NATOPS Flashcards
(214 cards)
1
Q
What does NATOPS stand for and what is its purpose?
A
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization. The NATOPS Program is a positive approach toward improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in the aircraft mishap rate.
2
Q
Define ‘Warning’
A
Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury, death, or loss of aircraft, if not carefully observed or followed.
3
Q
Land as soon as Practicable.
A
Extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of the flight are at the discretion of the PIC.
4
Q
Caution
A
Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.
5
Q
Land as soon as Possible
A
Execute a landing at the first site at which a safe landing can be made.
6
Q
Note
A
Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized.
7
Q
Land Immediately
A
Execute a landing without delay.
8
Q
Shall
A
Is used only when application of a procedure is mandatory.
9
Q
Should
A
Is used only when application of a procedure is recommended.
10
Q
Define ‘May’ and ‘Need Not’.
A
Are used only when application of a procedure is optional.
11
Q
Define ‘Will’.
A
Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.
12
Q
What are the Primary Missions of the MH-60R?
A
CANES
- Command and Control (CC)
- Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW)
- Non-combat Operations (NCO)
- Electronic Warfare (EW)
- Surface Warfare (SUW)
13
Q
What are the Secondary Missions of the MH-60R?
A
NAIL HAF
- Naval Special Warfare (NSW)
- Amphibious Warfare (AMW)
- Intelligence Operations (INT)
- Logistics (LOG)
- Health Services (HS)
- Air Warfare (AW)
- Fleet Support Operations (FS-O)
14
Q
What is the maximum amount of passengers the MH-60R can take? Which configuration(s)?
A
Maximum of 3 passengers in the Logistics/VERTREP and SAR/MEDEVAC configurations.
15
Q
What is the maximum amount of seats that may be occupied in any configuration?
A
Max is 4 occupied seats in any configuration.
16
Q
What must be removed in order to install the starboard rear seat?
A
The dipping sonar must be removed in order to install the starboard rear seat.
17
Q
What must be removed in order to install the center rear seat?
A
The dipping sonar, sonobuoy launcher, and the RAST probe must be removed in order to install the center rear seat.
18
Q
What must be removed in order to install the port rear seat?
A
The dipping sonar and sonobuoy launcher must be removed in order to install the port rear seat.
19
Q
What are the considerations to conducting SAR with an LHEP installed?
A
The LHEP significantly reduces FOV and success rate of obtaining visual contact with a survivor when performing SAR lookout duties from the SO window.
Consideration should be given to removing the LHEP to enhance probability of detection/sighting of the survivor.
20
Q
Can the MH-60R be a dedicated SAR aircraft while configured for ASW with the ALFS installed?
A
It is not recommended that the MH-60R be dedicated as a SAR aircraft while configured for ASW with the ALFS installed due to confined cabin space.
21
Q
What does litter installation prevent the use of?
A
Litter installation prevents the use of the Sensor Operator (SO) seat and the instructor seat.
22
Q
Why is being dedicated as the SAR aircraft with the RHEP installed not recommended?
A
Due to the decreased area at the cabin door.
23
Q
If either/both of the port or center rear seats is/are occupied, what SHALL be unoccupied and why?
A
If either/both of the port or center rear seats is/are occupied, the SO console seat shall be unoccupied AND secured in the full forward position.
This is due to the head strike hazard posed by the SO console seat in the event of a crash.
24
Q
What type of seat can be installed in the instructor seat location? Why not any other type of seat?
A
Only the Simula seat shall be installed in the instructor seat location. Installation of other seats poses a head strike hazard in the event of a crash.
25
What SHALL not be occupied if the GAU-21 is to be placed in the inboard stow configuration? If it is occupied, what must be done with the gun?
The instructor seat shall not be occupied if the GAU-21 is to be placed in the inboard stow position.
The GAU-21 shall remain in the firing position if the instructor seat is occupied.
26
Why must the RAST probe be removed if the center rear seat is to be installed?
The RAST probe prevents proper stroking of the center rear seat in the event of a crash.
27
Which seat SHALL be unoccupied if conducting VERTREP?
The center rear seat.
28
What are some considerations regarding the Simula seat?
The Simula seat should be removed during flights not requiring its use, because when installed, it creates an egress hazard for aircrewman.
29
What is the nomenclature of the MH-60R front-drive turboshaft engines?
T700-GE-401C/D
30
What are the 5 sections of the engine?
Inlet, Compressor, Combustor, Turbine, and Exhaust.
31
What percentage of airflow is used for combustion? What is the remaining airflow used for?
Approximately 30% of the total airflow through the engine is used for the combustion process.
The remainder is used for the following:
1. Engine Oil Seal Pressurization
2. T2 (Compressor Inlet Temperature) Air
3. P3 (Compressor Discharge Pressure) Air
4. Combustor and Turbine Cooling
32
When the PCL is in LOCKOUT, which gauges are you manually controlling?
If the PCL is momentarily advanced to LOCKOUT and then retarded, the PCL is used to manually control Np and Ng.
33
In general, explain the relationship/functions of the HMU and EDECU?
In general, the HMU provides gas generator control while the EDECU trims the HMU to satisfy the requirements of the power turbine load.
34
What is/are deactivated and must be manually controlled when the PCL is placed in LOCKOUT?
TGT Limiting, Np Governing, and Load Sharing.
