NATOPS Exam Flashcards
(139 cards)
0
Q
The maximum VTOL gross weight of the V-22 is _____ lbs sea-level; maximum short takeoff (STO) gross weight is _____ lbs; and maximum alternate gross weight is _____ lbs.
A
52,600
57,000
60,500
1
Q
The MV-22 is a multi-mission aircraft with many applications. These applications include the following (7):
A
a. Medium Lift Assault Support
b. Tactical Recovery of Aircraft & Personnel (TRAP)
c. Emergency Evacuation
d. Fleet Logistics Support
e. Logistics Support Ashore
f. Long-Range Logistics Support
g. Medical Evacuation
2
Q
The nose to tail length of the V-22 is ___ ft ___ in.
A
57 ft 4 in
3
Q
The _____ _____ _____ is the primary interface between the flight crew, the aircraft systems, and avionics.
A
Cockpit management system
4
Q
When power is applied, _____ MC is designated as _____. The other MC then operates as the _____. The _____ receives all commands and data, performs the required routines, and monitors the _____ computer.
A
One Master Shadow Shadow Master
5
Q
Each _____ controls operation of _____ MFDs, with the capability of controlling _____ _____ MFDs in the event of a _____ failure.
A
DEU
two
All four
DEU
6
Q
There are five main aircraft interface units (AIUs) on the aircraft: the avionics bay interface unit (ABIU), two _____ _____ _____, the _____ _____ _____, and the drive system interface unit (DSIU).
A
Nacelle interface units
Wing interface unit
7
Q
An AIU text status page does not exist for the _____.
A
DSIU
8
Q
The DSIU, located on the midwing forward equipment shelf, monitors and controls the _____ _____ _____, and monitors for oil debris in the _____, TAGBs, MWGBs, and _____ _____.
A
Emergency lubrication system
PRGBs
Both engines
9
Q
The radar altimeter provides aircraft altitude above ground level (AGL) from _______ to approximately _______ ft.
A
0
4,500
10
Q
The _____ _______ __________ provides pitot-static pressure data to the FCCs.
A
Air data system
11
Q
Stall warning is provided for nacelle angles between _____ and _____.
A
0° and 35°
12
Q
The ______ ______ warning is initiated when the vertical velocity exceeds the vertical velocity limit with airspeed less than _____ kts and nacelle angle greater than _____ °.
A
Sink rate
80
65
13
Q
The operator can select MFD modes by depressing the bezel key associated with the desired function or by using the __________ __________.
A
Modding cursor
14
Q
__________ remain displayed until the condition which caused the __________ no longer exists.
A
Warnings
Warning
15
Q
__________ and __________ are only displayed on the MFDs when the MFDs are in the CDU backup mode.
A
Cautions
Advisories
16
Q
If the aircraft was _______ _______ with a proper system log off, the MCs will attempt to restore the aircraft configuration available prior to loss of power. This is referred to as a _______
A
Shut down
Warm start
17
Q
The Aircraft Start-Up Control Layer, on MFDs, provides three options:
A
- Maintainer Configuration
- Shipboard Minimum Power Configuration
- Normal Flight Operations Configuration.
18
Q
Match the Warning, Caution and Advisory to the correct meaning:
__________ Situation or condition requiring immediate attention but not necessarily immediate action. Non-routine action required to avoid or prevent equipment damage, comprise safety, or preclude a warning condition. Operator must take action to correct caution and/or land as soon as possible.
__________ System or mission limiting abnormal condition(s) exists; i.e., loss of redundancy or degradation within a redundant system, which may require operator action, but no specific crew action (e.g., HYD 1 RSVR LO).
__________ Situation or condition requiring immediate action and/or land immediately is dictated to prevent death, injury, equipment damage, or mission abort. Operator must take critical steps without reference to checklist or other aids.
