lower Trapezius

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16
Q

For Resistance training in phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise are recommended?

A

2-4 sets

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17
Q

A client performs a ball squat, curl to overhead press followed by a push-up, a standing cable row, a single-leg scaption, and a single-leg squat in a circuit fashion. This is an example of which of the following resistance training systems?

A

Vertical Loading

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18
Q

What describes a mesocycle?

A

Monthly Training program

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19
Q

A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptations occurring to the woman’s aerobic energy system?

A

Metabolic Specificity

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20
Q

What is designed to increase joint range of motion, improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion, and is used in Phase 1 of the OPT model?

A

Corrective Flexibility

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21
Q

A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively, while performing an overhead squat. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?

A

Soleus, Gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex

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22
Q

Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength and neuromuscular efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?

A

Reverse Crunch

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23
Q

Which of the following would be appropriate at the power level (Phase 5) of the OPT model or before athletic competition?

A

Functional Flexibility

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24
Q

Which of the following refers to a program design approach that changes acute variables to achieve different goals on a daily or weekly basis?

A

Undulated Periodization

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25
A personal trainer is working with a client who is having trouble performing a single-leg balance on a foam pad. Which of the following balance training modalities is appropriate for this client?
Half foam roll
26
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to lift one leg directly beside the balance leg and then bend from waist to slowly reach hand toward the toes of the balance leg?
Single-leg Romanian Deadlift
27
Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises?
Standing Cable Row
28
Dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following?
Reciprocal Inhibition
29
When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?
The groin region inside the upper thighs
30
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
Single-Leg Squat
31
What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?
Leg-stabilization exercise
32
A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as a regression?
Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise
33
According to the stages of change model behavior change, which of the following is true of individuals in the action stage?
It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions
34
A new client tells the personal trainer that although he exercises occasionally, he is now ready to try a different approach to become a regular exerciser. This is an example of which section of the stages of change model?
Preparation
35
Creating a list of motivating keywords (e.g. fast, go, focus) to replace negative thoughts is an example of what?
Positive self-talk
36
What type of support is tangible and practical to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve their goals?
Instrumental support
37
A certified personal trainer has been training a client for the last 2 years. On their next session, the client informs the trainer she is pregnant. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the trainer to take?
Discontinue sessions until client provides medical clearance
38
In which of the following scenarios would energy be mostly derived from anaerobic metabolism?
When an athlete begins activity
39
Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as what?
Dyspnea
40
What classifies a product as a supplement?
Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form
41
Which term refers to the assistance of amino acids in energy production during periods of starvation?
Gluconeogenesis
42
Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body?
A precursor to hormone production
43
Which of the following concepts is demonstrated when a tight psoas decreases the neural drive of the gluteus maximus?
Altered Reciprocal Inhibition
44
What is an effect of dehydration?
Increased heart rate
45
A client’s shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?
Lower Trapezius
46
During a butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?
Quadriceps
47
During a pulling assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client’s shoulders elevate. Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive?
Lower Trapezius
48
During a single leg squat assessment you client’s knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive?
TFL
49
The client’s feet turn out when performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is likely the overactive muscle?
Lateral gastrocnemius
50
What is a primary focus of exercising in the stabilization level of training?
Muscular endurance
51
A client is performing squats with the goal of achieving maximal strength. Which of the following is an appropriate intensity level?
85-100%
52
A client performs two repetitions of a bench press exercise with 130lbs and gradually decreases the resistance with each set until he performs 10 reps with 100lb on the last set. What is the resistance training system the client is using?
Pyramid system
53
What exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits arms falling forward?
Lat Pull-downs
54
What is the focus in stage II of cardiorespiratory training?
Increasing capacity needed for strength-level exercise
55
What is involved in the preparatory step for a multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise?
Stand in front of a box with feet shoulder -width apart
56
Clients must learn to identify challenging situations and barriers to exercise. Which of the following processes is the best tool for this type of learning?
Self-monitoring
57
According to the stages of change model, what do trainers need to help clients overcome?
Relapse
58
Contracting the glutes while performing a static standing TFL stretch will cause which of the following effects?
Reciprocal Inhibition of the TFL
59
The active supine biceps femoris stretch uses which physiological principle to increase flexibility?
Reciprocal Inhibition
60
After leaving the left ventricle, blood enters which structure?
Aorta
61
Shoulder elevations refers to which of the following motions of the scapula?
Superior
62
For the best results, how should calcium supplements be consumed?
Spaced throughout the day
63
During a pushing assessment your client’s shoulders elevate, what muscles would most likely be overactive?
Mid and Lower Trapezius
64
Which is the preferred pulse point to record a person’s heart rate?
Radial Artery
65
What is the most accurate description of an individual with a BMI of 29?
Overweight
66
During the overhead squat assessment, the feet turn out, what muscles are underactive?
Medial Gastrocnemius
67
What types of SAQ drills are most appropriate for Phase 1 training?
Those with limited horizontal inertia
68
Which principle states the body will specifically adapt to the type of demand placed on it?
Principle of Specificity
69
How many sets per exercise should be performed in the resistance portion of the stabilization endurance level of training?
1-3
70
Dynamic stretching improves soft tissues extensibility by using which of the following?
Reciprocal Inhibition
71
What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise?
Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press
72
What cognitive-behavior approach involves thoughts influencing behavior?
Associations & Dissociation
73
Which muscle is the prime mover when a client performs a row?
Latissimus Dorsi
74
How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as?
Cardiac Output
75
What percent of the predicted hear rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training?
76% to 85%
76
When performing a _____, the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction?
Standing Cable Row
77
Which vitamins and mineral are known to have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements?
Vitamin A, D, Iron and Zinc
78
During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client's feet turn out. What stretches should be used to lengthen overactive muscles?
Standing Calf
79
For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which method to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate?
Heart Rate Response
80
If a client demonstrates shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which of the following muscles is considered overactive?
Upper Trapezius
81
A client's max heart must be established prior to administering the YMCA 3-min step test. This is achieved by?
220-age
82
A slow and controlled DB chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity?
Neuromuscular
83
During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. What muscle is probable overactive?
Latissimus dorsi
84
Which of the following ratings is perceived exrtion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?
12 to 13
85
Which of the 5 principles of goal setting focuses on establishing goals that are challenging but not extreme?
Attainable
86
An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of?
Reciprocal Inhibition
87
The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities?
Quickness
88
Which of the following muscles is probably underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat?
Rhomboids
89
What muscles are lengthened in lower cross syndrome
Transverse Abdominis
90
What is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?
60 to 70% of their max heart rate
91
What is the system activated at the onset of any activity, regardless of intensity?
ATP-PC
92
Davis's Law states which of the following?
Soft tissue models along the illness of stress
93
What is the inner most layer of muscular connective tissue?
Endomysium
94
During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?
Stomach
95
NASM trainers shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records for a minimum of?
4 years
96
When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the lateral gastrocnemius is?
Rotation of the feet
97
Which of the following is the proper lower extremity position when performing a ball squat?
Knee over second toe
98
Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?
20 seconds
99
A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor . Which of the following is proprioceptive and challenging progression?
Two-leg squat on Dyna Disc

NASM Practice Exam (1 decks)

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