35
Which function does NATOPS explicitly state is still retained with a PCL in LOCKOUT?
The Np Overspeed Protection System is retained when in LOCKOUT via a direct link between the EDECU and ODV.
36
How do you "reset" (take out of LOCKOUT) a PCL?
To return the automatic engine control, the PCL must be moved to IDLE, then returned to FLY.
37
What are the 5 criteria that trigger aborting an engine start?
1. Ng does not reach 14% within 6 seconds after starter initiation.
2. No oil pressure within 30 seconds after starter initiation (do not motor engine).
3. No light-off within 30 seconds after moving PCLs to IDLE.
4. ENG STARTER advisory disappears before reaching 52% Ng.
5. TGT is likely to exceed 851 C before idle speed is attained.
38
What is engine idle speed?
Generally, it is approximately 63% Ng. To determine if your engine idle speed is valid you need to determine OAT and plug it into the 'Time to Idle/Idle Speed' chart in NATOPS.
39
What is required for overwater flight at night?
1. LAWS (Low Altitude Warning System)
2. Altitude Hold (RAD ALT or BAR ALT)
40
What are the wind limitations for rotor engagement?
Maximum wind velocity for rotor engagement or disengagement is 45 knots from any direction.
41
What are the limits for TGT?
0 to 810 C = Continuous = Green
810 to 851 C = 30 minutes = Yellow
851 to 878 C = 10 minutes = Red
878 to 903 C = 2.5 minutes = Red
903 to 949 C = 12 seconds = Red
949 C = Maximum = Red
42
What are the limits for Nr?
<96% = Avoid = Red
96 to 101% = Continuous = Green
101 to 120% = Precautionary = Yellow
120% = Maximum = Red
123% = FCF Maximum = Red
127% = Overspeed Latch = Red
43
What are the limits for Np?
<96% = Avoid = Red
96 to 101% = Continuous = Green
101 to 105% = Continuous = Yellow
105 to 117% = 20 seconds = Yellow
117 to 120% = 12 seconds = Yellow
120% = Maximum = Red
44
When do Dual-Engine Torque limits apply?
Dual-Engine Torque limits apply when both engines are above 65% torque.
45
What are the Dual-Engine Torque limits below 80 KIAS?
0 to 120% = Continuous = Green
120 to 144% = 10 seconds = Yellow
144% = Maximum = Red
46
What are the Dual-Engine Torque limits above 80 KIAS?
0 to 106% = Continuous = Green
106 to 127% = 10 seconds = Yellow
127% = Maximum = Red
47
What are the Single-Engine Torque limits?
0 to 135% = Continuous = Green
135 to 144% = 10 seconds = Red
144% = Maximum = Red
48
What are the Transmission Pressure limits?
20 psi = Minimum = Red
20 to 30 psi = Idle and Transient = Yellow
30 to 65 psi = Continuous = Green
45 to 60 psi = Level Flight Continuous = Green
65 to 130 psi = Precautionary = Yellow
130 psi = Maximum = Red
49
When should the transmission oil pressure be 45 to 60 psi?
During steady-state level pitch attitudes.
50
What Transmission Oil Pressure conditions may indicate a degraded lubrication, but do not constitute an emergency situation?
What SHALL they be documented on?
1. Steady pressure outside 45 to 60 psi, but within the normal limits of 30 to 65 psi.
2. Fluctuations not to exceed a range of 10 psi, within the normal limits of 30 to 65 psi.
51
Which two types of transmission oil pressure fluctuations are acceptable during transient pitch or steady-state nose-high pitch attitudes?
1. Momentary fluctuations below 30 psi.
2. Transient drops below 20 psi for up to 1 second.
52
Operating with transmission oil pressure fluctuations below ___ psi SHALL be limited to ___ minutes.
30, 30
53
What is indicated by a zero oil pressure reading during rotor engagement?
How long can you operate under this condition?
What must the HAC do after experiencing this?
During Rotor Engagement, a zero oil pressure indication may indicate a no-oil flow condition through the oil lubrication system.
Operating with a no oil pressure indication SHALL be limited to less than 1 minute and SHALL be documented on a MAF.
54
What are the Engine Oil Pressure limits?
22 psi = Minimum = Red
22 to 26 psi = Precautionary = Yellow
26 to 100 psi = Continuous = Green
100 to 120 psi = Precautionary = Yellow
120 psi = Maximum = Red
55
What are the Engine Starter limits?
At less than 16 C, you must disengage the starter for 60 seconds after the first three starter engagement cycles and after the fourth you must disengage for 30 minutes.
At 16 to 52 C, you must disengage 60 seconds after the first cycle and disengage 30 minutes after the second cycle.
56
What is the definition of a start cycle?
Starter initiation, acceleration in Ng, and starter dropout/disengagement.
57
Times for motoring are _________ within a 5 minute period.
Cumulative
58
What are the Engine Motoring (with ignition off) limits?
At any temperature, the starter may be engaged for up to 2 minutes for the first motoring followed by a 5 minute disengagement period.
For the second motoring, the starter may be engaged for up to 2 minutes followed by a 30 minute disengagement period.
59
During engagement, extended operations in the _________ and _________ ranges, may cause engine damage.
20 to 40%, 60 to 75%
60
What is the Maximum (Vne) airspeed?
180 KIAS
61
What is the maximum airspeed for Side/Rearward Flight?