A
Caution
Advisory
Warning
19
Q
There are 16 signals that prompt a voice warning:
A
- Left Engine Fire 9. Right Proprotor Gearbox Failure
- Right Engine Fire 10. Left Tilt Axis Gearbox Failure
- Midwing Fire 11. Right Tilt Axis Gearbox Failure
- Left Wing Fire 12. ICDS Failure
- Right Wing Fire 13. RPM Low
- Left Engine Fail 14. Stall
- Right Engine Fail 15. Elevator Control Failure
- Left Proprotor Gearbox Failure 16. Excessive Sink Rate
20
Q
__________ are indicated by illumination of the ___________ ___________ light, a text message displayed in __________ characters near the top of the MFDs, and a voice alert.
A
Warnings
Master alert
A red box in red
21
Q
Cautions and advisories are arranged from top to bottom based upon _________________________ associated with the condition being alerted.
A
Severity of the consequences
22
Q
In the event of an EICAS failure, the __________ will be treated as ___________ and displayed on all MFD layers and incorporated in the __________ summary list on the MFDs.
A
ASIs
Advisories
C/A
23
Q
_____________ _____________ ______________ provide information on data entry problems and interactive operation messages.
A
Operator information displays
24
_____________ _____________ ______________ are presented in the upper center of the CDU/EICAS in __________ characters.
Aircraft state indicators
| Green
25
The Standby Flight Display, located above the CDU on the instrument panel, provides for the independent backup of __________, __________, and __________ __________ parameters exclusive of the __________.
Engine
Fuel
Drive system
CMS
26
There are a total of _____ display layers for each pilot [on the HUD]. The display layers available are__________ __________,__________, __________, and __________ __________.
4
27
Output power is transferred to the Proprotor Gearbox (PRGB) by the __________ __________, located in the center of the _______________ assembly.
Torque shaft
| Torquemeter
28
The __________ also provides __________ __________ against damage due to exceedence of limits on engine gas generator (Ng), power turbine speed (Np), turbine temperature (MGT), and output shaft torque (Qe).
FADEC
| Engine protection
29
The FADECs transmit information to each other through a __________ __________ _______ _______ commonly referred to as cross-talk.
Cross channel data link
30
The primary mode of operation is one FADEC actively controlling each engine, while the second FADEC is in __________.
Standby
31
The __________ __________ __________ _______ controls fuel flow and pressure in response to signals from the FADECs.
Fuel pump metering unit
32
The __________ __________ is configured so that when it is in the ON position, it mechanically prohibits the ECLs from moving past the __________ position.
Rotor brake
| Crank
33
Forward or aft movement of the TCL is translated by the FCCs into a __________ ____________ __________ that is sent to the FADECs.
Power demand signal
34
The INTERIM POWER push button switch allows for selection of interim power at _______% mast torque and _______% Nr.
109
| 103.8
35
When in armed mode, INTERIM POWER automatically reengages when airspeed is below _______ KCAS and nacelle angle is above ______.
60
| 70°
36
There is no specific _______ __________ for the use of interim power.
Time limit
37
There are four primary purposes for selecting CRANK:
1. Reduce MGT prior to engine start
2. Perform engine crank rinse or crank wash
3. Perform mechanical systems checks
4. Clear engine of fuel after light-off failure
38
The _______ ________ function of the FADECS automatically turns on the igniters when an engine flameout is detected.
Auto relight
39
The EAPS assures a relatively clean flow of air into the engine. __________ blowers, in the lower portion of each EAPS, pull the scavenge flow through exit ducts which dump overboard from the __________ __________.
Two
| Lower nacelle
40
In the automatic mode, the blowers [EAPS] are controlled by the MCs to provide automatic operation under _______ KCAS.
80
41
The coanda deflector system is automatically activated when four conditions are met; they are:
1. Engine Torque (Qe) < 28 %
2. Ng < 67%
3. NAC Angle > 52 degrees
4. MGT < 565 degrees
5. NIU receives WOW.
42
The drive system consists of 2 __________ gearboxes, 2 __________ _________ gearboxes, 2 nacelle heat exchangers, midwing gearbox, emergency lubrication system, and the _______________ _______________ _______________.
Proprotor
Tilt axis
Interconnect drive shafts
43
Two PRGBs, one mounted in each nacelle, transmit power and provide a _______ __________ from the _______________ to the __________ _______.
Speed reduction
Engine
Proprotor mast
44
An extra idler gear in the __________ _________ first stage gear train results in __________ rotation of the __________ proprotor. The _____________ proprotor turns __________.
```
Left PRGB
Counterclockwise
Left
Right
Clockwise
```
45
The Emergency Lubrication System has the capability to continue supplying oil, at a reduced rate, for _______ minutes.
30
46
The No. 4 VFG, No. 1 CFG, _____ _______________ __________, MWGB oil cooler, MWGB oil pump, and the __________ __________ _______________ are driven by the MWGB.
No.3 hydraulic pump
| Shaft driven compressor
47
The ICDS is ______________, both physically and functionally, on each side of the aircraft. Each side consists of a pylon driveshaft that ___________ __________ between the ______ and the ______, a nacelle blower driveshaft ____________________ the TAGB to the nacelle blower, and _____ driveshafts that connect the TAGB to the MWGB.
```
Identical
Transmits torque
TAGB
PRGB
Connecting
5
```
48
The rotor brake, installed on the MWGB, is an __________ controlled, __________ operated unit.
Electrically
| Hydraulically
49
In the event of an emergency the rotor brake will stop the rotors from 100% in _____ seconds.
20
50
The __________ __________ assemblies are designed to reduce rotor induced 3/rev vibrations.
Pendulum damper
51
Each slip ring assembly provides a circuit path for electrical power to the __________ __________ __________, blade tip lights, flapping transducers, mast torque sensors, and ice protection distributor (for de-icing of the rotor blades, rotor __________, and __________) and anti-ice power for the rotor blade parting strips, _______ __________, and spinner strips.
Blade fold system
Fairings
Spinners
Pendulum damper
52
A __________ __________ caution is displayed when the FCC detects possible rotor flapping stop contact.
Flapping critical
53
There are five main fuel cells installed in the aircraft: two feed cells, two forward sponson cells, and one aft __________ sponson cell. The usable capacity for each feed tank is 88 gallons (__________ lbs JP5), 294 gallons (_________ lbs JP5) for each wing auxiliary tank, 478 gallons (__________ lbs JP5) for each forward sponson tank and 301 gallons (__________ lbs JP5) for the aft sponson tank.
600
2000
3250
2050
54
The feed tanks are designed to maintain approximately a _____ __________ supply of fuel for each engine.
30 minute
55
The __________ __________ caution will not be displayed when a tank is selected to be isolated.
Fuel trapped
56
Fuel for APU operation is suctioned from the __________ feed cell by the APU fuel pump.
Right
57
The AN/ALE-47 CMDS chaff/flare dispensing is _____________ while FUEL DUMP is selected.
Inhibited
58
___________ _____________ ____________ is the term used to describe the integration of the hydraulic system and the flight control system.
Vehicle management system
59
Hydraulic power is provided by __________ independent __________ psi systems.
Three
| 5,000
60
Switching logic in the _________ will automatically attempt to isolate a defective [hydraulic] system when loss of __________ or __________ is detected.
FCCs
Pressure
Fluid
61
During normal operation, the flight control surfaces and hydraulic systems are displayed _________. A single failure in triple redundant (or more) system is displayed in _______ _______ ______. When a loss of redundancy fault occurs (no redundancy remains), the affected surface is displayed _________. Failed surfaces or systems are displayed in _________.
Green
White cross hatch
Yellow
Red
62
The ______ ______ _____ key is used to open the utility isolation valve in flight when the landing gear is retracted to allow use of the ________ _______.
UTIL Open/close
| Utility subsystems
63
The Flight Control System (FCS) consists of mechanical __________ controls, _____________, computing devices, and _____________ which enables the aircrew to control the aircraft.