35 KIAS
62
What is the maximum airspeed for an Autorotation?
100 KIAS
63
What is the maximum airspeed for Boost Off?
140 KIAS
64
What is the maximum airspeed with SAS 1 and SAS 2 inoperative in IMC?
125 KIAS
65
What is the maximum airspeed with either PRI SERVO PRESS caution?
125 KIAS
66
What is the maximum airspeed with the Searchlight Out of Stow?
160 KIAS
67
What is the maximum airspeed with the Searchlight in Transition?
100 KIAS
68
What is the maximum airspeed and bank angle with the dome At/Above Trail?
70 KIAS / 45 deg AOB
69
What is the maximum airspeed and bank angle with the dome Below Trail?
70 KIAS / 15 deg AOB
70
What is the maximum airspeed when Opening/Closing the Cabin Door?
60 KIAS
71
What are the limits for Ng?
0 to 102.2% = Continuous = Green
>102.2 to 106% = 2.5 minutes = Yellow
>106% to 107% = 12 seconds = Red
107% = Maximum = Red
72
What are the limits for Transmission Temperature?
-50 to 105 C = Continuous = Green
105 to 120 C = Precautionary = Yellow
120 C = Maximum = Red
73
Is maintenance action required if main transmission oil temperature is in the precautionary range for 5 minutes or less?
No, no maintenance action is required.
74
What may cause main transmission oil temperature to rise into the precautionary range?
Prolonged hovering in hot weather (86 F / 30 C).
75
Operation in the precautionary range for less than ___ minutes during any one flight in the precautionary range is acceptable and no maintenance action is required.
30
76
What are the Engine Oil Temperature limits?
-50 to 135 C = Continuous = Green
135 to 150 C = 30 min = Red
150 C = Maximum = Red
77
What are the acceptable in-flight uses of the APU?
1. Emergency Procedures
2. Single-Engine Training
3. Practice Autorotations
4. Powering the ECS in extreme temperature operations.
78
With MTS installed, failure to maintain balanced flight below 90 KIAS in descents over 1,000 fpm will result in what?
Inaccurate and erratic airspeed indications.
79
Per the External Load and Rescue Hoist Load Maneuvering Limitations chart, angle of bank is limited to ____@____,____@____,____@____,____@____,____@____, and ____@____.
1. 10 deg @ 0 KIAS
2. 12 deg @ 10 KIAS
3. 15 deg @ 20 KIAS
4. 17 deg @ 30 KIAS
5. 20 deg @ 40 to 90 KIAS
6. 10 deg @ 100 to 120 KIAS
80
When is bank angle limited to 30 deg?
1. Operations above 10,000 DA
2. Either PRI SERVO PRESS caution illuminated
3. Boost-off Flight
81
What are the prohibited maneuvers listed in NATOPS?
1. Aerobatic Flight
2. Practice Full-Autorotation Landings
3. Intentional Approaches into or inducement of Retreating Blade Stall
82
What are the slope landing limitations?
a. 6 deg nose-down slope
b. 9 deg nose-up slope
c. 12 deg cross-slope
83
What may occur when landing nose-down on a slope with the cyclic near the aft stop?
A low-frequency oscillation
84
Maximum rate of descent for sloped terrain shall not exceed ____ fpm.
360
85
Maximum rate of descent for level terrain SHALL not exceed ____ for gross weights less than 19,500lbs and ____ for gross weights above 19,500lbs.
720 fpm, 480 fpm
86
Maximum touchdown speed SHALL not exceed ____ with tailwheel locked and ____ with tailwheel unlocked.
75 KGS, 20 KGS
87
Maximum ground taxi speed is ____. If the shimmy damper is not installed or is inoperative, maximum ground taxi speed is ____.
40 KGS, 20 KGS
88
What are the changes associated with the T700-GE-401D engines?
1. They have improved material properties incorporated into their turbines.
2. They have new TGT bias', see picture for detail.
89
What does EDECU stand for and what are its 16 functions?
Enhanced Digital Electronic Control Unit
4N CHEF ETATE MAD
1. Ng Decay Relight Feature
2. Np Governing
3. Np Overspeed Protection
4. Np Overspeed Test
5. Cockpit Signals
6. Hot Start Prevention
7. EDECU LOCKOUT
8. Fault Diagnostic System
9. Engine Speed Trim
10. Transient Droop Improvement (TDI)
11. Auto-Ignition System
12. TGT Limiting
13. Engine Load Sharing
14. Manual Contingency Power
15. Auto-Ignitinon Contingency Power
16. Dual-Engine Auto-Contingency Power
90
Explain the Ng Decay Relight Feature.
The auto-ignition system also includes an Ng Decay Relight feature.
If an engine flames out for any reason and exceeds a specified Ng deceleration rate, the auto-ignition system will turn on the igniters for 5 seconds in an attempt to relight the engine.
The Ng Decay Relight Feature is disabled below 62% Ng.
91
Explain the Np Governing function.
The Np sensor located on the left side of the power turbine section provides an Np signal to the EDECU.
Actual Np is compared to a reference Np to compute a speed error input signal for use in electrical control computation.
92
Explain Np Overspeed Protection.
The Np Overspeed system is composed of redundant circuits, which rely on a signal from the Np overspeed and torque sensor, located on the right side of the power turbine section.