Cockpit
Sensors
Actuators
64
The FCS consists of two systems, the ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ and the ____________ ____________ ___________ ____________.
Primary flight control system (PFCS)
| Automatic flight control system (AFCS)
65
_____________ __________ _____________ (_____) is a flight control design approach that integrates handling qualities, performance, and load limiting requirements into the basic flight control software.
Structural load limiting (SLL)
66
The _____ control laws protect critical __________, _____________, and __________ loading.
SLL
proprotor
drivetrain
airframe
67
Any flight control system caution will cause the ______________ pushbutton switches to illuminate.
PFCS fail/reset
68
The control laws are automatically scheduled as a function of ________ ________ and __________.
Nacelle angle
| Airspeed
69
During high power settings, possible ____________ ___________ may occur with excessive lateral cyclic input.
Proprotor overtorque
70
The thrust/power control generates _________ __________ ___________ commands to the engines and collective pitch commands to the proprotors.
Power demand signal (PDS)
71
______________ provides power compensation and access to full engine power when TCRS is disabled.
TCL overtravel
72
During an autorotation, the ______ _________ feature provides additional collective pitch during the flare prior to touchdown.
TCL overtravel
73
If the _______________ combination falls below the _______ _______ ________, the conversion protection system will stop forward nacelle conversion until the aircraft enters the lower conversion corridor limits.
Nacelle/airspeed
| Low speed boundary
74
The __________ interfaces with the __________ to enhance the basic control functions and provide improved handling qualities.
AFCS
| PFCS
75
No. 3 VFG is driven by the ________ ________. No. 4 VFG is driven by the __________.
Left TAGB
| MWGB
76
In flight, at 80% charge, the battery provides _______ minutes of __________ power for flight essential equipment in the event of a total primary ______ power failure.
20
Emergency
DC
77
The APU provides 300 shaft horsepower to drive the MWGB, and in turn the MWGB drives CFG No. 1, the ______ hydraulic pump, and the _________ to supply _____________, hydraulic, and __________ power for ground checkout, main engine starting, and Blade Fold/Wing Stow.
No. 2
SDC
electrical
Pneumatic
78
The OBOGGS will convert partially conditioned air into sufficient oxygen for ___________ crewmembers under all _____________ and ____________ conditions.
Four
Temperature
Altitude
79
The landing gear is operated by hydraulic actuators supplied by the 5000 psi _______ hydraulic system.
No. 3
80
A hydraulic power steering unit mounted on the shock strut provides shimmy dampening protection at all times and ________ left and right steering authority when power steering is selected.
70°
81
If the landing gear is down and airspeed exceeds ________, the warning light in the control lever will come on. Also a ______________ caution will be displayed.
140
| LG DN A/S EXCEEDED
82
If the handle is in the UP position, airspeed is below_______, and the radar altitude is below ______ ft, the landing gear lever light will flash and a tone will be heard in both pilot’s headsets
60 KCAS
| 200
83
The ________ _________ _________ provides MLG brake pressure when the hydraulic system No. 3 pump is not operating.
Back-up brake system
84
The back-up brake system is capable of holding the aircraft on a _____ ° slope under a no-_______ condition at maximum gross weight.
10
| No-leak
85
The nose wheel steering system can be operated to provide three modes of NLG operation: _______ _______, _______ _______ _______, and _______ _______.
Power steering
Nose wheel lock
Full swivel
86
A _______ _______ _______ _______ (_______), located on each proprotor central deice distributor, controls and sequences the operation of the blade fold system by responding to signals from the _______ and inputs from the blade fold proximity sensors.
Blade fold control unit (BFCU)
| Mission computer
87
When the T-handle is moved to the _______ position, fuel to the engine is shut off, backup ______ power is removed, _______ _______ to the EAPS blowers is removed, and the nacelle electrically actuated fire doors, located on the forward bottom and inboard side of each nacelle, are _________.