The overspeed system is actuated at 120% Np.
When Np exceeds 120%, a signal is sent from the EDECU to the ODV, diverting fuel from the inlet of the HMU, causing engine flameout.
93
Explain how the Np Overspeed Test works.
The Np Overspeed Test if performed by pressing the ENG OVERSPEED TEST A and B buttons simultaneously with Np above 96%.
When both buttons are pressed simultaneously, the Np overspeed limit is lowered from 120% to 96%.
A successful Np Overspeed test is indicated by a decrease in Ng due to the absence of fuel to the engine.
If Ng speed decreases when either button is depressed individually, the opposite test button may be faulty.
94
Which Cockpit Signals does the EDECU send? How?
The EDECU provides Np, TGT, and Torque to the Data Concentrator (DTC) for display.
95
Explain Hot Start Prevention.
Detects a hot start when TGT exceeds 900° C with Ng below 60% and Np below 50% and automatically stops fuel flow by tripping the ODV.
Fuel flow is restored when TGT either decreases to 300° C or after 25 seconds, whichever occurs first.
Can be disabled by pressing and holding ENG OVSP TEST A and B buttons during the engine start sequence.
Its self-test is performed when conducting an Np Overspeed System Test.
96
Explain Engine Speed Trim.
An ENG SPD TRIM switch, located on the upper console, with positions INCR and DECR, controls the Np of both engines simultaneously.
There is no individual engine trim capability.
The ENG SPD TRIM switch supplies a reference electrical signal to the EDECUs for controlling Np as required between 96 and 101% Np.
97
Describe the Fault Diagnostic System
The EDECU validates signals for selected input signals. If one fails, a fault code (one or more) will display on the engine torque indicator, with a brief description below the vertical instruments.
Fault codes will only be displayed with airframe power applied and both engines shutdown. Codes are displayed starting with the lowest code (4 seconds ON, 2 seconds OFF), rotating through all codes then repeating.
They can be suppressed/recalled by pressing the ENG OVSP TEST A or B buttons.
A cleared fault code is verified by stabilizing TGT above 425° with the PCLs in IDLE/FLY and then shutting down.
98
EDECU fault code 15 may result in an _____, and subsequent engine damage.
EDECU-driven engine control failure
99
Failure to suppress the EDECU fault codes will prevent _____ and _____ from operating due to the torque signal being relayed to the ______.
AFCS ground checks, automatic blade fold, AFCC computer.
100
Explain Manual Contingency Power.
The TGT limit can be increased by placing the CONTGCY PWR switch to the ON position. This sends a signal to the EDECU to allow TGT to increase above the MRP limiter setting (10 min TGT limit).
The CRP limiter will prevent further increase in the fuel flow to the engine.
The #1 and #2 ENG CONTGCY PWR ON and ECS OFF advisories will illuminate to indicate that manual contingency power has been activated.
101
Explain Auto Contingency Power.
In addition to existing manual contingency power, the EDECU also provides automatic contingency power, which is enabled in OEI conditions.
When torque from one engine is below 50% (180 ft/lbs) the opposite engine EDECU will automatically reset the TGT limiter from the MRP limiter setting to the CRP limiter setting.
The #1 and #2 ENG CONTGCY PWR ON advisories will not illuminate to indicate that automatic contingency power has been activated.
102
Explain the EDECU LOCKOUT function.
After being moved momentarily to LOCKOUT, the PCL is used to manually control Ng and Np. As a result, engine power is no longer controlled by the EDECU, it is set by PAS and LDS positions.
With the PCL in LOCKOUT, the torque motor servo is disabled, therefore deactivating TGT Limiting, Np Governing, and Engine Load Sharing. The Np Overspeed Protection System is retained in LOCKOUT.
103
Explain the Transient Droop Improvement (TDI) function.
The TDI system is designed to initiate power turbine acceleration early by using anticipator signals from the TDI Nr sensor located on the left accessory module and a collective position sensor in the mixing unit.
Circuit in the EDECU increase fuel flow to the engine via the HMU torque motor servo at low torque settings when collective demand is increased rapidly or in the event of rapid Nr decay.
104
Explain the Auto-Ignition System.
When an overspeed condition is reached or during the Np Overspeed Test, the ignition sequence is automatically initiated and held for 5 seconds to relight the engine.
The Np Overspeed/Auto-Ignition System will continue cycling until the Np overspeed condition is controlled.
A yaw kick may be experienced each time the engine relights.
105
Explain the TGT Limiting function.
Measured TGT is compared to a fixed reference TGT. When the temperature is above the reference, a signal is generated to limit fuel flow.
The reference TGT, also called the MRP limiter setting, varies based on the type of EDECU installed. The MRP limiter setting can be identified by the DAS torque code.
If power demand is further increased, Np/Nr will droop below 100%; Np governing will be sacrificed to protected the engine from overheating.
106
Explain the Engine Load Sharing.
Torque signals are compared between the two engines via the respective EDECUs.
A torque error signal is generated if one engine torque is less than the other.
The torque matching system operates by increasing power on the lower torque engine, while not directly affecting the higher torque engine.
107
What are the 3 control parameters of the EDECU?
1. Np Sensing/Governing
2. Np Overspeed and Torque Sensing
3. TGT Monitoring
108
The EDECU receives which 3 inputs from the cockpit?