Arm
FADEC
Hydraulic pressure
Closed
88
Upon detection of a fire in the _______ area or the inboard aft wing cove areas, the system will _______ shutdown the _____ (if it is operating) and the gas generators in the area of the fire will be activated by the _______ in a predetermined sequence.
Mid-wing
Automatically
APU
WFPC
89
The Vibration Structural Life and Engine Diagnostics System provides information to both the operator and maintainer regarding _________, _________ ________ and ________ _________ and ___________.
Vibration
Structural life
Rotor track
Balance
90
When jettisoning a window/hatch from inside the aircraft, ensure to _________ _________ from the window / hatch with _________ _________.
Face away
| Visor down
91
To operate the ramp in flight with the landing gear retracted, it is necessary to open the __________ ________ _____________.
Utility isolation valve
92
The _____________ ______________ _________________ _________________ suppresses cockpit and cabin vibration by reducing rotor blade passage vibration frequencies.
Active vibration suppression system (AVSS)
93
Maximum brake application is _____ kts.
60
94
Maximum taxi turn speed is _____ kts.
20
95
Maximum taxi/takeoff to prepared hard surfaces to include AM-2 matting is _____ kts.
90
96
Maximum touchdown is _____ kts.
100
97
Minimum landing nacelle is _____ °.
75
98
Maximum slope landing/takeoff (all directions) is _____°.
9
99
Maximum airspeed for extension/retraction of landing gear is __________.
140
100
Maximum airspeed for operation with landing gear extended is _____ KCAS.
150
101
Maximum speed with ramp open is __________.
260 KCAS
102
The external cargo hook doors are limited to _______ KCAS latched open and shall not be opened or closed above _____ KCAS.
280
| 80
103
Maximum angle of bank is _________ ° in descending flight.
60
104
If the crewmember has not functioned as a crewmember during the last _____ month period, the crewmember will be required to satisfactorily complete a NATOPS evaluation to regain currency.
6
105
If no engine _______ _______ is indicated after _______ ________ of starter rotation, abort start and investigate cause.
Oil pressure
| 30 seconds
106
Hot start indicated by:
a. MGT> _______ for more than 1 second
b. MGT > ______ for more than 3 seconds
c. MGT> ______ steady state.
835
807
779
107
Power steering is lost if the ____________ is outside the _____ ° deflection limit.
Nose gear
| 75
108
Interim power activates at ______ ° nacelle or ______ KCAS. Upon deactivation, Nr will reduce to ______% and the aircraft will have a tendency to _________.
70
60
100
Settle
109
Downwind landings will not be made with tailwind components exceeding _______ kts.
20
110
At airspeeds less than ________, descent rate shall not exceed____________.
40 KCAS
| 800 FPM
111
Minimum entry altitude of _________ ft AGL needed for practice stall.
5000
112
Ensure Ng decreases to 0%. If residual Ng persists, select _______________ to prevent loss of engine oil.
HYD 3 OFF
113
During conversions the lead slows to ______ KCAS prior to autobeep.
170
114
Immediately cease aerial refueling (normal disconnect) and cease refueling operations if during aerial refueling operations any of the following fuel levels are exceeded:
Feed tanks _________ lbs
Forward sponson tanks _________ lbs
Aft sponson tank _________ lbs.
650
3400
2150
115
Once cleared to the pre-contact position, refueling checklists completed, assume a position ____ to ____ ft in trail of the _______ with the refueling probe in line in both the lateral and vertical reference planes.
10-15 ft
| Drogue
116
During aerial refueling, disengagement from a successful contact is accomplished by reducing power and backing out at a _______ to _____ kt separation rate.
3-5
117
Maneuvering during VTOL mode flight with relative winds greater than ________ kts may lead to pitch-up with sideslip.
20
118
In airplane mode flight above _________ KCAS, the upper conversion protection boundary prevents the nacelles from moving off the downstops.
200
119
By established convention, _________ mode is defined by flight nacelle angles from ______ to _______ °.