1. ENG SPD TRIM switch
2. CONTGCY PWR switch
3. ENG OVERSPEED TEST A and B buttons
109
List the 4 input signals the helicopter sends to the EDECU.
1. Torque from the other EDECU
2. Np demand
3. 400-Hz backup power
4. HMU (LVDT)
110
What are the 4 signals the EDECU sends to the cockpit?
1. Torque
2. Np
3. TGT
4. Contingency power
111
What 3 factors must be present to enter into Ground Resonance?
1. Total loss of hydraulic pressure to the main rotor damper.
2. Lateral disturbance of the main rotor head on deck or upon landing.
3. Convergence of fuselage roll frequency and main rotor lag frequency.
112
What 3 factors must be present to enter into Ground Resonance?
1. Total loss of hydraulic pressure to the main rotor damper system.
2. Lateral disturbance of the main rotor head on deck or upon landing.
3. Convergence of fuselage roll frequency and main rotor lag frequency.
113
List the 5 microswitches that set the PYLON FLIGHT light.
1. Pylon Lock Pin Switch
2. 5°
3. Tail Rotor Blade Indexer Switch
4. Stabilator Lock Pin Switches (x2)
114
What are the 5 types of control mixing?
Mechanical Compensation
1. Collective to Yaw
2. Collective to Lateral
3. Collective to Longitudinal
4. Yaw to Longitudinal
Electrical Compensation
5. Collective/Airspeed to Yaw
115
Explain Collective to Yaw control mixing.
Cause:
Main rotor torque.
Compensation Requirement:
Nose yaws right when collective is increased.
Compensation:
Tail rotor thrust is increased.
116
Explain Collective to Lateral control mixing.
Cause:
Lateral lead (tail rotor propeller effect).
Compensation Requirement:
Helicopter drifts right when collective is increased.
Compensation:
Rotor disc is tilted left.
117
Explain Collective to Longitudinal control mixing.
Cause:
Rotor downwash on stabilator.
Compensation Requirement:
Helicopter nose pitches up causing helicopter to drift aft when collective is increased
Compensation:
Rotor disc is tilted forward.
118
Explain Yaw to Longitudinal control mixing.
Cause:
Tail rotor lift vector.
Compensation Requirement:
Nose pitches down and helicopter drifts forward when left pedal is applied.
Compensation:
Rotor disc is tilted aft.
119
Explain Collective/Airspeed to Yaw control mixing.
Cause:
Camber of tail rotor pylon varies side load with airspeed.
Compensation Requirement:
Nose yaws left as airspeed increases.
Compensation:
a portion of the main rotor torque compensation is provided by a trim input that is proportional to collective position and airspeed. The trim input is then progressively washed out as pylon side loads increase with airspeed.
120
It is possible for a malfunction to occur in the LDS; notably a _____ or _____.
Roll-pin failure, LDS cable malfunction.
121
A _____ failure will result in the maximum _____ input into the HMU, regardless of _____ position.
Roll-pin, LDS, collective.
122
In general, in-flight diagnosis of an LDS malfunction is determined by they dynamic response of _____ to _____ inputs.
Torque, collective.
123
A jammed or stuck _____ may result in the minimum LDS input to the _____ regardless of _____ position.
Cable, HMU, collective.
124
How will a jammed or stuck cable affect power available from the affected engine? Would LOCKOUT clear this?
A jammed or stuck cable may restrict maximum power available from the affected engine.
Operation in LOCKOUT will not clear this low-power condition.
125
While ON DECK with PCLs in IDLE, what will engine indications be for an LDS malfunction?
The Ng of the malfunctioning engine will be 3% to 4% higher than the nonaffected engine.
126
While ON DECK DURING ROTOR ENGAGEMENT, what will engine indications be for an LDS malfunction?
The engine with the failed LDS will indicate higher torque as PCLs are evenly advanced to FLY. The good engine may not indicate torque until its PCL is in FLY.
127
While ON DECK with PCLs IN FLY and COLLECTIVE FULL DOWN, what will engine indications be for an LDS malfunction?
Indications may range from no indication of a failure (matched torque at 100% Np/Nr) to a possible 1% to 2% torque split with Nr and both Np's matched within 1% to 2%, above 100%.
128
During the INITIAL INCREASE of COLLECTIVE FOR TAKEOFF, what will the engine indications be for an LDS malfunction?
There will be a torque split; the torque of the engine with the failed LDS will be lower than the nonaffected engine.
129
While in flight and increasing collective (WITH COLLECTIVE BELOW APPROXIMATELY 75% OF FULL UP POSITION), what will the engine indications be for an LDS malfunction?
There will be a torque split; the torque of the engine with the failed LDS will be lower than the good engine.
130
During STABLE FLIGHT, what will the engine indications be for an LDS malfunction?
There will be no indications of failure (matched torques).
131
During an AUTOROTATION, what will the engine indications be for an LDS malfunction?
There will be a rapid Np/Nr rise. The engine with the failed LDS may show a residual torque of approximately 12% with the collective full down.
132
List the 4 Primary Fuels in NATOPS.
1. JP-5
2. JP-8
3. F-24
4. TS-1
133
List the 4 Restricted Fuels in NATOPS.
1. JET A-1
2. JET A
3. JP-4
4. JET B
134
List the 2 Emergency Fuels in NATOPS.
1. JP8+100
2. F-27
135
List the 4 items in NATOPS that require Operational Necessity.
1. Using an Emergency Fuel
2. Night Shipboard External Cargo Operations
3. Night HIFR Operations
4. One or Two Wheel Landings
136
What 5 criteria must exist to initiate the Hydraulic Leak Test?
1. AC power
2. BACKUP HYD PMP switch in AUTO
3. All hydraulic reservoirs filed
4. Weight on wheels
5. Rotors engaged
137
A satisfactory Hydraulic Leak Test is indicated by the appearance of which 10 cautions/advisories?
1. #1 RSVR LOW
2. #2 RSVR LOW
3. BACK UP PMP RSVR LOW
4. SAS
5. BOOST SERVO OFF
6. AFCS DEGRADED
7. #1 TAIL RTR SERVO
8. #2 TAIL RTR SERVO ON
9. BACKUP PUMP ON
10. MASTER CAUTION
138
Fuel _____ dumped when the helicopter is on the ground. The fuel dump system is _____ by the WOW switch.
Can be, not protected.
139
FMCP switches need only be set to _____ and _____ if the pilots desire to dump fuel from the external tanks.
TRANSFER, MANUAL OVRD.
140
Do not initiate unmonitored manual fuel transfer to the main tank from the auxiliary tanks until the main tank is below _____.
3,200 pounds
141
When the FMCP is in AUTO, the fuel management logic is not initiated until the main fuel tank fuel level depletes to approximately _____.
2,640 pounds
142
Ensure the main fuel level is below _____ prior to conducting manual fuel transfer.
3,700 pounds
143
What are the 6 items the HMU provides?
1. Rapid engine transient response through collective compensation.
2. Automatic fuel scheduling for engine start.
3. Ng overspeed protection.
4. Ng governing.
5. Acceleration limiting.
6. Flameout and compressor stall protection.
144
Some fuel is tapped off to operate various servos in the HMU for what 3 things?
1. Positioning a metering valve to ensure proper fuel flow to the engine.
2. Positioning a servo piston that actuates the variable geometry vane servo and start bleed valve.
3. Amplifying various signals (T2, P3, Ng) that influence fuel flow and variable geometry servo position.
145
The HMU responds to the PCL for what 5 things?
1. Fuel shutoff.
2. Setting engine start fuel flow with automatic acceleration to ground idle.
3. Setting permissible Ng up to maximum.
4. Fuel priming.
5. EDECU override capability (LOCKOUT).
146
What are the 4 main functions of the ODV?
1. Provide main fuel flow to the 12 fuel injectors during engine start and operation.
2. Purge the main fuel manifold overboard, after shutdown, through a shutoff drain valve to prevent coking of the fuel injectors.
3. Trap fuel upstream, which keeps the fuel/oil heat exchanger full, so that system priming is not required prior to the next start.
4. Returns fuel back to the HMU if the Np overspeed is energized or if the EDECU hot start preventer is activated.
147
Explain the Engine DAS Torque Code Summary.
148
What are the 3 ways to anti-ice the engine?
1. Vent bleed air into the engine swirl vanes and engine inlet guide vanes (IGVs) by the engine anti-ice/start bleed valve.
2. Vent bleed air into the airframe engine inlet by the engine inlet anti-ice valve.
3. Continuously pump engine oil through the scroll vanes.
149
What are the possible indications of imminent failure of the main transmission?
1. Yaw attitude excursions with no control input.
2. An increase in power required for a fixed collective setting.
3. Failure of a main generator or hydraulic pump.
4. Increased noise and/or vibration levels.
5. Abnormal fumes in the cabin.
150
What are the 2 types of transmission malfunctions?
Chip and lubrication.
151
What are the 4 secondary indications associated with a Main Transmission Malfunction?
1. Pressure and temperature relationships
2. Transmission chip cautions
3. MAIN XMSN OIL HOT (caution)
4. MAIN XMSN PRESS LOW (caution)
152
What are the 3 ways to refuel the aircraft?
1. Pressure refueling
2. Gravity refueling
3. Helicopter In-Flight Refueling (HIFR)
153
Which refueling method filters out water?
HIFR
154
What are the 4 caution lights that will initiate operation of the automatic backup pump module?
1. #1 HYD PUMP (caution)
2. #2 HYD PUMP (caution)
3. #1 RSVR LOW (caution)
4. #1 TAIL RTR SERVO (caution)
155
What type of system is AFCS?
The Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) is an electrohydromechanical system.
156
What are the 3 major AFCS subsystems?
1. Stability Augmentation System (SAS)
2. Stabilator System
3. Advanced Flight Control Computer (AFCC)
157
While in flight and increasing collective (WITH COLLECTIVE ABOVE APPROXIMATELY 75% OF FULL UP POSITION), what will the engine indications be for an LDS malfunction?
There will be no indications of failure (no torque split), as both LDS are at their maximum setting.
158
While in a STABLE HOVER, what will engine indications be for an LDS malfunction?
There will be no indications of failure (matched torques).
159
Explain Dual-Engine Auto-Contingency Power.
This feature allows the EDECU to bypass the MRP limiter setting (10-minute TGT limit), and instead limits the engine at the CRP limiter setting.
For this feature to activate, TGT must be within 11° C of the MRP limiter setting, plus one of the following conditions must exist:
1. Np drop below 96%.
2. >3% droop between actual Np and the Np reference set point.