VTOL
| 85-95
120
Run-on landings are recommended at ____________ nacelle or higher.
85°
121
Generators will trip off below approximately ________% Nr.
80% VFG
| 67-72% CFG
122
With the _________ _________ _________, all structural loads limiting functions are disabled allowing the pilot to maneuver beyond design limit loads, however, the flapping controller and TCRS remain active.
AFCS failed off
123
“Land immediately” is defined as executing a landing _______________ __________.
Without delay
124
“Maneuver severity—Reduce” is defined as flying the aircraft to minimize ________ ________ and _______ _________ __________ from the pilot.
Aggressive maneuvering
| Flight control commands
125
Emergency Shutdown
1. ECLs - Off (Simultaneously)
2. T-Handles - Arm
3. Rotor Brake - On
4. APU - Stop (As required)
5. Battery - Off
6. Egress as required
126
Dual Engine Failure in Flight, Nacelles (greater than 60°).
1. TCL – Full Aft
2. Nacelles – Max Rate to Aft Stop
3. Airspeed – 120 KCAS
4. Flaps – 0°
5. APU – EMERG RUN/ENGAGE
6. Landing Gear - Down
To arrest sink rate
7. Flare - Execute
Immediately prior to touchdown, to cushion landing:
8. Landing Attitude - Set
9. TCL – Full Forward1. TCL – Full Aft
2. Nacelles – Maximum Rate to Aft Stop
3. Airspeed – 110 KCAS
4. Flaps – O Degrees
5. APU – EMERG RUN/ENGAGE
6. Landing Gear - Down
At 150 ft AGL:
Immediately prior to touchdown, to cushion landing:
7. Cyclic - Flare, level prior to impact
8. TCL – Full Forward
127
Dual Engine Failure in Flight, Nacelles (less than 60 °)
1. TCL - Full aft
2. Nacelles - Max rate to downstop, then 84% Nr
3. Airspeed - 170 KCAS
4. Flaps - Auto
5. APU - EMERG RUN/ENGAGE
6. ELP - Intercept
7. Landing gear - EMERG DOWN (as required)(allow 20 seconds for extension)
At approximately 400-200 ft AGL:
8. Mild flare - Execute, holding 8-10° nose up. Expect airspeed to decay to 120-115 KCAS on touchdown.
128
Engine fire in flight
```
1. Single engine profile - Establish
If fire is confirmed:
2. ECL (affected engine) - Off
3. T-handle (affected engine) - Arm
If fire persists:
4. DISCHARGE button - Press
If fire persists:
5. Land immediately
```
129
Gearbox impending failure
If secondary indications confirm impending gearbox failure:
| 1. Land immediately
130
In the case of _______ oil pressure lost, the ELS is designed to provide _____ ________ of _____________ lubrication in the event the primary lubrication systems fails.
PRGB
30 minutes
Emergency
131
If right _______ oil pressure is lost, the No.2 CFG will fail within minutes. Switch the No.2 CFG off.
TAGB
132
Uncommanded Nacelle Movement (or Nacelle Control Switch Failure)
1. NAC CONTR switches (both sides) - Attempt to override nacelle motion
2. NAC CONTR DSBL switches - DSBL
133
____________ is not approved for IFR flight and will not be used to satisfy enroute or terminal area navigation (RNAV) requirements.
GPS
134
_________ _____________ data may be unreliable when Nr = 84%.
ILS glideslope
135
An offset waypoint is a waypoint whose position is specified relative to another ___________ waypoint called a ______________ waypoint.
Stationary
| Master
136
The _________ __________ coincides with the point of clearance or impact that is displayed in the underlaid FLIR video scene.
Flight path vector (FPV)
137
Threats in the database are identified individually by threat _________, not by threat ___________.
Number
| Tag
138
Effective employment of the MV-22 weapon system operationally and tactically requires proper coordination of the aircraft commander, copilot, crewchief, and __________ __________ __________.
Cockpit management system