3. >5% per second Np droop exists when actual Np is less than/equal to Np reference set point.
160
What do the Generator Control Units (GCUs) do?
1. Regulate generator output.
2. Connect generators to ac buses.
3. Protect against: Overvoltage, Undervoltage, Feeder Fault, and Underfrequency.
161
With WOW, when do the GCUs remove the main generator's electrical input from the ac distribution system?
When Nr drops below 94%.
162
In flight, _____ _____ is disabled and the generators will remain online until _____.
Underfrequency protection, Nr decreases to approximately 80%.
163
A minimum of _____ is required for the GCU to reconnect the generators to the ac distribution system.
97% Nr
164
What is external power monitored for?
1. Phase rotation
2. Overvoltage
3. Undervoltage
4. Overfrequency
5. Underfrequency
165
What are the 5 buses in the AC electrical system?
1. No. 1 AC Primary Bus
2. No. 2 AC Primary Bus
3. AC Essential Bus
4. AC Secondary Bus
5. AC Monitor Bus
166
With both generators operating normally, what does each power?
No. 1 Generator powers:
a. No. 1 AC Primary Bus
b. AC Essential Bus
c. AC Secondary Bus
No. 2 Generator powers:
a. No. 2 AC Primary Bus
b. AC Monitor Bus
167
If the APU generator is selected while both main generators are operating, what will happen?
The APU generator will not be connected to the ac bus distribution system.
168
Should either main generator fail, automatic bus switching limits the ac load to the available generator output.
If electrical power demand exceeds the capacity of the generator operating normally, the electrical bus loads are redistributed to available generators as follows:
1. _____
2. _____
3. _____
1. The backup pump (major load on the No. 1 AC Primary Bus) will always be powered, if required.
2. The mission avionics system is the major load on the AC Secondary Bus and is the next priority. Tail rotor de-ice power is also supplied from this bus.
3. The main rotor de-ice system is the only system powered from the AC Monitor Bus and has the lowest priority of the major current drawing components.
169
What does the Backup Hydraulic System do?
1. Supplies hydraulic pressure to the No. 1 and No. 2 hydraulic systems prior to rotor engagement.
2. Provides hydraulic pressure to the rescue hoist system.
3. Recharges the APU accumulator.
4. Supplies emergency hydraulic pressure to the No. 1 and No. 2 hydraulic systems as well as the 2nd stage of the tail rotor servo when pressure loss occurs.
170
When the backup pump is supplying pressure to the _____, the priority valve may secure hydraulic pressure to the _____ due to low system pressure.
#2 Tail Rotor Servo, Rescue Hoist.
171
_____ failure may occur if the backup pump is turned on with _____ operating.
MTS
172
When will the backup hydraulic pump energize?
After 4 seconds on APU or external power, or 0.5 seconds with either main generator on.
173
With Weight-On-Wheels and the BACKUP HYD PMP switch position:
_____
_____
_____
OFF
The backup pump remains off.
ON
With the No. 1 and No. 2 hydraulic pumps operating normally, the backup pump recirculates hydraulic fluid to and from each transfer module and maintains pressure in the APU and rescue hoist, as required. The backup pump remains on until it is secured.
AUTO
The backup pump automatically maintains hydraulic pressure to the No. 1 and/or No. 2 hydraulic systems, including 2nd stage of the tail rotor servo (as required for hydraulic system pressure and/or fluid losses detected by the LDI system).
174
With Weight-Off-Wheels and the BACKUP HYD PMP switch position:
_____
_____
OFF or AUTO
The backup pump automatically maintains hydraulic pressure to the No. 1 and/or No. 2 hydraulic systems, including the 2nd stage of the T/R servo (as required for hydraulic system pressure and/or fluid losses detected by the LDI system). The backup pump also maintains hydraulic pressure in the 2nd stage of the tail rotor servo when the TAIL SERVO switch is placed to BKUP.
ON
With the No. 1 and No. 2 pumps operating normally, the backup pump recirculates hydraulic fluid to or from each transfer module and maintains pressure in the APU accumulator and rescue hoist systems, as required. The backup pump remains on until secured.
175
When the APU accumulator pressure is low and the backup pump is activated, the backup pump will run for at least _____ (_____ with winterization kit installed), regardless of _____.
90 seconds, 180 seconds, BACKUP HYD PMP switch position.
176
How many chip detectors does the main transmission system have, what are their names, and where are they located?
5 total:
No. 1 Accessory Module
No. 2 Accessory Module
No. 1 Input Module
No. 2 Input Module
Main Module
The Accessory Module Chip Detectors are located on the their respective return lines.
The Input Module Chip Detectors and Main Module Chip Detector are located in the Main Module.
177
Each main transmission chip detectors has a _____ feature which eliminates _____ created by _____. This feature is deactivated when _____; however, _____ will remain.
Burnoff, false warnings, fuzz and minute particles, oil temperature is above 140° C, magnetic detection.
178
The chip detector for the main module sump rests in _____, contains an embedded temperature sensor, and incorporates a _____ to further eliminate false warnings.
The lowest point of the oil system, 30-second time dealy.
179
What is unique about the IGB and TGB chip detectors?
They contain an embedded oil temperature switch and will indicate when a chip is present and/or the gearbox oil temperature is high.
180
The CHIP IBIT takes approximately _____ to verify circuitry and checks the individual chip detectors For approximately _____, 28 Vdc is interrupted and _____ and _____ will not correctly respond.
2 minutes, the first 40 seconds of the test, WCAs, MASTER CAUTION lights.
181
Do the engine's chip detectors have fuzz burnoff capability?
No
182
What are the 4 items requiring operational necessity in NATOPS?
1. Use of an emergency fuel.
2. Night shipboard external cargo operations.
3. Night HIFR.
4. One or two wheel landings.
183
Flameouts may be encountered following nosedown ground operations in excess of _____ when using _____, _____ or _____.
10 minutes, JP-5, JP-8, equivalent fuels.
184
When fueling with JP-5 _____, helicopters shall not be hangared until the flashpoint of the fuel in the helicopter tanks is _____.
Not possible, above 120° F.
185
If JP-4/JET B is used, the following operational restrictions/considerations apply:
1._____
2._____
3._____
4._____
1. All tanks shall stabilize in a hover with no fuel pressure cautions for a minimum of 10 seconds before commencing transition to forward flight.
2. Single-engine training is prohibited.
3. Operating characteristics may change. Lower operating temperatures, slower acceleration, and shorter range may be experienced.
4. Due to the vapor qualities of mixed JP-4/JET B, the next two refuelings with a primary fuel shall be treated as if JP-4/JET B is in the tanks.
186
Aside from the fuel changeover procedure, when are all tanks assumed to be rid of JP-4/JET B?
When all tanks are refueled with JP-5, JP-8, or equivalent after complete suction defueling of JP-4/JET B (purging not required).
187
Define Primary Fuel.
A fuel that the aircraft is authorized to use for continuous and unrestricted operations.
188
Define Restricted Fuel.
A fuel that imposes operational restrictions on the aircraft.
189
Define Emergency Fuel.
A fuel which may be used for a minimum amount of time when no other primary or restricted fuel is available in case of emergency or operational necessity.
190
Wait at least _____ after engine shutdown before checking the engine oil level or servicing to prevent _____ upon restarting the engine.
20 minutes, potential engine seal failure.
191
Wait _____ after APU shutdown prior to checking APU oil level.
1 hour
192
Accurate main transmission oil level readings are not possible until _____ after shutdown. The hot scale is used _____ to _____ after shutdown. The cold scale is used _____after shutdown.
30 minutes, 30 minutes, 2 hours, 2 hours or longer.
193
Swimmer shall not be _____ to effect the recovery of inanimate objects.
Required to enter the water.
194
_____ shall not be attempted with a damaged hoist cable.
Personnel hoist.
195
While operating in a salt spray environment for any period of time, a TGT rise of _____ for a _____ is an indication of engine performance degradation and possible _____.
20° C, constant torque, salt encrustation.
196
A TGT rise of _____ for a _____ is an indication of engine performance degradation that may result in _____.
40° C, constant torque, compressor stalls.
197
The probability of salt ingestion is greatest in winds of _____.
8 to 12 knots.
198
What are the PAC's considerations while flying a manual approach prior to a coupled hover?
1. Scan should be primarily outside.
2. Do not decelerate below 50 KIAS until within 90° of the windline.
3. Do not descend below 90' until into the windline.
4. Do not uncouple the rotorhead with large reductions in collective.
5. Ensure the aircraft does not descend below 70'.
199
What is overall length (with rotors turning) of the aircraft?
64 ft 10 in
200
What is the height of the aircraft?
16 ft 10 in
201
What is the diameter of the main rotor?
53 ft 8 in
202
What is the diameter of the tail rotor?
11 ft
203
What is the ground clearance of the aircraft?
6.5 in
204
What is the turning radius of the aircraft?
41 ft 7.7 in
205
What is the clearance required for a 180° turn?
84 ft
206
What are the 5 sections of the engine?
1. Inlet
2. Compressor
3. Combustor
4. Turbine
5. Exhaust
207
The compressor section consists of a _____ and a _____.
Five-stage axial, single-stage centrifugal rotor/stator assembly.
208
What does the Combustion Section consist of?
1. Igniters (x2)
2. Fuel Injectors (x12)
3. Flow-through annular combustion chamber
209
What drives the engine's AGB?
The Ng turbine, which is a two-stage, air-cooled, high-performance axial design.
210
The Np turbine has _____ that turn the power turbine drive shaft. The shaft is coaxial, turning _____. It extends through the front of the engine where it connects to the _____, which in turn connects to the input module.
Two stages, inside the gas-generator turbine drive shaft, high speed shaft.
211
What is the power turbine is comprised of ?
1. Rotors
2. Drive shaft
3. Case
3. Exhaust frame
212
How is Np Overspeed retained when in LOCKOUT?
The Np overspeed protection system is retained when in LOCKOUT via a direct link between the EDECU and ODV.
213
With the PCL in FLY, the HMU responds to collective position, through a _____ to automatically control engine speed and provide required power.
Load Demand Spindle (LDS)
214
The engine-driven fuel boost pump mounted on the forward side of the AGB is designed to:
1. Provide reliable suction feed from the aircraft fuel tank to the engine, minimizing vulnerability and fire hazard in the event of damaged fuel lines.
2. Provide discharge pressure to satisfy the minimum inlet pressure requirement of the HMU or high-pressure fuel pump.
